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FAA Basics Class > Final Test Review Questions > Flashcards

Final Test Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Based on the following SPECI, identify thetemperature and dew point.

SPECI PADM 071513Z AUTO 00000KT 4SM-SN BR BKN008 BKN017 OVC029 M01/M02A2983 RMK CIG 005V011 UPE10SNB10

A

M01/M02

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2
Q

What is the ICAO station identifierfor the Will Rogers World Airport, Oklahoma City, OK?

A

KOKC

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3
Q

Decode theremarks in the METAR/SPECI: CIG 005V008?

A

“Ceiling variable between five hundred and eighthundred”

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4
Q

What format appears in the date/time field of aMETAR?

A

The first two digits are the day of the month,the second two digits are the hour, and the last two digits are the minutes inUTC

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5
Q

If a METAR/SPECI reported “SHSN” for thepresent weather group, what is the intensity ofthe precipitation?

A

Moderate

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6
Q

Decode theRVR in theMETAR/SPECI: R17/M0600FT?

A

“Runway one seven R-V-R less than six hundred”

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7
Q

Decode thesky condition group in the METAR/SPECI: SCT030 BKN080 OVC120?

A

”Three thousand scattered, ceiling eight thousandbroken, one two thousand overcast”

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8
Q

What term refers to the greatest distance thatcan be seen throughout at least half thehorizon circle (180 degrees), not necessarilycontinuous?

A

Prevailing visibility

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9
Q

“An unscheduled report taken when certaincriteria have been observed” describes a____________.

A

SPECI

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10
Q

Decode the windgroup in the METAR/SPECI: 08023G37KT?

A

“Wind zero eight zero at two three gusts three seven”

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11
Q

In the METAR/SPECI, sky condition “SKC” is spoken_____________.

A

”Clear”

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12
Q

How is the temperature displayed in aMETAR/SPECI if it is unavailable?

A

The entire group will not be coded

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13
Q

What makes up an RNAV route?

A

Series of waypoints

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14
Q

The component of the ILS that gives lateral course guidance to the runway is the ________.

A

Localizer

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15
Q

What DME equipment on the ground is required to respond to the aircraft interrogator?

A

Transponder

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16
Q

Which component of the INS measures direction?

A

Gyro

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17
Q

The effectiveness of the VOR depends upon proper use and adjustment of both _______ and _______ equipment.

A

Ground; airborne

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18
Q

Odd-numbered airways are generally oriented __________.

A

North-south

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19
Q

What is the principal error associated with INS?

A

Degradation of position with time

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20
Q

What does a GBAS navigation system provide?

A

Precision approach service in the vicinity of the host airport

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21
Q

NAVAID limitations prohibit the establishment of jet routes above _______.

A

FL450

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22
Q

The greatest impact of wake turbulence on ATC is increased separation for ____ and ____ operations.

A

Tower; Radar

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23
Q

How are MOAs identified?

A

Name followed by the acronym MOA

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24
Q

Does relative wind affect aircraft performance?

A

No

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25
Q

Relative wind flows in a direction ____ and _____ the direction of flight

A

Parallel with; opposite to

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26
Q

What is a phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft through the atmosphere?

A

Wake Turbulence

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27
Q

An inappropriate cruising altitude for an aircraft flying VFR on a magnetic course of 360 degrees is _____.

A

4,500 MSL

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28
Q

A pilot and flight crew operating above 14,000 feet MSL must use supplemental oxygen____.

A

Constantly

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29
Q

From what point of reference are parallels of latitude measured?

A

North and south of the equator

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30
Q

IfNOchangeover point is depicted along anairway, it means that ________.

A

The changeover is to be made at the halfway pointbetween the two NAVAIDs

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31
Q

A pilot has determined the true heading from Oklahoma City to Kansas City is 020°. The magnetic variation is 7° E. What MHshould be flown?

A

013º

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32
Q

Which navigational instrument uses non-directional radio beacons to navigate?

