Final Test Review Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Based on the following SPECI, identify thetemperature and dew point.
SPECI PADM 071513Z AUTO 00000KT 4SM-SN BR BKN008 BKN017 OVC029 M01/M02A2983 RMK CIG 005V011 UPE10SNB10
A
M01/M02
2
Q
What is the ICAO station identifierfor the Will Rogers World Airport, Oklahoma City, OK?
A
KOKC
3
Q
Decode theremarks in the METAR/SPECI: CIG 005V008?
A
“Ceiling variable between five hundred and eighthundred”
4
Q
What format appears in the date/time field of aMETAR?
A
The first two digits are the day of the month,the second two digits are the hour, and the last two digits are the minutes inUTC
5
Q
If a METAR/SPECI reported “SHSN” for thepresent weather group, what is the intensity ofthe precipitation?
A
Moderate
6
Q
Decode theRVR in theMETAR/SPECI: R17/M0600FT?
A
“Runway one seven R-V-R less than six hundred”
7
Q
Decode thesky condition group in the METAR/SPECI: SCT030 BKN080 OVC120?
A
”Three thousand scattered, ceiling eight thousandbroken, one two thousand overcast”
8
Q
What term refers to the greatest distance thatcan be seen throughout at least half thehorizon circle (180 degrees), not necessarilycontinuous?
A
Prevailing visibility
9
Q
“An unscheduled report taken when certaincriteria have been observed” describes a____________.
A
SPECI
10
Q
Decode the windgroup in the METAR/SPECI: 08023G37KT?
A
“Wind zero eight zero at two three gusts three seven”
11
Q
In the METAR/SPECI, sky condition “SKC” is spoken_____________.
A
”Clear”
12
Q
How is the temperature displayed in aMETAR/SPECI if it is unavailable?
A
The entire group will not be coded
13
Q
What makes up an RNAV route?
A
Series of waypoints
14
Q
The component of the ILS that gives lateral course guidance to the runway is the ________.
A
Localizer
15
Q
What DME equipment on the ground is required to respond to the aircraft interrogator?
A
Transponder
16
Q
Which component of the INS measures direction?
A
Gyro
17
Q
The effectiveness of the VOR depends upon proper use and adjustment of both _______ and _______ equipment.
A
Ground; airborne
18
Q
Odd-numbered airways are generally oriented __________.
A
North-south
19
Q
What is the principal error associated with INS?
A
Degradation of position with time
20
Q
What does a GBAS navigation system provide?
A
Precision approach service in the vicinity of the host airport
21
Q
NAVAID limitations prohibit the establishment of jet routes above _______.
A
FL450
22
Q
The greatest impact of wake turbulence on ATC is increased separation for ____ and ____ operations.
A
Tower; Radar
23
Q
How are MOAs identified?
A
Name followed by the acronym MOA
24
Q
Does relative wind affect aircraft performance?
A
No
25
Relative wind flows in a direction ____ and _____ the direction of flight
Parallel with; opposite to
26
What is a phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft through the atmosphere?
Wake Turbulence
27
An inappropriate cruising altitude for an aircraft flying VFR on a magnetic course of 360 degrees is _____.
4,500 MSL
28
A pilot and flight crew operating above 14,000 feet MSL must use supplemental oxygen____.
Constantly
29
From what point of reference are parallels of latitude measured?
North and south of the equator
30
If NO changeover point is depicted along an airway, it means that ________.
The changeover is to be made at the halfway point between the two NAVAIDs
31
A pilot has determined the true heading from Oklahoma City to Kansas City is 020°. The magnetic variation is 7° E. What MH should be flown?
013º
32
Which navigational instrument uses non-directional radio beacons to navigate?
ADF
33
How is the height of obstructions depicted on IAP charts?
Always MSL
34
Which chart furnishes terminal data for IFR flight in congested areas?
IFR Area charts
35
A line connecting points of zero variation is called a(n) __________.
Agonic line
36
Are airport coordinates found on the planview section of the IAP chart?
No
37
How many feet of obstacle clearance do MSAs provide?
1,000 feet
38
What additional condition must a pilot provide during a contact approach after obtaining ATC authorization to operate clear of clouds with at least 1 SM of flight visibility?
Reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport in those conditions
39
What are IAPs designed to provide?
IFR descent from an en route environment to a point where a safe landing can be made
40
Name the 3 supplementary components of an ILS.
Approach Lights
Compass Locators
DME
41
Where would you set the NAV frequency on a NAV/COM radio?
Navigation side
42
Which behaviors would lead a controller to suspect a pilot is suffering from hypoxia?
Erratic headings, slurred speech
43
On which component does the altimeter depend on for operation?
Static air vent
44
Which instrument in the FMS would contain information related to terrain?
Multifunction Display
45
Which instruments become inoperative in most small aircraft if the vacuum pump fails?
Heading indicator and attitude indicator
46
Which TCAS level of alerting is issued 45 seconds prior to CPA?
TA
47
The RMI is designed to receive what types of signals?
VOR; NDB
48
Name 4 pieces of information found on Sectional Aeronautical charts (8 possible)
```
VFR Checkpoints
Radio Navigation Aids (NAVAIDs)
Airways
Airports
Controlled Airspace
Special Use Airspace (SUA)
Obstructions
Frequencies
```
49
In which document would you locate operating rules for flight in Class B airspace?
VFR Terminal Area Charts
50
Name 4 pieces of information contained in VFR supplemental charts (8 possible)
```
Airport Locations
Fuel Availability
Runway Info
Airport remarks
daylight Savings
Weather Info sources
Frequencies
Misc
```
51
Frequencies placed just above a communication box on a Sectional Aeronautical chart are used to contact which type of facility?
Flight Service Station
52
What section of a SID or STAR contains the graphic depiction?
Planview
53
Can a STAR serve multiple airports?
Yes
54
Can multiple routes be accommodated on the same STAR chart?
Yes
55
Do SIDs facilitate noise abatement procedures?
No
56
Does a vector SID include departure routes or transition routes?
No
57
How does a procedure begin in a STAR?
At the designated arrival fix
58
On an En Route Low Altitude chart, restricted areas are shown within _______ boundaries.
Blue hatched
59
How is Class A airspace depicted on an En Route High Altitude chart?
Open white area
60
When sending radio communications with an aircraft on initial radio contact, what format should be followed?
Identification of aircraft, ATC facility, then message (if any)
61
What type of route is identified in the following description?
“Q ONE THIRTY-SIX”
High altitude RNAV route
62
List, in order, the four steps in the position relief process.
Preview position; verbal briefing; assumption of position responsibility; position review
63
The exchange of information between positons via interphone or “in person” is known as ____________.
Intrafacility coordination
64
How would a fix that is NOT named be described?
NAVAID, radial and distance from NAVAID, followed by phrase Mile Fix
65
The terminology for stating an altimeter setting of 28.72 is ________.
Altimeter Two Eight Seven Two
66
What are considered authorized transmissions for radio and interphone communications?
ATC or otherwise contributing to air safety and if official FAA messages are required
67
If you are a controller in communication with an aircraft in distress, what are your responsibilities regarding assisting facilities?
Coordinate and direct activities of assisting facilities
68
If a clearance is relayed through an airline dispatch office, what specific terms shall be used?
ATC Clears
69
Which clearance is generally the initial clearance for the pilot?
Departure
70
What information is provided to the pilot in a Landing Clearance?
Runway number followed by the landing clearance
71
Would a taxi clearance be issued by an en route controller?
No
72
A Takeoff Clearance is issued to authorize the pilot to depart the airport and preceded with what information?
Runway number
73
The purpose of an ATC clearance is to ____________.
Prevent collision between known aircraft
74
Select the correct sequence of the following clearance items:
1. Route of flight
2. Holding instructions
3. Aircraft identification
4. Clearance limit
5. Mach number, if applicable
6. Altitude data in order flown
7. Frequency and beacon code information
8. Departure procedure or DP/FMSP
9. Any special instructions
3, 4, 8, 1, 6, 5, 2, 9, 7
75
Can another aircraft you are working relay a clearance to another pilot?
yes
76
What is the purpose of a PIREP?
Report meteorological conditions in flight
77
Refer to the following PIREP to answer the question.
What is the height of the base on the second layer?
OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP BE20/SK BKN035 TOP075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC
9,500 feet
78
Refer to the following PIREP to answer the question.
What should be recorded in the remarks section of this PIREP?
After departing OKC at 0455Z, SWA5325, B737-700, 20 miles northwest of OKC climbing through 15,300 feet, reported bases 2,700, still IMC. Light turbulence was reported during the climb from 1,500 to 3,000, negative ice, wind 310 at 28.
DURC
79
Refer to the following PIREP to answer the question.
What was the weather element that caused the reduction in visibility?
OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP BE20/SK BKN035 TOP075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC
SN
80
Are "remarks" required when completing a PIREP?
No
81
Refer to the following PIREP to answer the question.
How would the intensity of the turbulence and the altitude at which it was first encountered be recorded on a PIREP?
After departing OKC at 0455Z, SWA5325, B737-700, 20 miles northwest of OKC climbing through 15,300 feet, reported bases 2,700, still IMC. Light turbulence was reported during the climb from 1,500 to 3,000, negative ice, wind 310 at 28.
LGT 015
82
Refer to the following PIREP to respond to the question:
At what altitude(s) did the aircraft encounter turbulence?
OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP BE20/SK BKN035 TOP075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC
5,000 - 7,000 feet
83
An aircraft on a VFR flight plan is first considered ________ 30 minutes after its ETA.
Overdue
84
Who is responsible for search and rescue for the Inland Region?
U.S. Air Force
85
Under what 3 conditions should you consider an IFR aircraft overdue?
1. You have reason to believe the aircraft is overdue
2. 30 minutes has passed since clearance void time
3. 30 minutes has passed since an ETA over a compulsory reporting point
86
The transfer of search responsibility to RCC is done __________.
When the ALNOT search has been completed with negative results
87
What does the clearance abbreviation “PD” represent?
Cleared to climb/descend at pilot’s discretion
88
On an en route strip, which block contains the center-estimated time over the fix?
15
89
On an en route strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?
3
90
What symbol indicates that an aircraft's clearance is void if NOT airborne by a specific time?
V
91
Which control symbol indicates that an ARTCC has forwarded flight plan information?
Red circle
92
Do flight strips post current weather data?
No
93
How is a strip marked to indicate that the aircraft has an emergency?
Red “E”
94
What symbol should be used to delete any unwanted or unused altitude information on a flight strip?
X
95
Each PIREP must include the type of aircraft, altitude, aircraft position, and _______.
UTC
96
When an aircraft is in high density altitude, which of the following is true regarding takeoff?
Longer takeoff roll is required
97
Who uses a PIREP to expedite the traffic flow in the vicinity of an airport?
ATCTs and TRACONs
98
On a METAR/SPECI, what speci es any weather phenomena occurring at or in the vicinity of the station?
Present weather group
99
In the Eastern North Pacific region, which ICAO pre x identifies Alaska?
PA
100
The prefix “nimbo-” or suffix “-nimbus” are added to cloud types when ______________.
Precipitation is observed
101
In a wind group of a METAR/SPECI, what should the maximum wind speed be to be considered variable?
6 KT or less
102
A(n) __________ is a concise statement of anticipated significant weather changes that will affect aircraft operations at an airport.
TAF
103
In an MIS directly related to the pilot?
No
104
A ______________ air mass is characterized as being cool and moist.
Maritime Polar
105
An area as large as 10 miles or more of strong damaging winds, on or near the ground, is a ________.
Downburst
106
What level of turbulence would be assigned if food services are not able to operate and occupants are not able to walk within the aircraft during flight?
Severe
107
What causes the lift necessary for precipitation formation?
Fronts and converging winds around surface lows
108
Why is clear ice more dangerous than rime ice?
Can be di cult to remove
109
Are cumuliform clouds associated with a warm air mass moving over a cold surface, producing stable air?
No
110
when reporting sky condition group on a METAR/SPECI report, sky coverage should be stated in same order as the __________ __________
weather observation
111
when reporting sky condition group on a METAR/SPECI report, state cloud heights in ____, ________, and/or ___________ of feet
tens, hundreds and/or thousands of feet
112
In a METAR/SPECI, what do temperatures and dew points prefixed with an “M” signify?
