final study Flashcards

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1
Q

Which holy book condemned coffee as an intoxicant and banned its use?
a. bible
b. koran
c. concordance
d. talmud

A

koran

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2
Q

Acetylsalicylic acid is similar to a chemical found in
a. pine needles
b. willow bark
c. bermuda grass
d. ergot

A

willow bark

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3
Q

a problem with gasoline sniffing is
a. lead poisoning
b. toluene build up in adipose tissue
c. paraldehyde poisioning
d. headaches from the fumes

A

lead poisoning

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4
Q

inhalant users describe the effects as
a. hallucinogenic
b. long in duration
c. hazy euphoria
d. an intense rush followed by an intense crash

A

hazy euphoria

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5
Q

a commonly prescribed benzodiazepine for sleep, which is also used to sedate patients receiving dental implants, is
a. valium
b. halcion
c. dalmane
d. seconal

A

halcion

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6
Q

hypoxia is
a. breathing difficulties due to drugs
b. decreased oxygen in the brain that can lead to brain damage
c. liver problems due to drugs
c. a type of drug-related seizure

A

decreased oxygen in the brain that can lead to brain damage

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7
Q

anxiolytic drugs
a. decrease anxiety
b. cause death in small doses
c. are toxic in small doses
d. smell bad

A

decrease anxiety

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8
Q

the effectiveness of barbiturates as a sleep agent is due to the fact that barbiturates
a. depress respiration
b. interfere with REM
c. interfere with the cerebellum
d. have no effect on the limbic system

A

interefere with REM

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9
Q

methaqualone is a generic name for
a. quaaludes
b. valium
c. librium
d. xanax

A

quaaludes

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10
Q

which of the following is not one of the three main types of sedative-hypnotic drugs
a. barbiturates
b. nonbarbiturate sedatives
c. major tranquilizers
d. minor tranquilizers

A

major tranquilizers

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11
Q

after marijuana, _____ are the most commonly used illegal drugs
a. prescription drugs
b. anti-inflammatory drugs
c. sedative hypnotics
d. inhalants

A

prescription drugs

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12
Q

which of the following is a nonbarbiturate
a. seconal
b. meprobamate
c. amorbarbital
d. butabarbital

A

meprobamate

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13
Q

mathaqualone was originally tested to treat
a. chicken pox
b. polio
c. malaria
d. AIDS

A

malaria

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14
Q

prior to the federal government banning the use of Rohypnol in 1996, physicians in the US had been prescribing Rohypnol mainly for
a. insomnia
b. anxiety
c. seizures
d. muscle relaxation

A

insomnia

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15
Q

the makers of Lexapro have experienced legal problems regarding the marketing of Lexapro as an antidepressant for use with
a. young adults
b. menopausal women
c. children
d. middle-aged men.

A

children

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16
Q

Inhalants are primarily used by _______ because of their low cost, availability, and size.
a. women
b. men
c. adolescents
d. children

A

adolescents

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17
Q

Nitrous oxide is used as an
Select one:
a. anti-anxiety drug
b. anesthetic
c. a major tranquilizer
d. over-the-counter sedative

A

anesthetic

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18
Q

To say a drug exerts a soporific effect is to say that the drug will induce
Select one:
a. hallucinations
b. delusions
c. sleep
d. sedation

A

sleep

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19
Q

Chloral hydrate is dangerous mainly because
Select one:
a. the margin between the effective and lethal dose is slight
b. large amounts must be taken before an effect can be felt
c. it causes cerebral vessels to burst
d. its anesthetic properties cause one to sleep

A

the margin between the effective and lethal dose is slight

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20
Q

which of the following sedative-hypnotics are not currently used?
Select one:
a. Phenobarbital
b. Butabarbital
c. Paraldehyde
d. Seconal

A

paraldehyde

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21
Q

Barbiturates and alcohol create an effect that is
Select one:
a. synergistic
b. additive
c. benign
d. dilative

A

synergistic

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22
Q

Benzodiazepines are
Select one:
a. major tranquilizers
b. solely hypnotic drugs
c. minor tranquilizers
d. anti-psychotic drugs

A

minor tranquilizers

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23
Q

What group uses GHB for reasons other than criminal date rape?
Select one:
a. Those needing to stay awake for long periods
b. Bodybuilders
c. Truck drivers
d. Those suffering from narcolepsy

A

bodybuilders

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24
Q

The most common form of depression is:
a. tripolar
b. bipolar
c. unipolar
d. always accompanied by manic states

A

unipolar

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25
Q

The model which focuses on symptoms, diagnosis, and cure is referred to as
a. the psychological model
b. the medical model
c. the sociocultural model
d. the psychiatric model

A

the medical model

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26
Q

What group uses GHB for reasons other than criminal date rape?
Select one:
a. Those needing to stay awake for long periods
b. Bodybuilders
c. Truck drivers
d. Those suffering from narcolepsy

A

bodybuilders

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27
Q

Roofies” and “the date rape drug” refer to
Select one:
a. Librium
b. Valium
c. Rohypnol
d. nitrites

A

rohypnol

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28
Q

When barbital was introduced in 1903, the brand name was
Select one:
a. Veronal
b. Valium
c. Librium
d. Xanax

A

Veronal

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29
Q

Ataxia is defined as
Select one:
a. seizures due to benzodiazepine use
b. a lack of coordination
c. hallucinations due to benzodiazepine use
d. anxiety attacks