A

ADF

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33
Q

How is the height of obstructions depicted onIAP charts?

A

Always MSL

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34
Q

Which chart furnishes terminal data for IFRflight in congested areas?

A

IFR Area charts

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35
Q

A line connecting points of zero variation is called a(n) __________.

A

Agonic line

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36
Q

Are airport coordinates found on the planview section of the IAP chart?

A

No

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37
Q

How many feet of obstacle clearance do MSAs provide?

A

1,000 feet

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38
Q

What additional condition must a pilot provideduring a contact approach after obtaining ATCauthorization to operate clear of clouds with atleast 1 SM of flight visibility?

A

Reasonable expectation of continuing to thedestination airport in those conditions

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39
Q

What are IAPs designed to provide?

A

IFR descent from an en route environment to a pointwhere a safe landing can be made

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40
Q

Name the 3 supplementary components of an ILS.

A

Approach Lights
Compass Locators
DME

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41
Q

Where would you set the NAV frequency ona NAV/COM radio?

A

Navigation side

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42
Q

Which behaviors would lead a controller tosuspect a pilot is suffering from hypoxia?

A

Erratic headings, slurred speech

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43
Q

On which component does thealtimeter depend on for operation?

A

Static air vent

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44
Q

Which instrument in the FMS would containinformation related to terrain?

A

Multifunction Display

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45
Q

Which instruments become inoperative inmost small aircraft if the vacuum pump fails?

A

Heading indicator and attitude indicator

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46
Q

Which TCAS level of alerting is issued 45seconds prior to CPA?

A

TA

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47
Q

The RMI is designed toreceive what types of signals?

A

VOR; NDB

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48
Q

Name 4 pieces of information found on Sectional Aeronautical charts (8 possible)

A 
VFR Checkpoints
Radio Navigation Aids (NAVAIDs)
Airways
Airports
Controlled Airspace
Special Use Airspace (SUA)
Obstructions
Frequencies
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49
Q

In which document would you locateoperating rules for flight in Class B airspace?

A

VFR Terminal Area Charts

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50
Q

Name 4 pieces of information contained in VFR supplemental charts (8 possible)

A 
Airport Locations
Fuel Availability
Runway Info
Airport remarks
daylight Savings
Weather Info sources
Frequencies
Misc
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51
Q

Frequencies placed just above acommunication box on a SectionalAeronautical chart are used to contact whichtype of facility?

A

Flight Service Station

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52
Q

What section of a SID or STARcontains the graphic depiction?

A

Planview

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53
Q

Can a STAR serve multiple airports?

A

Yes

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54
Q

Can multiple routes be accommodated on the same STAR chart?

A

Yes

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55
Q

Do SIDs facilitate noise abatement procedures?

A

No

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56
Q

Does a vector SID include departure routes or transition routes?

A

No

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57
Q

How does a procedure begin in a STAR?


A

At the designated arrival fix

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58
Q

On an En Route Low Altitude chart,restricted areas are shown within_______ boundaries.


A

Blue hatched

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59
Q

How is Class A airspace depicted on an EnRoute High Altitude chart?

A

Open white area

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60
Q

When sending radio communications with anaircraft on initial radio contact, what formatshould be followed?

A

Identification of aircraft, ATC facility, then message (if any)

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61
Q

What type of route is identified in the followingdescription?
“Q ONE THIRTY-SIX”

A

High altitude RNAV route

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62
Q

List, in order, the four steps in the positionrelief process.

A

Preview position; verbal briefing; assumption ofposition responsibility; position review

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63
Q

The exchange of information betweenpositons via interphone or “in person” isknown as ____________.

A

Intrafacility coordination

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64
Q

How would a fix that isNOTnamed bedescribed?

A

NAVAID, radial and distance from NAVAID, followed byphrase Mile Fix

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65
Q

The terminology for stating an altimeter settingof 28.72 is ________.

A

Altimeter Two Eight Seven Two

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66
Q

What are consideredauthorized transmissions for radio andinterphone communications?

