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OPP 2 FINAL > FINAL STUDYGUIDE > Flashcards

FINAL STUDYGUIDE Flashcards

1
Q

somatic dysfunctions can occur anywhere in the body at

A

sympathetic, parasympathetic, and soma

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2
Q

viscerosomatic reflexes occur at

A

sympathetic and parasympathetics

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3
Q

facilitated segments only occur at

A

sympathetics

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4
Q

what is the sympathetic and parasympathetic levels of the upper ureters

A

sympathetic-T10-T11

parasympathetics: Vagus (OA, AA)

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5
Q

a stone in the ureter or appendicitis may cause _______ to become hypertonic and result in a positive _____ ______

A

psoas; thomas test

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6
Q

translation to the right equals side bending to the _____

A

left

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7
Q

tight piriformis leads to reduced

A

hip internal rotation

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8
Q

soft tissue techniques are ______ as well as _____

A

diagnostic; therapeutic

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9
Q

stympathetic innervation to the head and neck

A

T1-T4

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10
Q

upper cervical area and the sacrum are connected by

A

dural connections

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11
Q

_____ accounts for 50% of the cervical spines roational motion

A

AA

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12
Q

____ accounts for 50% of the cerical spines flexion/extension

A

OA

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13
Q

what does the spurling test assess for

A

neural foraminal narrowing

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14
Q

underburg/wallenburg tests for ______ in the vertebral arteries

A

patency

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15
Q

if you extend the neck and rotate left/side bend left you are checking for patency on the

A

right vertebral artery

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16
Q

what does TART stand for

A

Tissue Texture Changes
Assymetry
Restriction in motion
Tenderness

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17
Q

are fractures, sprains, degenerative processes, and inflammatory processes somatic dysfunctions

A

no

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18
Q

are somatovisceral effects more prevalent in acute or chronic cases

A

chronic

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19
Q

a visceral problem gives you a _______end feel

A

rubbery

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20
Q

boggy is ______, ropey is _____

A

acute; chronic

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21
Q

which fryette has no saggitazl componenet

A

type I

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22
Q

In Type I, side bending ______ rotation and side bending occurs _______ the concavity

A

precedes, towards

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23
Q

what is the mnemonic for superior facets

A

BUM, BUL, BM

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24
Q

what is the mnemonic for inferior facets5

A

AIL, AIM, AL

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25
Q

what is the sympathetic levels for cholecystitis and which way will the rotate

A

T5-T9 rotate right

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26
Q

what is the sympathetics for gastritis and which way will they rotate

A

T5-T9 rotate left

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27
Q

S and P for heart

A

S: T1-T5
P: OA, C1, C2 (Vagus)

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28
Q

S and P for Lungs

A

S: T1-T6
P: OA, C1, C2 (Vagus)

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29
Q

S and P for stomach

A

S: T5-9
P: OA, C1, C2 (Vagus)

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30
Q

S and P for Gallbladder

A

S:T5-T9
P: OA, C1, C2 (Vagus)

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31
Q

S and P for upper ureter

A

S: T10-T11
P: OA, C1, C2 (Vagus)

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32
Q

S and P for lower ureter

A

S: T12-L1
P:S2-S4

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33
Q

the vagus nerve innervate the trachea to the

A

transverse colon

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34
Q

S2-S4 is parasympathetics from transverse colon to

A

external genitalia

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35
Q

what are the parasympathetics to the ovaries and testes

A

vagus and S2-S4

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36
Q

what is the preganglionic and postganglionics of distal esophagus to proximal duodenum (T5-T9)

A

greater splanchnic, celiac ganglion

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37
Q

what is the pre and postganglionics of duodenum to upper ureter (T10-T11)

A

lesser splanchnic, superior messenteric ganglion

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38
Q

what is the pre and postganglionics of distal 1/3 TC to bladder (T12-L2)

A

least (12) and Lumbar (L1-L2) splanchnic nerve, inferior messenteric ganglion

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39
Q

what is the nerves to the appendix

A

superior messenteric ganglion; lesser splanchnic (T10-T11)

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40
Q

For a cervical diagnosis of SLRL, the TP closer to mastoid is _____, TP closer to mandible is ______, Deep occipital shelf _____, shallow occipital shelf ____

A

left; right; right left

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41
Q

For a cervical diagnosis of SRRL, the TP closer to mastoid is _____, TP closer to mandible is ______, Deep occipital shelf _____, shallow occipital shelf ____

A

right; left; left; right

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42
Q

C2-C7 are type __ like

A

two

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43
Q

what is the treatment position of anterior cervical 1

A

RA

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44
Q

what is the treatment potion of the anterior cervical 2-6

A

F SARA

45
Q

what is the treatment position of anterior cervical 7

A

F STRA

46
Q

what is the treatment position of anterior cervical 8

A

F SARA

47
Q

what is the treatment position of PC2

A

E SARA

48
Q

CN III uses what ganglion

A

ciliary

49
Q

CN IX (glossopharyngeal) uses what ganglion

A

otic

50
Q

facial nerve uses what two ganglion

A

pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglion

51
Q

what is the jugular foramen formed by

A

temporal bone and the occiput forming the occipitomastoid suture

52
Q

what nerve is involved in torticolis

A

CN XI

53
Q

what CN involved in vommiting

A

Vagus

54
Q

what CN exit the jugular foramen

A

9, 10, 11

55
Q

dysfunction of the vagus nerve could come from what suture

A

occipitomastoid

56
Q

where does SCM refer pain

A

lateral to and behind the eye

57
Q

where does splenius capitus muscle refer pain to

A

vertex of the head

58
Q

Counterstrain, FPR, BLT, Functional technique, cranial and still are all considered