A

a lack of coordination

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30
Q

The psychoactive agent in glue is
Select one:
a. adhesives
b. toluene
c. benzene
d. epinephrine

A

toluene

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31
Q

A problem with the use of bromides is
Select one:
a. the resulting high is measured in seconds
b. that bromides build up in the body
c. that bromides induce hallucinations
d. that bromides are carcinogenic

A

that bromides build up in the body

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32
Q

the use of _______was stopped after the death of 54 people.
a. Miltown
b. benzedrine
c. Dexedrine
d. iproniazid

A

iproniazid

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33
Q

the brand name for venlafaxine is
a. pristiq
b. effexor XR
c. zoloft
d. paxil

A

effexor XR

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34
Q

which of the following does Zoloft seem to be effective in treating
a. moderate to severe depression
b. tardive dyskinesia
c. tinnitus
d. bipolar disorders

A

moderate to severe depression

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35
Q

bupropion is
a. wellbutrin
b. xanax
c. valium
d. methadone

A

wellbutrin

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36
Q

a person who loses contact with reality suffers from
a. psychosis
b. neuro trials
c. manic modes
d. delusional modes

A

psychosis

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37
Q

sudden and involuntary muscle spasms of the head, neck, lips, tongue, eyes, and slurred sppech are most likely symptoms of
a. akathesia
b. dystonia
c. tardive dyskinesia
d. parkinsonism

A

dystonia

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38
Q

SSRI stands for
a. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
b. secondary symptoms of recessiv inhibitions
c. secondary serotonin relapse index
d. simple symptoms of rough indices

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

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39
Q

MAOI’s were discovered by accident when iproniazid was being used to treat
a. cancer
b. tuberculosis
c. polio
d. heart disease

A

tuberculosis

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40
Q

Lithium is effective in people who have unipolar depression and

a. have not responded to ECT
b. do not respond to tricyclics
c. have not abused sedative-hypnotics
d. have decreased REM during sleep

A

do not respond to tricyclics

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41
Q

A problem with antipsychotic medications is that the drugs

a. are absorbed erratically
b. have a short half-life
c. build up in the brain
d. only work on a small percentage of psychotic patients

A

are absorbed erratically

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42
Q

A condition marked by a dull facial expression, weakness in the extremities, tremors rigidity, and extremely slow and limited movements is referred to as

a. Parkinsonism
b. dystonia
c. akathesia
d. tardive dyskinesia

A

Parkinsonism

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43
Q

wellbutrin has been approved to treat
a. seasonal affective disorder
b. anxiety
c. inflammation
d. blood clots

A

seasonal affective disorder

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44
Q

which SSRI had bad publicity because of lawsuits, but is still popularly prescribed
a. zoloft
b. prozac
c. pepcid
d. elavil

A

prozac

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45
Q

Which of the following does Zoloft seem to be effective in treating?
a.Moderate to severe depression
b. Tardive dyskinesia
c. Tinnitus
d. Bipolar disorders

A

moderate to severe depression

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46
Q

Motor disorders such as involuntary repetitive facial movements, lip smacking, involuntary movements of the trunk and limbs, and twitching is
Select one:
a. tardive dyskinesia
b. polyuria
c. bradykinesia
d. akathesia

A

tardive dyskinesia

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47
Q

tricyclics work best with
a. bipolar affective disorder
b. those patients who experience hallucinations
c. minimal unipolar depression
d. severe unipolar depression

A

severe unipolar depression

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48
Q

after treatment is ceased, tardive dyskinesia reversed itself in what percent of petients
a. 55%
b. 65%
c. 75%
d. 85%

A

55%

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49
Q

dulozetine is more commonly known as
a. effexor XR
b. pristiq
c. cymbalta
d. paxil

A

cymbalta

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50
Q

bipolar affective disorder was formerly called
a. a highly-curable mental illness
b. a mental illness that is difficult to cure
c. manic depression
d. a unipolar affective disorder

A

manic depression

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51
Q

lexapro is an
a. SSRI
b. SNFI
c. PTSD
d. DXM

A

SSRI

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52
Q

paroxetine is a generic term for
a. elevil
b. prozac
c. paxil
d. zoloft

A

paxil

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53
Q

the DSM-IV
a. defines diagnostic criteria for mental disorders
b. is not helpful in characterizing dependence issues
c. does not address behavioral syndromes
d. is an outdated catalog of illicit substances

A

defines diagnostic criteria for mental disorders

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54
Q

mental illness implies
a. organic dysfunction
b. inorganic dysfunction
c. inappropriate behavior and thinking
d. physical and psychocomatic problems

A

inappropriate behavior and thinking

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55
Q

a person who has a psychiatric problem and a drug problem might be given a
a. bipolar diagnosis
b. dual diagnosis
c. psychosomatic diagnosis
d. none of the above

A

dual diagnosis

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56
Q

a significant and potentially serious side effect of MAOI’s is
a. liver cancer
b. low blood pressure
c. high blood pressure
d. seizures

A

low blood pressure

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57
Q

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) was used to treat
a. anxiety
b. neurosis
c. polio
d. depression and psychosis

A

depression and psychosis

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58
Q

MAOI’s work better with patients whose depression
a. is hereditary
b. is chronic and has occurred over a two year period
c. becomes less acute as the day progresses
d. becomes more acute as the day progresses

A

becomes more acute as the day progresses

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59
Q

the use of _____ was stopped after the death of 54 people
a. miltown
b. benzedrine
c. dexedrine
d. iproniazid

