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BIO 205: Microbiology > Final Study Guide Practice Questions > Flashcards

Final Study Guide Practice Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Which component of the chain of infection includes medical asepsis in ways it can be broken?
A. Causative agent
B. Standard Precautions
C. Source of Reservoir
D. Susceptible Host

A

C. Source of Reservoir

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2
Q

Which component of the chain of infection includes wound care in ways it can be broken?
A. Portal of Entry
B. Standard Precautions
C. Source of Reservior
d. Portal of Exit

A

A. Portal of Entry

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3
Q

Which component of the chain of infection includes catheter care in ways it can be broken?
A. Portal of Exit
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible Host
D. Source of Reservoir

A

B. Portal of Entry

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4
Q

Match the correct term to the definition: dormant and protective state of an organism.
A. Vegetative organism
B. Spores
C. Infection
D. Inflammation

A

B. Spores

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5
Q

Match the correct term to the definition: organisms that are actively growing.
A. Vegetative organism
B. Spores
C. Infection
D. Inflammation

A

A. Vegetative organism

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6
Q

Match the correction term to the definition: infection resulting from treatment in a hospital or a health care service unit; older term that is replaced with health care-associated infections.
A. Health care-associated infections (HAIs)
B. Inflammation
C. Infection
D. Nosocomial Infections

A

D. Nosocomial Infections

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7
Q

Match the correction term to the definition: process of using two methods of heat and pressure effectively combined.
A. Pasteurization
B. Autoclave
C. Boiling Water
D. Gas Sterilization

A

B. Autoclave

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8
Q

Match the correction term to the definition: the use of water heated enough to kill vegetative cells and denature more viruses.
A. Pasteurization
B. Autoclave
C. Boiling Water
D. Gas Sterilization

A

A. Pasteurization

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9
Q

Which type of various compounds and liquids are you LESS likely to use when you scrape your elbow while riding on your skateboard?
A. Isopropanol
B. Grams Iodine
C. Acetic Acid
D. Ethanol

A

C. Acetic Acid

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10
Q

What is acetic acid essentially?

A

Vinegar

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11
Q

What is the main ingredient in bleach?

A

Chlorine

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12
Q

Match the correction term to the definition: bactericidal, tuberculocidal, fungicidal, and virucidal with a 10- to 30-min exposure and sporicidal in approximately 10 hours.
A. Glutaraldehyes
B. Quaternary Ammonium compounds
C. Hydrogen Peroxide
D. Phenols
E. Soap Detergent

A

A. Glutaraldehydes

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13
Q

Match the correction term to the definition: class of liquids is commonly used for cleaning instruments and for general housekeeping activities, but contact with skin should be avoided.
A. Glutaraldehydes
B. Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
C. Hydrogen Peroxide
D. Phenols
E. Soap Detergent

A

D. Phenols

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14
Q

Match the correct term to the definition: cleaning substance used to wash microbes away.
A. Glutaraldehydes
B. Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
C. Hydrogen Peroxide
D. Phenols
E. Soap Detergent

A

E. Soap Detergent

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15
Q

Match the correct term to the definition: uses very short wavelengths of light and ionize water molecules thus inactivating DNA molecules.
A. Ultraviolet (UV)
B. Gamma
C. X-ray
D. Infrared

A

B. Gamma

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16
Q

Proper sterilization with ethylene oxide is dependent on what?

A

Gas concentration, humidity, temperature, and time

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17
Q

Which Portal of Entry is being represented (Nose and Mouth)?
A. Breaches in skin
B. Genitourinary tract
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Respiratory tract

A

D. Respiratory

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18
Q

Which Portal of Entry is being represented (Urethra and Vagina)?
A. Breaches in skin
B. Genitourinary tract
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Respiratory tract

A

B. Genitourinary tract

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19
Q

Amoebic dysyntery was acquired by drinking contaminated water. What portal of entry is this considered?
A. Genitourinary tract
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Respiraotry tract
D. All of the above

A

B. Gastrointestinal tract

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20
Q

Hookworm was acquired by soil larvae that penetrated through walking on bare feet. What portal of entry is this considered?
A. Genitourinary tract
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Breaches of skin
D. All of the above

A

C. Breaches in skin

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21
Q

Name the two types of floras found on your hands.