A

ATC or otherwise contributing to air safety and if official FAA messages are required

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67
Q

If you are a controller in communication withan aircraft in distress, what are your responsibilities regarding assisting facilities?

A

Coordinate and direct activities of assisting facilities

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68
Q

If a clearance is relayed through an airline dispatch office, what specific terms shall be used?

A

ATC Clears

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69
Q

Which clearance is generally the initialclearance for the pilot?

A

Departure

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70
Q

What information is provided to the pilot in aLanding Clearance?

A

Runway number followed by the landing clearance

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71
Q

Would a taxi clearance be issued by an en route controller?

A

No

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72
Q

A Takeoff Clearance is issued to authorize thepilot to depart the airport and preceded withwhat information?

A

Runway number

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73
Q

The purpose of an ATC clearance is to____________.

A

Prevent collision between known aircraft

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74
Q

Select the correct sequence of the followingclearance items:

  1. Route of flight
  2. Holding instructions
  3. Aircraft identification
  4. Clearance limit
  5. Mach number, if applicable
  6. Altitude data in order flown
  7. Frequency and beacon code information
  8. Departure procedure or DP/FMSP
  9. Any special instructions
A

3, 4, 8, 1, 6, 5, 2, 9, 7

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75
Q

Can another aircraft you are working relay a clearance to another pilot?

A

yes

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76
Q

What is the purpose of a PIREP?

A

Report meteorological conditions in flight

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77
Q

Refer to the following PIREP to answer the question.
What is the height of the base on the second layer?

OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP BE20/SK BKN035 TOP075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC

A

9,500 feet

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78
Q

Refer to the following PIREP to answer the question.
What should be recorded in the remarks section of this PIREP?

After departing OKC at 0455Z, SWA5325, B737-700, 20 miles northwest of OKC climbing through 15,300 feet, reported bases 2,700, still IMC. Light turbulence was reported during the climb from 1,500 to 3,000, negative ice, wind 310 at 28.

A

DURC

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79
Q

Refer to the following PIREP to answer the question.
What was the weather element that caused the reduction in visibility?
OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP BE20/SK BKN035 TOP075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC

A

SN

80
Q

Are “remarks” required when completing a PIREP?

A

No

81
Q

Refer to the following PIREP to answer the question.
How would the intensity of the turbulence and the altitude at which it was first encountered be recorded on a PIREP?

After departing OKC at 0455Z, SWA5325, B737-700, 20 miles northwest of OKC climbing through 15,300 feet, reported bases 2,700, still IMC. Light turbulence was reported during the climb from 1,500 to 3,000, negative ice, wind 310 at 28.

A

LGT 015

82
Q

Refer to the followingPIREP to respond to the question:
At what altitude(s) did the aircraft encounter turbulence?


OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP BE20/SK BKN035 TOP075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC

A

5,000 -7,000feet

83
Q

An aircraft on a VFR flight plan is first considered ________ 30 minutes after its ETA.

A

Overdue

84
Q

Who is responsible for search and rescue for the Inland Region?

A

U.S.Air Force

85
Q

Under what 3 conditions should you consider an IFR aircraft overdue?

A
  1. You have reason to believe the aircraft is overdue
  2. 30 minutes has passed since clearance void time
  3. 30 minutes has passed since an ETA over a compulsory reporting point
86
Q

The transfer of search responsibility to RCC is done __________.

A

When the ALNOT search has been completed with negative results

87
Q

What does the clearance abbreviation “PD” represent?

A

Cleared to climb/descend at pilot’s discretion

88
Q

On an en route strip, which block contains the center-estimated time over the fix?

A

15

89
Q

On an en route strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?

A

3

90
Q

What symbol indicates that an aircraft’s clearance is void ifNOTairborne by a specific time?

A

V

91
Q

Which control symbol indicates that an ARTCC has forwarded flight plan information?

A

Red circle

92
Q

Do flight strips post current weather data?

A

No

93
Q

How is a strip marked to indicate that the aircraft has an emergency?