Below zero
113
Within which layer of the atmosphere does temperature increase with altitude, making it a stable layer, generally devoid of significant weather?
Stratosphere
114
What would indicate a TAF change indicator group expected to occur on the third day of the month?
FM030930
115
Which in-flight advisory would be used to forecast a line of severe thunderstorms over Nevada and Arizona?
Convective SIGMET
116
Often, the type of precipitation that occurs at the surface is determined by the __________.
Vertical distribution of temperature
117
AIRMET Tango is issued for ________.
Moderate turbulence
118
Aircraft performance gradually degrades and directional control of the aircraft becomes increasingly difficult as the wind ________.
Turns perpendicular to the runway
119
What prefix precedes the constant reportable value in feet if the RVR is greater than its highest reportable value?
P
120
A front having a steep slope, forcing the air that is being displaced abruptly upward, is known as a _______ front.
Cold
121
Based on the following METAR, identify the visibility.
METAR KLTS 071455Z AUTO 17005KT 10SM CLR 06/M09 A3030
10SM CLR
122
What phraseology is added to announce the report as a SPECI?
”Special report”
123
What is an instrumentally derived value that represents the horizontal distance a pilot may see down the runway from the approach end?
RVR
124
How is sky coverage announced on a METAR/SPECI?
State in same order as reported in the weather observation
125
A forecast for IFR conditions would be found in which NWS weather report?
AIRMET SIERRA
126
decode the remarks in the METAR/SPECI: PK WND 23034/43
"Peak wind two three zero at three four occurred at four three past the hour”
127
Within the conterminous U.S. (CONUS), which product would be issued for volcanic ash?
SIGMET
128
How is a Wind and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FB) generated?
It is computer generated
129
What type of aircraft made the report in the following PIREP?
OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP BE20/SK BKN035 TOP075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC
BE20
130
Which type of aircraft will perform better in adverse wind conditions due to its higher tailwind and crosswind thresholds?
Larger aircraft
131
How are temporary fluctuations in forecasted meteorological conditions indicated on a TAF?
TEMPO
132
Would a tornado require a convective sigmet?
Yes
133
Severe damage can occur if ________ is ingested into an engine.
Volcanic ash
134
What is the name given to the type of turbulence that is caused by strong updrafts and downdrafts?
Convective turbulence
135
What do the first two digits of an FB forecast element indicate?
The wind direction in tens of degrees relative to true north
136
What organization is responsible for interfacing between CWSU meteorologists, ARTCC controllers, and FAA facilities within the
ARTCC's area of responsibilities?
CWC
137
Is a CWA issued for light icing?
No
138
Decode the elements in the METAR/SPECI: SPECI KHYS 092338Z AUTO…
“Hays, automated, special report, three eight observation…”
139
Water vapor will condense to form dew or fog when ________.
The temperature/dew point spread is zero
140
A SIGMET in the U.S. can have a maximum valid period of how many hours?
Four
141
Do AIRMETs concern weather of less severity than SIGMETs
Yes
142
Which in-flight advisory would provide a forecast of embedded thunderstorms over Hawaii?
SIGMET
143
Convective SIGMETs ______________.
Are only issued for the conterminous U.S.
144
What is one weather phenomena that does not typically result in IFR conditions?
Hail
145
When a TAF is issued, where does it apply?
5 SM of an airport
146
What is the area identifier of a SIGMET that begins "BOSU WS 251615?
BOS
147
CWAs are issued for existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within what period of time?
Two hours
148
A forecast of non-convective LLWS would be found in what NWS product?
TAF
149
An MIS is issued by which entity?
CWSU
150
Wind and Temperatures Aloft Forecasts (FBs) are used by _____________.
Air Traffic Control
151
Is the stratosphere a very unstable layer of the atmosphere?
No
152
What type of precipitation occurs when there is a shallow layer aloft with above-freezing temperatures, with a deep layer of below freezing air based at the surface?
Ice pellets
153
Precipitation formation requires water vapor, lift and _________.
A growth process
154
Is Maritime Polar a front?
No
155
The ratio of water vapor in the air compared to the amount of water vapor the air can hold at a particular temperature and pressure is the definition of ________.