A
  1. Resident
  2. Tansient
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22
Q

Which type of organism is easier to remove with routine hand hygiene?

A

Transient flora

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT practicing proper handwashing?
A. Removing all jewelry
B. Turning on water as hot as you can tolerate
C. Rubbing hands with soap for 10 seconds
D. Making sure paper towel is accessible before washing hands
E. Using paper towel to turn off from the faucet

A

C. Rubbing hands with soap for 10 seconds

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24
Q

_____ are minimum standards that should be applied to all patients in any health care setting.

A

Standard Precautions

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25
Q

_____ are used on top of standard precautions with patients with known or suspected colonization or infection of easily transmissible or important pathogens (e.g., multidrug-resistant bacteria).

A

Transmission precautions

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26
Q

The three types of transmission-based precautions are:

A

1) Contact precautions
2) Droplet precautions
3) Airborne precautions

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27
Q

What type of PPE would you wear for a patient that has COVID-19?

A

Face mask, gown, gloves, and/or face shield

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28
Q

What is the differnece between a sign and a symptom?

A

Symptom is subjective, it’s something you can’t see. Sign is objective, it’s observable and measurable.

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29
Q

____ should be performed in a dedicated area with hand hygiene stations and sharps containers located nearby.

A

Blood draws (phlebotomy)

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30
Q

Used syringes and needles should be disposed of at the point of use in a(n) ____ that is puncture-resistant, closable, and leakproof.

A

Sharps container

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31
Q

____ are a form of transmission-based precautions used for patients who are known to have or are suspected of having a serious illness that is easily spread by large particle droplets such as Neisseria meningitides, certain respiratory viruses, and Bordetella pretussis.

A

Droplet precautions

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32
Q

What does OSHA stand for?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

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33
Q

____ is a drug that can destroy viruses and help treat illnesses caused by them.

A

Antiviral drugs

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34
Q

____ is destructive to fungi, or suppressing their reproduction or growth; effective against fungal infections.

A

Antifungal drugs

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35
Q

A patient was diagnosed with Canadida, the most invasive form of Candidiasis. What would the most effective treatment for this be? Consider what type of infection this is: bacterial, viral, or fungal?

A

Fluconazole

36
Q

Select all of the following that may contribute to development of antibiotic resistance.
A. Use of antibiotics when not needed.
B. Using prophylaxis for animals.
C. Prescription incorrect spectrum antibiotics.
D. Completing the recommended prescribed antibiotics by your docotr.

A

A.
B.
C.

37
Q

Fill in the blank: If a bacteria is killed by an antibiotic, this means the bacteria is ____ to the antibiotic.

A

Susceptible

38
Q

Fill in the blank: If the bacteria has abence of growth form the antibioitc, this means the bacteria is ___ to the antibiotic.

A

Resistant

39
Q

T or F: All beta-lactam antimicrobials act by inhibiting materials needed for bacterial cell wall synthesis.

A

True

40
Q

What is the purpose of fungicide?

A

Chemical spray that kills fungi

41
Q

Select all of the antibiotics that are bacteriostatic drugs.
A. Sulfonamides
B. Penicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Vancomycin

A

A. Sulfonamides
C. Tetracycline

42
Q

Which antibiotic is frequently reserved fro methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) or Staphylococcus epidermidis?

A

Vancomycin

43
Q

What is the most common bloodborne infection in the US that can be curable using antivirals?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Athlete’s foot
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
D. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

A

D. Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)

44
Q

Which antifungal medication is used to treat Candida albicans and ringworm?
A. Miconazole
B. Nystatin
C. Fluconazole
D. Anidulafungin

A

B. Nystatin

45
Q

Which part of the cell membrane in fungus do antifungals target?
A. Cholesterol
B. Ergosterol
C. Ribosome
D. Peptidoglycan

A

B. Ergosterol

46
Q

Match the term with the correct definition: Endemic
A. Disease continually present within a specific population/region
B. Disease occurs suddenly over specific geographic region
C. Study of patterns, causes, spreads, and effects of disease conditions
D. Disease spreads throughout country and worldwide

A

A. Disease continually present within a specific population/region

47
Q

Match the term with the correct definition: Epidemic
A. Disease continually present within a specific population/region
B. Disease occurs suddenly over specific geographic region
C. Study of patterns, causes, spreads, and effects of disease conditions
D. Disease spreads throughout country and worldwide

A

B. Disease occurs suddenly over specific geographic region

48
Q

Match the term with the correct definition: Symptom
A. Identification of disease determined by studying the patient’s signs, symptoms, history, and results of diagnostic tests.
B. Specific grouping of signs/symptoms
C. Prediction of outcome of disease process
D. Subjective, based on perception, cannot be measured consistently.