A

iproniazid

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60
Q

who said that the concept of mental illness is a myth
a. freud
b. szasz
c. brothers
d. peck

A

szasz

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61
Q

the most common form of depression is
a. tripolar
b. bipolar
c. unipolar
d. always accompanied by manic states

A

unipolar

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62
Q

LSD originated from a
a. root
b. fungus
c. leaf
d. dust

A

fungus

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63
Q

“Penny Universities” were establishments that primarily served
a. alcohol
b. opium
c. coffee
d. bromides

A

coffee

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64
Q

bipolar affective disorder was formerly called
a. a highly-curable mental illness
b. a mental illness that is difficult to cure
c. manic depression
d. a unipolar affective disorder

A

manic disorder

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65
Q

which psychoactive plant was prescribed by the Chinese for gout, malaria, gas pains, absent-mindedness, and rheumatism
a. marijuana
b. coca leaves
c. coffee beans
d. datura

A

marjiuana

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66
Q

aqua vitae refers to
a. distillation
b. fermentation
c. water of life
d. wine

A

water of life

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67
Q

humans were believed to have first sampled tobacco around
a. 400-500 BC
b. 100-400 AD
c. 600-900 AD
d. 1000-1200 AD

A

600-900 AD

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68
Q

a _________ veteran established the first British cigarette factory
a. crimean war
b. revolutionary war
c. WWI
d. WWII

A

crimean war

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69
Q

W.B. O’Shaughnessy in 1839 wrote that a tincture of hemp was an effective analgesic and _____
a. muscle relaxant
b. solvent
c. textile
d. food

A

muscle relaxant

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70
Q

the greek historian herodotus noted that marijuana had the dual properties of producing intoxication and _____
a. unconsciousness
b. hallucinations
c. blood shot eyes
d. cloth

A

cloth

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71
Q

which of the following drugs is also called “God’s flesh?”
a. LSD
b. jamestown weed
c. tobacco
d. psilocybin

A

psilocybin

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72
Q

the British defeated the Chinese in the Opium War because
a. the Chinese were under the influence of opium while fighting
b. the british stopped selling arms to China
c. China taxed opium too much and the people revolted
d. the British had superior naval strength

A

the British had superior naval strength

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73
Q

peyote contains
a. LSD
b. ergot
c. psilocybin
d. mescaline

A

mescaline

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74
Q

some speculate that girls and women condemned as witches in Salem, Massachusetts, were displaying symptoms similar to
a. tobacco intoxication
b. caffeinism
c. ergotism
d. barbiturate poisoning

A

ergotism

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75
Q

which event included farmers refusing to pay tax and tarring and feathering revenue officers
a. whiskey rebellion
b. boston tea party
c. tax revolt
d. temperance movement

A

whiskey rebellion

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76
Q

laudanum was a drug containing primarily
a. cocaine
b. opium
c. marijuana
d. caffeine

A

opium

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77
Q

the intentional and inappropriate use of a drug resulting in physical, emotional, financial, social, or intellectual consequences is termed
a. drug use
b. drug abuse
c. drug dependence
d. drug misuse=

A

drug abuse

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78
Q

John Rolfe was sent to ______ to develop a tobacco industry
a. New York
b. North Carolina
c. Virgina
d. Georgia

A

Virgina

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79
Q

Robert Louis Stevenson allegedly wrote Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde while under the influence of
a. bromides
b. paraldehyde
c. cocaine
d. barbital

A

cocaine

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80
Q

amphetamines were first synthesized in
a. asia
b. mexico
c. brazil
d. germany

A

germany

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81
Q

substances that alter mood, thought processes, or that are used to manage neuropsychological illnesses or behavior are referred to as
a. ergogenic aids
b. anabolic aids
c. psychoactive drugs
d. designer drugs

A

psychoactive drugs

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82
Q

According to ASAM addiction is a primary, chronic _______________ of brain reward, motivation, memory, and related circuitry.
Select one:
a. disease
b. condition
c. diagnosis
d. psychological condition

A

desease

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83
Q

Which of the following groups developed the process of distillation?
Select one:
a. Romans
b. Egyptians
c. Greeks
d. French

A

egyptians

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84
Q

One of the trade names for meprobamate is
Select one:
a. Valium
b. Xanax
c. Librium
d. Miltown

A

miltown

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85
Q

The unintentional or inappropriate use of prescribed or over-the-counter drugs is referred to as
Select one:
a. drug use
b. drug dependence
c. drug abuse
d. drug misuse

A

drug misuse

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86
Q

A group of men who, while under the influence of hashish, allegedly terrorized and killed people were referred to as
Select one:
a. laudanum legions
b. suicide soldiers
c. sinsemilla legion
d. hashishiyya

A

hashishiyya

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87
Q

The Roman physician Galen described how marijuana seeds were eaten to simulate appetite and
Select one:
a. induce hallucinations
b. cure headaches
c. grow hair
d. induce a sense of warmth

A

induce a sense of warmth

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88
Q

The Arabic word alkuhl means
Select one:
a. alcohol
b. essence
c. distillation
d. fermentation

A

essence

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89
Q

Which state was the first to ban alcohol?
Select one:
a. Massachusetts
b. Virginia
c. Maine
d. New York

A

Maine

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90
Q

Use of ether dates back to the late
Select one:
a. 1500s
b. 1600s
c. 1700s
d. 1800s

