Final Test Questions

Question 1

You are correctly performing the jaw-thrust maneuver when you:

A. Use the thumbs as a lever to lift the patient’s mandible upward
B. Maintain the patient’s head in a neutral position and tilt the head slightly backward.
C. Open the patient’s airway by slightly pushing down on the forehead and thrusting the jaw upward.
D. Place one hand on the patient’s forehead and lift the jaw upward with the other hand

Answer 1

A. Use the thumbs as a lever to lift the patient’s mandible upward

Question 2

At the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, you are presented with a patient who is not breathing. According to the START system, which of the following actions should you take next?

A.place a red tag on the patient
B.start assisting ventilation with a BVM
C.open the airway
D.place a black tag on the patient

Answer 2

C. Open the airway

Question 3

The greatest risk posed by an urgent move is:

A. Not getting the patient’s name and address
B. changing the position I the patient and causing a risk-management investigation
C. Delaying interventions for life-threatening conditions
D. Incurring a lawsuit by the patient

Answer 3

C. Delaying interventions for life-threatening conditions

Question 4

When performing a primary assessment, the first evidence that the body may be in shock is:

A. Skin that is warm and diaphoretic
B. a radial pulse of over 100 bpms
C. Hypertension
D. A slowed respiratory rate

Answer 4

B. a radial pulse of over 100 bpms

Question 5

The degree to which hemoglobin is full of oxygen is called:

A. Hemoglobin saturation
B. oxygen saturation
C. Hematocrit
D. Oxygen capacity

Answer 5

B. oxygen saturation

Question 6

The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA):

A. Are temporary and resolve within 24 hours.
B. Can persist for a few days before the resolve.
C. Are mild but permanent
D. Are severe and permanent

Answer 6

A. Are temporary and resolve within 24 hours.

Question 7

When performing a secondary assessment on a concise patient, which of the following signs is most suggestive of a seizure?

A. Bruises on the arms
B. a bitten tongue
C. Pinpoint pupils
D. A slow heart rate

Answer 7

B. a bitten tongue

Question 8

Which of the following criteria is NOT one of the criteria for administering activated charcoal?

A. The patient ingested the poison less then 3 hours ago
B. The patient is awake and responsive.
C. Transport time will be prolonged
D. Authorization ha been granted by medical control or some other EMS authority

Answer 8

A. The patient ingested the poison less then 3 hours ago

Question 9

You are teaching a class about drug-related emergencies, specifically opiate overdose. Which of the following statements made by students indicates an understanding of possible signs of opiate overdose

A. Only illegal narcotics can cause hallucinations, which may make the patient violent.
B. When assessing a patient, you must be alert for respiratory depression
C. You should always ask the patient if they have chest pain because narcotics increase the heart’s workload
D. You should always check the patient’s pupils because they will be dilated in a narcotics overdose

Answer 9

B. When assessing a patient, you must be alert for respiratory depression

Question 10

You have been called to treat a 47-year-old man complaining of chest pain. He is alert, oriented, and complaining of pain in his chest that came on suddenly about 15 mins ago. His skin is diaphoretic and cool. Which of the following actions should you take first?

A. Apply oxygen at 15 LPM through a nonrebreather mask
B. Radion for an ambulance with ALS
C. Help him administer his nitroglycerin
D. Obtain a SAMPLE history

Answer 10

A. Apply oxygen at 15 LPM through a nonrebreather mask

Question 11

Because the spleen is a solid organ, the primary threat to life when it is ruptured is:

A. Blood loss
B. Pain
C. Infection
D. Inflammation

Answer 11

A. Blood loss

Question 12

A 43-year-old woman who is crying states that age has a sharp abdominal pain that is localized to her right lower quadrant. When assessing her abdomen, you would:

A. Start by palpating the left upper quadrant
B. Avoid palpating the entire abdomen
C. Start palpating in the right lower quadrant.
D. Avoid palpating the right lower quadrant

Answer 12

A. Start by palpating the left upper quadrant

Question 13

A patient involved in an altercation was struck in the ribs with a baseball bat. Your assessment reveals intact skin with significant bruising to the right lateral chest. When palpating this area you note instability and crepitus to the rub cage. An OEC Technician would recognize a:

A. Thoracic injury secondary to penetrating trauma
B. Chest injury caused by blunt trauma
C. Pulmonary injury caused by penetrating trauma
D. Chest wall injury caused by acceleration forces

Answer 13

B. Chest injury caused by blunt trauma

Question 14

Which of the following statements about the use of a tourniquet is true?