A

Red “E”

94
Q

What symbol should be used to delete any unwanted or unused altitude information on a flight strip?

A

X

95
Q

Each PIREP must include the type of aircraft, altitude, aircraft position, and _______.

A

UTC

96
Q

When an aircraft is in high density altitude, which of the following is true regarding takeoff?

A

Longer takeoff roll is required

97
Q

Who uses a PIREP to expedite the traffic flow in the vicinity of an airport?

A

ATCTs and TRACONs

98
Q

On a METAR/SPECI, what speci es any weather phenomena occurring at or in the vicinity of the station?

A

Present weather group

99
Q

In the Eastern North Pacific region, which ICAO pre x identifies Alaska?

A

PA

100
Q

The prefix “nimbo-” or suffix “-nimbus” are added to cloud types when ______________.

A

Precipitation is observed

101
Q

In a wind group of a METAR/SPECI, what should the maximum wind speed be to be considered variable?

A

6 KT or less

102
Q

A(n) __________ is a concise statement of anticipated significant weather changes that will affect aircraft operations at an airport.

A

TAF

103
Q

In an MIS directly related to the pilot?

A

No

104
Q

A ______________ air mass is characterized as being cool and moist.

A

Maritime Polar

105
Q

An area as large as 10 miles or more of strong damaging winds, on or near the ground, is a ________.

A

Downburst

106
Q

What level of turbulence would be assigned if food services are not able to operate and occupants are not able to walk within the aircraft during flight?

A

Severe

107
Q

What causes the lift necessary for precipitation formation?

A

Fronts and converging winds around surface lows

108
Q

Why is clear ice more dangerous than rime ice?

A

Can be di cult to remove

109
Q

Are cumuliform clouds associated with a warm air mass moving over a cold surface, producing stable air?

A

No

110
Q

when reporting sky condition group on a METAR/SPECI report, sky coverage should be stated in same order as the __________ __________

A

weather observation

111
Q

when reporting sky condition group on a METAR/SPECI report, state cloud heights in ____, ________, and/or ___________ of feet

A

tens, hundreds and/or thousands of feet

112
Q

In a METAR/SPECI, what do temperatures and dew points prefixed with an “M” signify?

A

Below zero

113
Q

Within which layer of the atmosphere does temperature increase with altitude, making it a stable layer, generally devoid of significant weather?

A

Stratosphere

114
Q

What would indicate a TAF change indicator group expected to occur on the third day of the month?

A

FM030930

115
Q

Which in-flight advisory would be used to forecast a line of severe thunderstorms over Nevada and Arizona?

A

Convective SIGMET

116
Q

Often, the type of precipitation that occurs at the surface is determined by the __________.

A

Vertical distribution of temperature

117
Q

AIRMET Tango is issued for ________.

A

Moderate turbulence

118
Q

Aircraft performance gradually degrades and directional control of the aircraft becomes increasingly difficult as the wind ________.

A

Turns perpendicular to the runway

119
Q

What prefix precedes the constant reportable value in feet if the RVR is greater than its highest reportable value?

A

P

120
Q

A front having a steep slope, forcing the air that is being displaced abruptly upward, is known as a _______ front.

A

Cold

121
Q

Based on the following METAR, identify the visibility.

METAR KLTS 071455Z AUTO 17005KT 10SM CLR 06/M09 A3030

A

10SM CLR

122
Q

What phraseology is added to announce the report as a SPECI?

A

”Special report”

123
Q

What is an instrumentally derived value that represents the horizontal distance a pilot may see down the runway from the approach end?

A

RVR

124
Q

How is sky coverage announced on a METAR/SPECI?

A

State in same order as reported in the weather observation

125
Q

A forecast for IFR conditions would be found in which NWS weather report?

A

AIRMET SIERRA

126
Q

decode the remarks in the METAR/SPECI: PK WND 23034/43

A

“Peak wind two three zero at three four occurred at four three past the hour”

127
Q

Within the conterminous U.S. (CONUS), which product would be issued for volcanic ash?