A

D. Subjective, based on perception, cannot be measured consistently

49
Q

Match the term with the correct definition: Syndrome
A. Identification of disease determined by studying the patient’s signs, symptoms, history, and results of diagnostic tests.
B. Specific grouping of signs/symptoms
C. Prediction of outcome of disease process
D. Subjective, based on perception, cannot be measured consistently.

A

C. Specific grouping of signs/symptoms

50
Q

Which of the following are examples of a symptom? (Select all that apply)
A. Heart rate
B. Headache
C. Stomachache
D. Blood Pressure
E. Sore Muscles

A

B. Headache
C. Stomachache
E. Sore muscles

51
Q

Which of the following are examples of a sign? (select all that apply)

A. Heart rate
B. Headache
C. Stomachache
D. Blood Pressure
E. Sore Muscles

A

A. Heart rate
D. Blood Pressure

52
Q

Which bacterial agent is a bactericidal antibiotic that works by interfering with the electrical activity of the cell membrane and is active against gram-positive organisms including MRSA?

A

Daptomycin

53
Q

Name the bacterial disease that causes Meningitis.

A

Neisseria meningitides

54
Q

Name the signs and symptoms of Encephalitis.

A

Fatigue, headache, abnormal brain function, seizures, paralysis, abnormal movements

55
Q

Where do you collect samples from a patient if you wanted to test them for encephalitis?

A

Lumbar puncture to obtain CSF

56
Q

What bacteria is associated with Parotitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

57
Q

Which of the following is used to treat Parotitis?

A. Antifungal
B. Antibacterial
C. Antifungal

A

B. Antifungal

58
Q

Keratitis is the inflammation of the ___.

A. Sinus Cavity
B. Gallbladder
C. CSF
D. Cornea

A

D. Cornea

59
Q

Name of the treatment for Keratitis for both viral and bacterial (should be two different answers).

A

Antivirals
Antibiotics

60
Q

What is the bacteria that causes the serious form of conjunctivitis called?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

61
Q

What happens if endocarditis is not treated properly?

A. Death
B. Diarrhea
C. Seizures
D. Paralysis

A

A. Death

62
Q

What test is used to determine if you have endocarditis?

A

Echocardiogram

63
Q

Does cellulitis progress slowly or fast?

A

Slowly

64
Q

What is the infection of upper dermis and lymphatics of skin?

A. Cellulitis
B. Necrotizing skin and soft tissue infections
C. Colitis
D. Erysipelas

A

D. Erysipelas

65
Q

Are necrotizing skin and soft tissue infections aerobic or anaerobic?

A. Aerobic
B. Anaerobic
C. Both
D. Huh?

A

C. Both

66
Q

Match the correct diagnostic with the following infection: Appendicitis

A. Gallbladder ultrasound
B. Culture material should be obtained during surgery, and the empiric regimen should be adjusted based on the culture and susceptibility results.
C. Testing usually is performed to detect toxin presence in the stool.
D. PCR Testing

A

B. Culturing material should be obtained during surgery, and the empiric regimen should be adjusted based on the culture and susceptibility results.

67
Q

What is the inflammation of the colon called?

A

Diverticulitis

68
Q

What are the most frequently encountered bacteria in Diverticulitis?

A

Escherichia coli, Eneterococcus, Klebsiella, and Enterobacter

69
Q

What is the most common cause of colitis?

A. Enterococcus
B. Klebsiella
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Escherichia coli

A

C. Clostridium difficile

70
Q

Match the correct diagnostic with the following infection: Colitis

A. Gallbladder ultrasound
B. Culture material should be obtained during surgery, and the empiric regimen should be adjusted based on the culture and susceptibility results.
C. Testing usually is performed to detect toxin presence in the stool.
D. PCR Testing

A

C. Testing usually is performed to detect toxin presence in stool

71
Q

What is the incubation period for Chlamydia?