Relative humidity
156
Virtually all aircraft fly in which two layers of the atmosphere?
Troposphere and stratosphere
157
What type of clouds look like fluffy cotton balls or heaps, indicate upward vertical motion or thermal uplift of air, and can produce severe turbulence, icing, and other hazards?
Cumuliform
158
What cloud type is usually composed of ice crystals, is typically thin and white in appearance, contains no significant icing, and is a high-level cloud forming above 20,000 feet?
Cirriform
159
What type of air mass produces stable air that is associated with smooth air, poor visibility, and stratiform clouds?
A warm air mass moving over a cold surface
160
A hazard associated with the jet stream is _________.
Clear air turbulence
161
Is Equatorial a temperature property?
No
162
Is INS a radio based navigation system?
No
163
What should the controller do when a pilot indicates that he/she will NOT accept a SID?
Clear the aircraft via the led route to the extent possible or via a PDR
164
A STAR is designed to facilitate transition between ________.
En route and instrument approach operations
165
What is a segment of an airway that is common to two or more routes and carries the numbers of all the airways that coincide for that segment?
Shared route
166
What basic form of navigation uses visual references and landmarks to navigate locations?
Pilotage
167
Are RNP routes fixed route systems established for air navigation purposes?
No
168
The bearing and DME frequencies of a TACAN are paired and assigned by ________.
Channel
169
What is the Prime Meridian?
Line located at zero degrees (0º) longitude
170
The ________is a self-contained navigation system that provides aircraft position and navigation information in response to information resulting from the movement of the aircraft on system components.
INS
171
What happens in higher altitudes to cause an aircraft to indicate a lower airspeed reading?
Fewer air molecules enter the aircraft’s pitot tube
172
Is Electronic glideslope information provided in a nonprecision approach?
No
173
What component do pilots use to periodically reset the heading indicator due to precession?
Magnetic compass
174
What must an aircraft have in order for it to maneuver in an RNAV route?
RNAV capability
175
To be published on an IFR En Route high altitude chart, an airport must have a _____ or greater __________ runway
5000'
| hard surfaced
176
What are the major components of the pitot-static system?
Impact and static pressure chambers and lines
177
What condition in the body exists when a person suffers from hypoxia?
Lack of oxygen in the body tissue
178
The maximum usable range of an “H” class VOR is __________.
130 NM
179
What phrase is encouraged, but NOT required to be included on a fight plan if a pilot does not wish to be issued a STAR?
"No STAR"
180
What type of aircraft are CVFPs primarily designed to accommodate?
Turbojet
181
Which document would be most useful to a controller when recommending a suitable airport for a pilot to refuel?
Chart Supplement
182
What is required of ATC when using a Vector SID?
Provide radar vectors from just after takeoff until reaching the assigned route or a fix depicted on the SID chart
183
In the airport data “285 L” on a Sectional Aeronautical chart, the number “285 L” indicates the _____________.
Airport elevation
184
Which type of speed is shown on the aircraft’s airspeed indicator?
IAS
185
The FMS is a(n) ________________.
Computer database used for navigation
186
Are military training routes used in a STAR transition to connect a published segment to the basic STAR procedure?
No
187
What are the components of the INS?
Accelerometer and gyros
188
What does ATC assign to a single aircraft that is used for radar identification and flight tracking?
Discrete code
189
To accept a clearance for the DANDD 5 arrival to Denver, the pilot must be in possession of the ________ for that STAR.
Approved chart
190
Where does the intermediate segment of an approach procedure end?
Final approach fix
191
Which satellite-based navigation system component uses a large database to allow routes to be preprogrammed?
FMS computer
192
Which NAVAID transmits in VHF and provides horizontal (left/right) guidance along the extended centerline of the runway?
Localizer
193
Which system provides differential corrections and integrity monitoring of GNSS?
GBAS
194
The major difference between a Sectional Aeronautical chart and a Terminal Area chart is that the Terminal Area chart ______.
Provides greater detail and a larger scale
195
What is another term commonly used to refer to UTC?
Zulu
196
What section in a SID consists of a narrative that correlates with the Planview?
Textual description
197
Which ILS component assists in the transition from instrument to visual flight?
Approach lights