A

1700s

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91
Q

the relationship or interaction between drugs and living organisms is referred to as
a. physiology
b. pharmacology
c. homeostasis
d. neurohormonal balance

A

pharmacology

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92
Q

Homeostasis is maintained by the
a. hypothalamus
b. midbrain
c. pons
d. medulla

A

hypothalamus

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93
Q

the user’s psychological make-up, personality, mood, and expectations when using drugs is referred to as
a. set
b. setting
c. habihuation
d. dominance

A

set

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94
Q

In order for an electrical message to be sent from the axon of one neuron to the dendrite of another neuron, it must transverse a space called the
a. myelin sheath
b. synapse
c. neuron gap
d. neurilemma

A

synapse

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95
Q

The smallest amount of a drug to produce an effect is referred to as the
a. effective dose
b. threshold dose
c. safety dose
d. marginal dose

A

threshold dose

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96
Q

Alcohol and aspirin can be harmful to the gastrointestinal system because the combination can cause
a. diarrhea
b. constipation
c. excessive internal bleeding
d. hemorrhoids

A

excessive internal bleeding

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97
Q

Before ACH can be inactivated, _______ must be present.
a. vitamins
b. opium
c. cholinesterase
d. citrus juice

A

cholinesterase

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98
Q

A reduction of ACH receptors in the brain has been linked to what disease?

a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Muscular dystrophy
d. Epilepsy

A

alzheimer’s disease

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99
Q

It is questionable whether _________ are truly neurotransmitters since they appear to modulate the activity of neurotransmitters.

a. peptides
b. acetylcholine
c. serotonin
d. catecholamines

A

peptides

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100
Q

The neurological disorder Huntington’s chorea has been linked to what neurotransmitter?

a. Serotonin
b. Acetylcholine
c. Epinephrine
d. Gamma-aminobutyric acid

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid

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101
Q

The medulla and pons are part of the

a. periventricular system
b. reticular activating system
c. cerebral cortex
d. brain stem

A

brain stem

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102
Q

When an individual learns to adjust to the presence of a drug, what type of tolerance does that person exhibit?

a. Pharmacological
b. Behavioral
c. Reverse
d. Cross

A

behavioral

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103
Q

The endocrine is controlled by the

a. hypothalamus
b. pons
c. medulla
d. limbic system

A

hypothalamus

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104
Q

Drugs that cause damage to the fetus are called

a. carcinogenic
b. teratogenic
c. psychogenic
d. somatogenic

A

teratogenic

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105
Q

The peripheral nervous system consists of the

a. ventral and dorsal systems
b. autonomic and somatic systems
c. distal and medial systems
d. sensory and muscular systems

A

autonomic and somatic systems

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106
Q

To synthesize serotonin, high levels of what amino acid is needed?

a. Tryptophan
b. Peptides
c. Acetic acid
d. Acetaminophen

A

tryptophan

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107
Q

Drugs that negate the effect of other drugs are

a. synergistic drugs
b. antagonistic drugs
c. anti-elixir drugs
d. interactive drugs

A

antagonistic drugs

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108
Q

The amount of a drug needed to produce a specific response is the

a. threshold dose
b. safety dose
c. marginal dose
d. effective dose

A

effective dose

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109
Q

When a user feels the desired effects from lesser amounts of the drug, it is referred to as what type of tolerance?

a. Pharmacological
b. Behavioral
c. Reverse
d. Cross

A

reverse

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110
Q

Why is drug action more prolonged in infants and the elderly?

a. the drugs are absorbed quicker
b. these groups have less neurons
c. these groups are less able to metabolize and excrete drugs
d. these groups produce more neurotransmitters

A

these groups are less able to metabolize and excrete drugs

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111
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in regulating sensory perception, eating, pain, sleep, and body temperature?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Epinephrine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Serotonin

A

serotonin

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112
Q

Noradrenaline is also called

a. epinephrine
b. serotonin
c. norepinephrine
d. dopamine

A

norepinephrine

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113
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters is released into the blood-stream during times of stress?

a. Norepinephrine
b. Serotonin
c. Dopamine
d. Epinephrine

A

epinephrine

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114
Q

_______allow nerve impulses to be transmitted to the cell body.

a. Axons
b. Cell bodies
c. Myelin sheaths
d. Dendrites

A

dendrites

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115
Q

Tolerance for alcohol lessens as people

a. grow
b. think
c. feel
d. age

A

age

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116
Q

When tolerance to one drug results in tolerance to another drug, it is referred to as what type of tolerance?

a. Pharmacological
b. Behavioral
c. Reverse
d. Cross

A

cross

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117
Q

The __________ system serves as the emotional center of the brain.

a. reticular activating
b. limbic
c. autonomic
d. peripheral

A

limbic

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118
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters acts as an excitatory transmitter in the skeletal muscles, but functions as an inhibitory transmitter in the heart muscle?

a. Norepinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Serotonin

A

acetylcholine

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119
Q

Regulating vital functions is a function of the

a. periventricular system
b. basal ganglia
c. brain stem
d. reticular activating system

A

brain stem

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120
Q

Epinephrine, dopamine, and norepinephrine are all examples of

a. hormonal modulators
b. catecholamines
c. neurotransmitters found only in the autonomic nervous system
d. neurotransmitters not secreted into the synapse

A

catecholamines

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121
Q

Which of the following terms refers to a drug’s ability to produce an effect relative to other drugs?