A

SIGMET

128
Q

How is a Wind and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FB) generated?

A

It is computer generated

129
Q

What type of aircraft made the report in the following PIREP?

OKC UA /OV OKC180010/TM 1516/FL120/TP BE20/SK BKN035 TOP075/OVC095-TOPUNKN/WX FV01SM SN/TA M04/TB MOD 050-070/RM TCU W DURC

A

BE20

130
Q

Which type of aircraft will perform better in adverse wind conditions due to its higher tailwind and crosswind thresholds?

A

Larger aircraft

131
Q

How are temporary fluctuations in forecasted meteorological conditions indicated on a TAF?

A

TEMPO

132
Q

Would a tornado require a convective sigmet?

A

Yes

133
Q

Severe damage can occur if ________ is ingested into an engine.

A

Volcanic ash

134
Q

What is the name given to the type of turbulence that is caused by strong updrafts and downdrafts?

A

Convective turbulence

135
Q

What do the first two digits of an FB forecast element indicate?

A

The wind direction in tens of degrees relative to true north

136
Q

What organization is responsible for interfacing between CWSU meteorologists, ARTCC controllers, and FAA facilities within the
ARTCC’s area of responsibilities?

A

CWC

137
Q

Is a CWA issued for light icing?

A

No

138
Q

Decode the elements in the METAR/SPECI: SPECI KHYS 092338Z AUTO…

A

“Hays, automated, special report, three eight observation…”

139
Q

Water vapor will condense to form dew or fog when ________.

A

The temperature/dew point spread is zero

140
Q

A SIGMET in the U.S. can have a maximum valid period of how many hours?

A

Four

141
Q

Do AIRMETs concern weather of less severity than SIGMETs

A

Yes

142
Q

Which in-flight advisory would provide a forecast of embedded thunderstorms over Hawaii?

A

SIGMET

143
Q

Convective SIGMETs ______________.

A

Are only issued for the conterminous U.S.

144
Q

What is one weather phenomena that does not typically result in IFR conditions?

A

Hail

145
Q

When a TAF is issued, where does it apply?

A

5 SM of an airport

146
Q

What is the area identifier of a SIGMET that begins “BOSU WS 251615?

A

BOS

147
Q

CWAs are issued for existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within what period of time?

A

Two hours

148
Q

A forecast of non-convective LLWS would be found in what NWS product?

A

TAF

149
Q

An MIS is issued by which entity?

A

CWSU

150
Q

Wind and Temperatures Aloft Forecasts (FBs) are used by _____________.

A

Air Traffic Control

151
Q

Is the stratosphere a very unstable layer of the atmosphere?

A

No

152
Q

What type of precipitation occurs when there is a shallow layer aloft with above-freezing temperatures, with a deep layer of below freezing air based at the surface?

A

Ice pellets

153
Q

Precipitation formation requires water vapor, lift and _________.

A

A growth process

154
Q

Is Maritime Polar a front?

A

No

155
Q

The ratio of water vapor in the air compared to the amount of water vapor the air can hold at a particular temperature and pressure is the definition of ________.

A

Relative humidity

156
Q

Virtually all aircraft fly in which two layers of the atmosphere?

A

Troposphere and stratosphere

157
Q

What type of clouds look like fluffy cotton balls or heaps, indicate upward vertical motion or thermal uplift of air, and can produce severe turbulence, icing, and other hazards?

A

Cumuliform

158
Q

What cloud type is usually composed of ice crystals, is typically thin and white in appearance, contains no significant icing, and is a high-level cloud forming above 20,000 feet?

A

Cirriform

159
Q

What type of air mass produces stable air that is associated with smooth air, poor visibility, and stratiform clouds?

A

A warm air mass moving over a cold surface

160
Q

A hazard associated with the jet stream is _________.

A

Clear air turbulence

161
Q

Is Equatorial a temperature property?