A. It should be placed as distal as possible but at least several inches proximal to the wound.
B. It can be used on any part of the body except the neck
C. On an arm or leg, it should be placed 1 inch from either the elbow or knee
D. Tourniquets are a last resort and should be used rarely, if ever

Answer 14

A. It should be placed as distal as possible but at least several inches proximal to the wound.

Question 15

Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who was exposed to a dry chemical powder and is complaining if severe pain at the site of contact on both of his hands. There is no decontamination shower on site. Which of the following actions would be the best way I manage this situation?

A. Brush away as much of the powder as possible and then have the patient hold his hands under running water from a faucet or garden hose
B. Have the fire department connect to a hydrant and spray the patient down from head to toe.
C. Brush away as much powder as possible and then pour a bottle of sterile saline solution over the patients hands.
D. Brush away the powder and then bandage the patient’s hands in a position of function

Answer 15

A. Brush away as much of the powder as possible and then have the patient hold his hands under running water from a faucet or garden hose

Question 16

During your SAMPLE inquiry, a patient reports that he had a surgery to repair a torn ligament. Based on your training, you know that a ligament is:

A. A thick muscle that surrounds a joint
B. A tissue that stabilizes 2 contiguous bone ends
C. A muscle that connects to a Bone
D. Connective tissue that connects muscle and bone

Answer 16

B. A tissue that stabilizes 2 contiguous bone ends

Question 17

The NSP’s current recommendations. Regarding ski boot removal when applying a traction splint is:

A. The removal is determined by the weather conditions and the extent of the patient’s injuries.
B. To leave the boot on until you have at least 2 other patrollers to help with its removal.
C. That removal should occur in a warm environment, so it should occur as soon as possible after you reach the first aid room.
D. To leave the boot on if the patient is to be placed in a traction splint in the outdoor environment, unless the local medical director approves of doing otherwise

Answer 17

D. To leave the boot on if the patient is to be placed in a traction splint in the outdoor environment, unless the local medical director approves of doing otherwise

Question 18

Because if the abundant blood vessels and nerves in the elbow, an injury to a child’s elbow should be splinted in:

A. The position found
B. a 90-degree angle
C. A 45-degree angle
D. An elevated position using a blanket roll.

Answer 18

A. The position found

Question 19

You respond to a accident at which a male aren’t is complaining of severe back pain. He informs you that his back pain is coming from a recent fracture of his coccyx. Based on this information, what area of the back would the pain be coming from?

A. The neck
B. the upper back
C. The tailbone
D. The lower back

Answer 19

C. The tailbone

Question 20

A patient who was hit in the face with a cloud of dust while working in an industrial setting is complaining of pain and discomfort to his left eye. While performing your assessment on the eye, you not some redness of the globe but do not see any obvious foreign object. The most appropriate care you can provide to this patient would be:

A. Cover both eyes with a bandage.
B. Carefully wipe the eye with a soft piece of sterile gauze.
C. Gently massage the eye to promote tearing
D. Have the patient keep his eye open during transport to medical facility.

Answer 20

A. Cover both eyes with a bandage

Question 21

You are instructing a class in OEC when a student asks you to explain the L.A.P. method f examining the thorax. Your best reply to the question would be which of the following statements?

A. The L.A.P. method divides the chest into 3 exam areas: lateral, anterior, and posterior thorax
B. The L.A.P. method can be used under any conditions and in any environment
C. The L.A.P. method is a rapid assessment for deformities of the chest
D. The L.A.P. method directs you to look, auscultate, and palpate the chest.

Answer 21

D. The L.A.P. method directs you to look, auscultate, and palpate the chest.

Question 22

Your neighbor has been cleaning up the wooded area around his yard and burning brush and weeds. He tells you that he is trying to rid the area of poison ivy. You recognize that his actions could:

A. Cause significant respiratory problems for anyone exposed to the smoke.
B. encourage the poison ivy to grow into any area where the smoke travels.
C. Temporarily solve his probe oven but will not permanently kill the poison ivy.
D. Be a great solution that you should use around your house.