a. Purity
b. Potency
c. Potentiated
d. Synergism

A

potency

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122
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters is thought to play a significant role in emotional, mental, and motor functions?

a. Serotonin
b. Dopamine
c. Epinephrine
d. Acetylcholine

A

dopamine

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123
Q

Epinephrine is also known as

a. acetyl salicylic acid
b. acetaminophen
c. adrenaline
d. noradrenalin

A

adrenaline

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124
Q

The part of the brain distinguishing humans from other mammals is the

a. brainstem
b. cerebellum
c. cerebral cortex
d. medulla

A

cerebral cortex

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125
Q

When the body adjusts or compensates to the presence of a particular drug, the process is referred to as

a. behavioral tolerance
b. cross tolerance
c. pharmacological tolerance
d. reverse tolerance

A

pharmacological tolerance

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126
Q

A nerve cell is referred to as a

a. glial cell
b. dendrite
c. neuron
d. neurilemma

A

neuron

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127
Q

Social drinkers

a. still have a high rate of medical problems associated with alcohol use
b. almost always progress to heavy drinking
c. are able to abstain from alcohol at will
d. have high rates of alcoholism

A

are able to abstain from alcohol at will

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128
Q

The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are branches of what larger system?

a. Periventricular system
b. Somatic nervous system
c. Autonomic nervous system
d. Reticular activating system

A

Autonomic nervous system

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129
Q

When yeast, sugar, and water are transferred into ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide, it is termed

a. distillation
b. fermentation
c. cognition
d. titration

A

fermentation

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130
Q

Continued drinking despite recurring social, interpersonal, and legal problems is referred to as

a. alcohol abuse
b. alcohol dependence
c. alcohol addiction
d. alcohol misuse

A

alcohol abuse

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131
Q

When a drinker encounters interpersonal, financial, or social problems from drinking, they are said to be

a. a heavy drinker
b. an alcoholic
c. a problem drinker
d. none of the above

A

a problem drinker

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132
Q

Moderate drinking for men is no more than ___ drinks per day.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

2

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133
Q

When alcohol affects the cerebrum, which of the following is affected?

a. Motor coordination
b. Vital functions
c. Digestion
d. Reasoning

A

reasoning

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134
Q

As the cost of alcohol increases,

a. drinkers switch to beer
b. drinkers switch to wine
c. consumption levels decrease
d. there is no effect on consumption

A

comsumption levels decrease

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135
Q

The more ______ a person becomes, the more he or she follows the drinking patterns of the adopted population.

a. depressed
b. social
c. educated
d. acculturated

A

acculturated

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136
Q

E. M. Jellinek’s ideas regarding alcoholism have been dismissed because

a. his sample was adolescent drinkers
b. binge drinking was common when he conducted his study
c. of so much polydrug use
d. most alcoholics do not follow a consistent pattern

A

most alcoholics do not follow a consistent pattern

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137
Q

The process involving boiling a solution containing alcohol, collecting the vapor, and turning it back into a liquid is called

a. fermentation
b. distillation
c. cognition
d. proof

A

distillation

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138
Q

Which type of alcohol is contained in alcoholic beverages?

a. Methyl alcohol
b. Ethyl alcohol
c. Methanol
d. None of the above

A

ethyl alcohol

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139
Q

Which type of alcohol is contained in alcoholic beverages?

a. Methyl alcohol
b. Ethyl alcohol
c. Methanol
d. None of the above

A

cirrhosis

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140
Q

Rates of abstinence and heavy drinking are greater in

a. urban areas
b. rural areas
c. inner city areas
d. suburbs

A

rural areas

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141
Q

Most people today who drink alcohol are

a. binge drinkers
b. moderately-heavy drinkers
c. social drinkers
d. heavy drinkers

A

social drinkers

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142
Q

“Blackout in a can” is an expression used to describe

a. caffeinated alcohol
b. beverages with high alcohol content
c. foreign beers
d. fortified wines sold in cans

A

caffeinated alcohol

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143
Q

The alcohol content of beer is generally

a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 5%
d. 10%

A

5%

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144
Q

The national BAC standard for drunk driving has focused on what level?

a. 0.05
b. 0.06
c. 0.07
d. 0.08

A

0.08

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145
Q

Cancer and alcohol may be related to

a. alcohol content in beverages
b. the brewing or distillation method
c. the congeners in the beverage
d. the pattern of drinking

A

the congeners in the beverage

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146
Q

A person with this disorder is able to remember events or facts learned early in life, but unable to recall recent events. This disorder is called

a. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
b. delirium tremens
c. cardiomyopathy
d. paresis

A

wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

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147
Q

Which of the following people was most influential in beginning the temperance movement?

a. Carrie Nation
b. Sigmund Freud
c. Benjamin Rush
d. Calvin Coolidge

A

benjamin rush

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148
Q

When alcohol is used in religious ceremonies,

a. heavy drinking is minimal
b. heavy drinking is more common
c. binge drinking is more common
d. drunkenness is more common

A

heavy drinking is minimal

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149
Q

A potentially fatal alcohol withdrawal symptom masked by delusion, confusion, and disorientation is

a. extreme arousal
b. delirium tremens (DTs)
c. cognitive symptoms
d. hallucinations

A

delirium tremens (DTs)

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150
Q

Development of alcoholic pancreatitis occurs, typically, after how many years of heavy drinking?