A

indirect

59
Q

myofascial release, soft tissue, articulatory, ME, HVLA, springing (cranial and still)

A

direct techniques

60
Q

how do you perform FPR

A

put body in NEUTRAL postion, COMPRESS, place into ease of motion for 3-5 seconds

61
Q

what type of vector force is used in a still technique

A

compressive

62
Q

a deep sulcus on the right indicates that the OA is rotated

A

right

63
Q

OA with a deep sulcus on the left which is worse with ext what is diagnosis

A

OA F SR RL

64
Q

if a patient has lax ligaments such as RA or Trisomy 21 it is an indication of

A

HVLA and all articulatory techniques (Still)

65
Q

what is the sensation motor and reflex for C6

A

sensation-thumb/index
motor-wrist extensor
reflex-brachioradialis

66
Q

what is the sensation, motor, and reflex for C7

A

sensation-mid finger
motor-triceps
reflex-triceps

67
Q

what is the sensation, motor, and reflex for T1

A

sensation-medial elbow
motor-interossi
reflex-none

68
Q

4/4 DTR is indicative to an injury to

A

UMN

69
Q

0/4 DTR is indicative to an injury to

A

LMN

70
Q

what are the four rotator cuff muscles and what do they do

A

Supraspinatus-abduction
Infraspinatus-external rotation
Teres minor-external rotation
Subscapularis-internal rotation

71
Q

falling on an outstretched hand leads to a _______ radial head

A

posterior

72
Q

in an abducted ulna, the olecranon has a ____ glide

A

medial

73
Q

in parallelogram effect, as ulna adducts, wrist is pulled into _______ position

A

abducted

74
Q

lateral epicondylitis is known as

A

tennis elbow

75
Q

medial epicondylitis is known as

A

golfers elbow

76
Q

when you are walking, if weight is on left foot your sacrum is

A

LOL

77
Q

your lumbar spine rotates ______ direction of the sacrum

A

opposite

78
Q

for ROR and LOL sacral torsions ME, which way would patient faace and were would legs be

A

toward the table, legs flexed greater than 90 degrees

79
Q

Muscle Energy ROL or LOR, patient would face ________ and legs would be

A

upward and legs flexed less than 90

80
Q

for unilateral flexion, how would you place your hands and where would you push

A

hand on ILA, force anterior and superior

81
Q

where would you put your hands and which way would you press for unilateral sacral extension

A

hand on sacral sulcus with a force anterior and caudad

82
Q

where is AL1 and what position do you put them in

A

medial to ASIS and F STRA

83
Q

where is AL2 tenderpoing and what position do you put them in

A

medial to AIIS and FSART

84
Q

where is the AL3 counterstrain point and what postion do youb put them in

A

lateral to AIIS and FSART

85
Q

where is the AL$ counterstrain point and what position do you put them in

A

unferior to AIIS and FSART

86
Q

where is the AL5 counterstrain point and what position do you put them in

A

lateral to pubic symphysis and F SARA

87
Q

what postion do you put your patient in neurtral thoracic HVLA

A

smiley

88
Q

which ribs are pump handle motion amd where are they best fe;

A

1-5, midclavicular

89
Q

which ribs are bucket handle motion and where are they best felt

A

6-10 mid axillary line

90
Q

pump handle ribs move predominently in the ________ plane

A

sagittal

91
Q

bucket handle motion is predominately in what plane

A

coronal

92
Q

exhaled ribs are predominantly

A

posterior

93
Q

anterior counterstrain

A

exhalation rib SD

94
Q

what attaches to rib 1

A

anterior and middle scalene

95
Q

what attaches to rib 2

A

posterior scalene

96
Q

what attaches to ribs 3-5

A

pec minor

97
Q

what attaches to ribs 6-8

A

serratus anterior

98
Q

what attaches to ribs 9-11

A

LAT DORSI

99
Q

what attaches to rib 12

A

quadratus lumborum

100
Q

for muscle energy of an inhalation dysfunction, where do you put patient if dysfunction is in pump handle ribs? bucket handle ribs?

A

felx head and neck; flex head and neck and side bend towards

101
Q

where do you put your thenar eminence in rib HVLA 2-10

A

rib angle

102
Q

what is the positon of the patient in treatment of AR1-10 counterstrain point

A

FSTRT

103
Q

where do ypu put the patient in PR1 counterstrain point

A

ESART

104
Q

where do you put the patient in PR 2-10 counterstrain point

A

F SARA

105
Q

tenderness ot palpation of the lateral foot distal to the calcaneous is indicative of

A

laterally rotated cuboid

106
Q

tenderness to palpation of the medial foot distal to the talus is indicative of

A

medially rotated navicular

107
Q

cuboid tends to

A

evert

108
Q

navicular tends to

A

invert

109
Q

coxa varus, genu valgus, protonated foot, pes planus, tight vastus lateralis, tight tensor fascia latae, weak vastus medialis will have a positive

A

patellofemoral tracking system

OPP 2 FINAL (1 decks)

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