Answer 22

A. Cause significant respiratory problems for anyone exposed to the smoke.

Question 23

The phrase “red in yellow, kill a fellow; red on black, venom lack” is helpful in identifying which of the following kind of poisonous snakes?

A. Coral snakes
B. Rattlesnakes
C. Pit vipers
D. Copperheads

Answer 23

A. Coral snakes

Question 24

A 77-year-old man got out of bed, became dizzy, and fell onto the floor, hitting the right side of his face. You finde him sitting on the floor with his wife next to him. His wife started that he did not lose responsiveness and that this has happened several times over the past few days, ever since the doctor put him on new blood pressure medication. Presently, the patient is alert and oriented and complaining of dizziness and a headache he. He has a history of coronary artery disease, emphysema, and hypertension. Which of the following actions should you take first?

A. Check the patients airway and breathing
B. Establish manual in-line spinal stabilization
C. Position the patient supine with his feet elevated
D. Provide oxygen at 15 LPM.

Answer 24

B. Establish manual in-line spinal stabilization

Question 25

You are assisting a 32-year-old woman whose right leg has been amputated below the knee. She is complaining of severe pain in her right thigh. You note that the knee is flexed and that there is some deformity in the middle of ye femur. Your partner hands you a HARE traction splint. Which of the following statements would be your best response to your partner?

A. We will need to apart the boot hitch in order to secure it to the end of the leg
B. Lets use a Quick Splint instead
C. The HARE won’t work. We will need to be creative and make our own traction device
D. We need to force the knee to straighten and then we can use a splint

Answer 25

D. We need to force the knee to straighten and then we can use a splint

Question 26

During a delivery, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby’s neck. Which of the following actions should you take immediately?

A. Clamp and cut the cord
B. Stop the delivery and call for an ALS ambulance
C. Slip the cord over the baby’s head.
D. Try to push the baby’s head back in so you can slip the cord over it.

Answer 26

C. Slip the cord over the baby’s head.

Question 27

After delivery, you note that blood continues to ooze from the mother’s vaginal canal. The sanitary pads that you placed between her legs continue to become soaked. Which of the following actions should you take next?

A. Insert sterile gauze into the vaginal canal
B. Call for an ALS ambulance
C. Preform a uterine abdominal massage.
D. Place the mother on her left side

Answer 27

C. Preform a uterine abdominal massage.

Question 28

The contaminated area in a hazardous incident is known as the:

A. Contaminated zone
B. decontaminated zone
C. Hot zone
D. Cold zone

Answer 28

C. Hot zone

Question 29

In the event that OEC Technician are exposed to an organophosphate or a chemical nerve agent, they may need to self-administer the nerve agent antidote. Which of the following statement regarding the self-administration of a never agent antidote is FALSE?

A. I’d severe symptoms are present, three auto injectors and 3 2-PAM C1 injectors are administered in rapid succession
B. The medication is administered it a way that is similar to hug to an Epi-Pen
C. If the nerve agent had been ingested, exposure may continue for some time, and a relapse is a possibility
D. Depending on the symptoms observed, the initial treatment will rite be an atropine auto-injector or a 2-PAM C1 injector

Answer 29

D. Depending on the symptoms observed, the initial treatment will rite be an atropine auto-injector or a 2-PAM C1 injector

Question 30

A 30-year-old male arrives in the aid room complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following actions would you perform first?

A. Ask him if he has an inhaler.
B. Assess the adequacy of his breathing.
C. Determine the cause of his shortness of breath
D. Check his pulse oximetry

Answer 30

B. Assess the adequacy of his breathing.

Question 31

Which of the following statements shows that an OEC Technician has an accurate understanding of vital signs in relation to geriatric patients?

A. The typical resting heart rate in geriatric patients is less then 60 BPM
B. Fever tends to b more common and more severe in elderly patients
C. There is no difference between the vital signs of a geriatric patient and those of a young adult.
D. Respiratory capacity is greatly reduced in geriatric patients.

Answer 31

D. Respiratory capacity is greatly reduced in geriatric patients