a. 1-3
b. 3-5
c. 6-8
d. 10-15

A

10-15

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151
Q

Which of the following is not a criteria by the NIAAA in defining fetal alcohol syndrome?

a. Growth retardation
b. Brain damage
c. Maternal drinking after delivery
d. A characteristic pattern of facial deformities

A

maternal drinking after delivery

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152
Q

It is speculated that the Puritans landed at Plymouth Rock because

a. they got lost because they were drunk
b. their supply of beer and spirits ran out
c. they had a problem with alcoholics on board
d. they needed to find medical help because of alcohol-related problems

A

their supply of beer and spirits ran out

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153
Q

Moderate drinking for women is no more than ___ drinks per day.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

1

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154
Q

The Puritans considered alcohol

a. a “good creature from God”
b. spirits “of the devil”
c. the “nectar of the gods”
d. the “tears of angels”

A

a “good creature from God”

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155
Q

________ is predicated as the presence or absence of withdrawal symptoms.

a. Alcohol abuse
b. Alcohol dependence
c. Alcohol addiction
d. Alcohol misuse

A

alcohol dependence

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156
Q

What did Yankee traders trade for slaves in Africa?

a. Stills
b. Methyl alcohol
c. Demon rum
d. Beer

A

demon rum

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157
Q

The act to prohibit alcohol was known as the
a. Humphrey-Durham Amendment
b. Volstead Act
c. Kefauver-Harris Amendment
d. Drug Abuse Act

A

volstead act

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158
Q

The amount of alcohol in distilled spirits is generally indicated by the
a. distillation procedures
b. fermentation procedures
c. proof
d. stamp on the bottom of the bottle or can

A

proof

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159
Q

The alcohol content of wine generally ranges from
a. 2-4%
b. 3-5%
c. 6-8%
d. 8-14%

A

8-14%

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160
Q

During which trimester is the fetus most susceptible to the detrimental effects of alcohol on its development?
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Risk is equal during all stages of development

A

first

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161
Q

Alcohol accounts for what percentage of deaths in the U.S. each year?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%

A

10%

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162
Q

Wood alcohol is also called
a. ethyl alcohol
b. ethanol
c. methyl alcohol
d. none of the above

A

methyl alcohol

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163
Q

the temperance movement remained strong until
a. the Civil War
b. the Spanish-American War
c. World War II
d. the Great Depression

A

the civil war

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164
Q

Both drug dependency and drug addiction connote a compulsive need to use a drug and
a. less structure to life
b. inability to cease its use
c. unemployment
d. being less spiritual

A

inability to cease its use

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165
Q

An ingrained habit that undermines your health, your work, your relationships, and your self-respect, but you feel you cannot change is
a. habituation
b. dependence
c. tolerance
d. addiction

A

addiction

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166
Q

Cigarette advertisements were prohibited from television in
a. 1965
b. 1967
c. 1969
d. 1971

A

1971

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167
Q

Curiosity about drugs can lead to
a. dependence
b. experimentation
c. reinforcement
d. addiction

A

experimentation

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168
Q

There are no side effects to the use of human growth hormone. As a result, it is becoming a popularly used drug among athletes.
-True
-False

A

false

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169
Q

even though withdrawal symptoms may be psychological, they are quite real to the person experiencing them.
-True
-False

A

true

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170
Q

Ingesting and injecting several steroids at the same time is referred to as
a. stacking
b. a speed run
c. a steroid rush
d. ergogenic euphoria

A

stacking

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171
Q

Dependency is a term used only when pertaining to drugs.
-True
-False

A

false

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172
Q

Rebelliousness is a major reason for some people taking drugs.
-True
-False

A

true

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173
Q

Immediacy is a root cause in people using drugs.
-True
-False

A

true

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174
Q

An obvious reason for drug use is pleasure.
-True
-False

A

true

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175
Q

What type of reinforcers reduce physiological needs or are inherently pleasurable?
a. Primary
b. Primary prime
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary

A

primary

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176
Q

What year did the International Olympic Committee begin to require athletes to submit to a drug test or face disqualification?
a. 1960
b. 1964
c. 1968
d. 1972

A

1968

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177
Q

Euphoria is an example of
a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. frequency of use
d. terms of the environment in which the drug is consumed

A

positive reinforcement

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178
Q

Drugs taken to alleviate discomfort may provide
a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. primary reinforcement
d. secondary reinforcement

A

regative reinforcement

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179
Q

Curiosity about drugs is mainly the fault of the schools.
-True
-False

A

false

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180
Q

An OTC substance that has gained in popularity is the amino acid
a. creatine monohydrate
b. herbal ecstasy
c. adenosine phosphate
d. ascorbic acid

A

creatine monohydrate

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181
Q

Young people choose to associate with others who share the same interests.
-True
-False

A

true

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182
Q

European, American, and Chinese adolescents were found to be more affected by peers in their drug use than __________ adolescents.
a. Hispanic
b. Asian
c. American Indian
d. Black

A

black

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183
Q

__________ is a new synthetic steroid that athletes are taking to improve athletic performance.
a. THG
b. THC
c. THL
d. THB

A

THG

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184
Q

Substances used to gain a competitive advantage are termed
a. enhancer chemicals
b. steroids
c. ergogenic aids
d. autogenic drugs

A

ergogenic aids

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185
Q

John Belushi died in 1982 from injecting a mixture of cocaine and heroin called a
a. bolus
b. speedball
c. blunt
d. stack