A

7-21 days

72
Q

Match the correct diagnostic with the following infection: Gonorrhea

A. Gallbladder ultrasound
B. Culture material should be obtained during surgery, and the empiric regimen should be adjusted based on the culture and susceptibility results.
C. Testing usually is performed to detect toxin presence in the stool.
D. PCR Testing

A

D. PCR testing

73
Q

Which type of simplex herpes causes genital herpes?

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Both
D. Huh?

A

B. Type 2

74
Q

Match the correct diagnostic with the following infection (select all that apply): Herpes

A. Testing the specimen for virus using a direct fluorescent antibody
B. Gallbladder ultrasound
C. Culturing fluid from the lesion
D. Culture material should be obatined during surgery, and the empiric regimen should be adjusted based on the culture and susceptibility results.
E. testing usually is performed to detect toxin presence in the stool.
F. Blood sample and testing it for viral antibodies specific to the herpes virus
G. PCR testing
H. Testing the fluid for viral DNA

A

A.
C.
F.
H.

75
Q

What does Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) progress to if it is left untreated?

A

AIDS

76
Q

Match the correct diagnostic with the following infection: HIV

A. Testing the specimen for virus using a direct fluorescent antibody.
B. Gallbladder ultrasound
C. Culturing fluid from the lesion
D. Testing usually is performed to detect toxin presence in the stool.
E. Blood sample and testing if for viral antibodies specific to herpes.
F. PCR Testing

A

F. PCR Testing

77
Q

Osteomyelitis is the infection of one or more bones in the body. Where else can it spread to?

A

Bloodstream

78
Q

Match the correct diagnostic with the following infection: Septic Arthritis

A. Aspirate the joint fluid for sample collection if swelling
B. Testing usually is performed to detect toxin presence in the stool
C. Blood sample and testing it for viral antibodies specific for herpes
D. PCR testing
E. Testing the fluid for viral DNA

A

A. Aspirate the joint fluid for sample collection if swelling

79
Q

What are some of the issues related to antibiotic useage in otitis media?

A

Symptomatic treatment should be tried before prescribing antibiotics

80
Q

Splinter hemorrhages occurring in the nail beds may be a sign of what?

A

Endocarditis

81
Q

Which of the following describes sterilization?

A. the complete destruction or inactivation of all forms of microorganisms
B. the physical removal of foreign matter
C. a process that reduces the total bacterial load to a safe level
D. a process that eliminates vegetative, pathogenic microorganisms from an inanimate object.

A

A. the complete destruction or inactivation of all forms of microorganisms

82
Q

Which of the following describes sanitization?

A. the complete destruction or inactivation of all forms of microorganisms
B. the physical removal of foreign matter
C. a process that reduces the total bacterial load to a safe level
D. a process that eliminates vegetative, pathogenic microorganisms from an inanimate object.

A

C. a process that reduces the total bacterial load to a safe level.

83
Q

Which of the following describes cleaning?

A. the complete destruction or inactivation of all forms of microorganisms
B. the physical removal of foreign matter
C. a process that reduces the total bacterial load to a safe level
D. a process that eliminates vegetative, pathogenic microorganisms from an inanimate object.

A

D. the physical removal of foreign matter

84
Q

Which of the following describes disinfection?

A. the complete destruction or inactivation of all forms of microorganisms
B. the physical removal of foreign matter
C. a process that reduces the total bacterial load to a safe level
D. a process that eliminates vegetative, pathogenic microorganisms from an inanimate object.

A

D. a process that eliminates vegetative, pathogenic microorganisms from an inanimate object.

85
Q

____ is the process by which heated water is used to kill vegetative cells and denature viruses.

A

Pasteurization

86
Q

Which of the following are examples of a symptom? (Select all that apply)

A. Heart Rate
B. Headache
C. Stomachache
D. Blood Pressure
E. Sore Muscles

A

B. Headache
C. Stomachache
E. Sore Muscles

87
Q

Select all of the antibiotics that are bacteriostatic drugs:

A. Sulfonamides
B. Penicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Vancomycin

A

A. Sulfonamides
C. Tetracycline

BIO 205: Microbiology (5 decks)

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