A

No

162
Q

Is INS a radio based navigation system?

A

No

163
Q

What should the controller do when a pilot indicates that he/she will NOT accept a SID?

A

Clear the aircraft via the led route to the extent possible or via a PDR

164
Q

A STAR is designed to facilitate transition between ________.

A

En route and instrument approach operations

165
Q

What is a segment of an airway that is common to two or more routes and carries the numbers of all the airways that coincide for that segment?

A

Shared route

166
Q

What basic form of navigation uses visual references and landmarks to navigate locations?

A

Pilotage

167
Q

Are RNP routes fixed route systems established for air navigation purposes?

A

No

168
Q

The bearing and DME frequencies of a TACAN are paired and assigned by ________.

A

Channel

169
Q

What is the Prime Meridian?

A

Line located at zero degrees (0º) longitude

170
Q

The ________is a self-contained navigation system that provides aircraft position and navigation information in response to information resulting from the movement of the aircraft on system components.

A

INS

171
Q

What happens in higher altitudes to cause an aircraft to indicate a lower airspeed reading?

A

Fewer air molecules enter the aircraft’s pitot tube

172
Q

Is Electronic glideslope information provided in a nonprecision approach?

A

No

173
Q

What component do pilots use to periodically reset the heading indicator due to precession?

A

Magnetic compass

174
Q

What must an aircraft have in order for it to maneuver in an RNAV route?

A

RNAV capability

175
Q

To be published on an IFR En Route high altitude chart, an airport must have a _____ or greater __________ runway

A

5000’

hard surfaced

176
Q

What are the major components of the pitot-static system?

A

Impact and static pressure chambers and lines

177
Q

What condition in the body exists when a person suffers from hypoxia?

A

Lack of oxygen in the body tissue

178
Q

The maximum usable range of an “H” class VOR is __________.

A

130 NM

179
Q

What phrase is encouraged, but NOT required to be included on a fight plan if a pilot does not wish to be issued a STAR?

A

“No STAR”

180
Q

What type of aircraft are CVFPs primarily designed to accommodate?

A

Turbojet

181
Q

Which document would be most useful to a controller when recommending a suitable airport for a pilot to refuel?

A

Chart Supplement

182
Q

What is required of ATC when using a Vector SID?

A

Provide radar vectors from just after takeoff until reaching the assigned route or a fix depicted on the SID chart

183
Q

In the airport data “285 L” on a Sectional Aeronautical chart, the number “285 L” indicates the _____________.

A

Airport elevation

184
Q

Which type of speed is shown on the aircraft’s airspeed indicator?

A

IAS

185
Q

The FMS is a(n) ________________.

A

Computer database used for navigation

186
Q

Are military training routes used in a STAR transition to connect a published segment to the basic STAR procedure?

A

No

187
Q

What are the components of the INS?

A

Accelerometer and gyros

188
Q

What does ATC assign to a single aircraft that is used for radar identification and flight tracking?

A

Discrete code

189
Q

To accept a clearance for the DANDD 5 arrival to Denver, the pilot must be in possession of the ________ for that STAR.

A

Approved chart

190
Q

Where does the intermediate segment of an approach procedure end?

A

Final approach fix

191
Q

Which satellite-based navigation system component uses a large database to allow routes to be preprogrammed?

A

FMS computer

192
Q

Which NAVAID transmits in VHF and provides horizontal (left/right) guidance along the extended centerline of the runway?

A

Localizer

193
Q

Which system provides differential corrections and integrity monitoring of GNSS?

A

GBAS

194
Q

The major difference between a Sectional Aeronautical chart and a Terminal Area chart is that the Terminal Area chart ______.

A

Provides greater detail and a larger scale

195
Q

What is another term commonly used to refer to UTC?

A

Zulu

196
Q

What section in a SID consists of a narrative that correlates with the Planview?

A

Textual description

197
Q

Which ILS component assists in the transition from instrument to visual flight?

A

Approach lights

FAA Basics Class (4 decks)

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