A

speedball

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186
Q

There is little evidence that music plays a role in whether or not drugs will be used.
-True
-False

A

false

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187
Q

“Roid rage” refers to
a. physical problems resulting from steroid use
b. violence resulting from steroid use
c. depression resulting from steroid use
d. mania resulting from steroid use

A

mania resulting from steriod use

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188
Q

the desire and expectation that things should be handled rapidly is termed
a. attempting to cope
b. coping syndrome
c. escape
d. immediacy

A

immediacy

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189
Q

What type of reinforcers do not provide immediate pleasure?
a. Primary
b. Primary prime
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary

A

secondary

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190
Q

Caffeine can improve endurance by masking symptoms of fatigue.
-True
-False

A

true

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191
Q

The World Health Organization (WHO) proposed substituting the word ______in place of addiction.
a. dependence
b. habituation
c. abuse
d. none of the above

A

dependence

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192
Q

The most frequently mentioned cause of impotence in middle-aged men is excessive use of __________.
a. cigarettes
b. stimulants
c. alcohol
d. marijuana

A

alcohol

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193
Q

Approximately what percentage of enlisted men used heroin in Vietnam?
a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 35%
d. 40%

A

35%

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194
Q

Starting in adolescence, the influence of peers begins to exert a relatively greater role than the family as
a. prime reinforcers
b. positive reinforcers
c. socializing agents
d. secondary reinforcers

A

socialzing agents

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195
Q

Injecting and ingesting several steroids at a time is called stacking.
-True
-False

A

true

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196
Q

Physical dependency is marked by
a. a perceived need for the drug
b. an unstructured life
c. withdrawal symptoms
d. habituation

A

withdrawal symptoms

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197
Q

in the 1920s, cigarette advertisements specifically targeted
a. women
b. men
c. children
d. minorities

A

women

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198
Q

The effect of alcohol advertisements on people is easy to measure.
-True
-False

A

false

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199
Q

The desire for drugs, reasons for drug use, and needs fulfilled by drugs are constantly changing as society changes
-True
-False

A

true

200
Q

Television and radio advertisements for cigarettes are prohibited by the FCC.
-True
-False

A

true

201
Q

The only documented negative effect of anabolic steroid use is a reduced sperm count.
-True
-False

A

false

202
Q

What is the OTC muscle builder receiving much publicity because of athlete Mark Maguire?
a. Androstenedione
b. Ephedrine
c. PPA
d. Dextromethorphan

A

androstenedione

203
Q

Alcohol increases aerobic capacity.
-True
-False

A

false

204
Q

When relief or avoidance of pain is achieved by certain behaviors, then one’s desire to repeat those behaviors is motivated out of positive reinforcement.
-True
-False

A

false

205
Q

Drugs are normally not used to fill a void in one’s life.
-True
-False

A

false

206
Q

Theories of drug addiction that deal primarily with genetics and metabolic imbalance are termed
a. interactive theories
b. evolutional theories
c. biological theories
d. molecular theories

A

biological theories

207
Q

Drug advertisements generally convey the message that
a. drug use is dangerous
b. drugs are used only by adults
c. drug use is fun
d. drug use is the norm

A

drug use is the norm

208
Q

At the time of the passage of the Marijuana Tax Act, 46 states already had laws against marijuana.
-True
-False

A

true

209
Q

The legislation prohibiting opium smoking in opium dens or houses may have been strongly influenced by
a. high addiction rates
b. racism
c. taxes
d. the alcohol producer’s lobby

A

racism

210
Q

Prohibition was the major purpose of the Harrison Act.
-True
-False

A

false

211
Q

The need to limit opiate usage in the United States resulted in the passage of the
a. Pure Food and Drugs Act
b. Humphrey-Durham Amendment
c. Harrison Act of 19l4
d. Kefauver-Harris Amendments

A

Harrison Act of 1914

212
Q

Which of the following legislations first provided the FDA the authority to withdraw a drug from the marketplace?
a. Kefauver-Harris Amendments
b. 1938 Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
c. Pure Food and Drugs Act of 1906
d. none of the above

A

Kafauver-Harris Amendments

213
Q

A Commission on Marijuana and Drug Abuse was established as a part of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970.
-True
-False

A

true

214
Q

Thalidomide was the first drug to be officially approved by the FDA.
-True
-False

A

false

215
Q

Which of the following drug categories include drugs that are determined to be safe, effective, and properly labeled?
a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV

A

Category I

216
Q

Interdiction is difficult because of so many points of entry.
-True
-False

A

true

217
Q

Which of the following was undertaken by the National Research Council to evaluate effectiveness, safety, and claims made about OTC drugs?
a. Drug Efficacy Study
b. OTC Survey Study
c. Bristol-Meyers Study
d. Controlled Substances Act

A

drug efficacy study

218
Q

The first substance in America subject to regulation was
a. cocaine
b. opium
c. marijuana
d. alcohol

A

alcohol

219
Q

If drug interdiction is successful and the supply of a given drug is reduced,
a. it winds up being the same as legalization
b. then more funds should be allocated for interdiction
c. other drugs fill the void
d. the cost of all drugs goes down

A

other drugs fill the void

220
Q

Which of the following was a response to excise tax?
a. The Whiskey Rebellion
b. The Marijuana Tax Act
c. The temperance movement
d. The Humphrey-Durham Amendment

A

the whiskey rebellion

221
Q

According to the drug schedules, cocaine has no medical use.
-True
-False

A

false

222
Q

Which of the following drugs caused stronger regulations to arise regarding drug testing?
a. Opium
b. Antibiotics
c. Thalidomide
d. Marijuana

A

thalidomide

223
Q

A major flaw of the Model Drug Paraphernalia Act was that

a. there were already drug paraphernalia laws
b. drug paraphernalia was already illegal
c. many household products could be construed as paraphernalia
d. drug paraphernalia was not a big problem

A

many household products could be constrused as paraphernalia

224
Q

The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 resulted in the creation of
a. drug schedules
b. drug categories
c. drug nomenclature
d. drug identification charts

A

drug schedules

225
Q

The Dutch government believes that the illegality of some drugs cause more of an increase in harm (disease, violence) than prosecution for drug offenses.
-True
-False

A

true

226
Q

Cocaine is an example of a schedule _______ drug.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

II

227
Q

A drug with no medical use would be a schedule ___ drug.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

A

I

228
Q

A common source of new HIV/AIDS infections is
a. use of Rohypnol
b. intravenous drug use
c. use of Ecstasy
d. use of GHB

A

intravenous drug use

229
Q

When the Federal Court passed the Marijuana Tax Act of 1937,
a. marijuana was legal in only 7 states
b. marijuana was legal only in the District of Columbia
c. 46 of the 48 states already had laws against marijuana
d. marijuana was only taxed at bulk rate

A

46 of the 48 states already had laws against marijuana

230
Q

Which of the following allowed the government to enter the drug marketplace?
a. Harrison Act of 19l4
b. Pure Food and Drugs Act of 1906
c. Humphrey-Durham Amendment
d. Controlled Substances Act

A

pure food and drugs act of 1906

231
Q

Interdiction is especially difficult because of
a. profit related to drug production
b. the gray market
c. international waters
d. multiple points of entry

A

multiple points of entry

232
Q

The era between 1890 and 1906 is described as the “golden age of patent medicines.”
-True
-False

A

true

233
Q

Herbert Kleber maintains that the main danger of the legalization of drugs would be that lower cost and availability would
a. decrease drug use
b. lead to more drug use and dependency
c. increase the need for education
d. increase the need for drug testing

A

lead to more drug use and dependency

234
Q

Before World War II, all drugs except narcotics could be purchased over-the-counter.
-True
-False

A

true

235
Q

Before World War II, all drugs except narcotics could be purchased over-the-counter.
-True
-False

A

true

236
Q

High drug prices due to drug laws may generate criminal activity.
-True
-False

A

true

237
Q

Under the Dutch government’s policy of “normalization,” it is not illegal
a. to use some drugs
b. use any drugs
c. distribute drugs
d. purchase drugs

A

to use some drugs

238
Q

Opium poppies were legally grown in the United States until the 1940s
-True
-False

A

true

239
Q

George Washington was responsible for ending the Whiskey Rebellion.
-True
-False

A

true

240
Q

The result, in part, of Benjamin Rush’s writings in the 1700s was
a. the Whiskey Rebellion
b. the temperance movement
c. the Marijuana Tax Act
d. the first Pure Food and Drug Act

A

the temperance movement

241
Q

Focusing on reducing the personal and social adverse effects emanating from drug use is to require
a. decriminalization
b. interdiction
c. harm reduction
d. detoxification

A

harm reduction

242
Q

The era between 1890 and 1906 has been referred to as
a. the opium years
b. the drug legislation years
c. the golden age of patent medicines
d. the dawn of prescription drugs

A

the golden age of patent medicines

243
Q

The stimulus to the passage of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 were deaths associated with
a. cocaine
b. elixir sulfanilamide
c. aspirin
d. acetaminophen

A

elixir sulfanilamide

244
Q

Asking college students who complete FAFSA about drug convictions is due to a provision of what act or amendment?
a. Anti-Drug Abuse Act
b. Kefauver-Harris Amendments
c. Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970
d. Controlled Substances Act

A

anti-drug abuse act

245
Q

Tobacco industry documents dating back to the _______ describe the addictive potential of nicotine.
A. 1940s
B. 1950s
C. 1960s
D. 1970s

A

1960s

246
Q

Memory, attention, and reasoning ability decline _____ after the last cigarette.
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours

A

4 hours

247
Q

Babies born to mothers who smoke during pregnancy generally
A. Have developmental problems
B. Are addicted to nicotine
C. Weigh less
D. Have brain damage

A

weigh less

248
Q

Cigarettes from India that come in colors and have an increased concentration of nicotine are called
A. Charts
B. Bidis
C. Ghanga
D. Nicorette

A

bidis

249
Q

Most smokers and those who chew tobacco ________________.
A. Have lower levels of nicotine in their blood
B. Build tolerance rapidly
C. Experience reverse tolerance
D. Can achieve toxic level quickly

A

build tolerance rapidly

250
Q

Smokeless tobacco consists of chewing tobacco and
A. Bidis
B. Snuff
C. Pipe tobacco
D. Cigars

A

snuff

251
Q

The likelihood of nicotine dependence increases if one feels _____________ the first time a cigarette is inhaled.
A. Stimulated
B. Relaxed
C. More alert
D. Lightheaded

A

relaxed

252
Q

During the expansion westward, tobacco was consumed mainly in what form?
A. Cigarettes
B. Pipes
C. Cigars
D. Chewing tobacco

A

chewing tobacco

253
Q

The strongest symptom of nicotine withdrawal is
A. Headache
B. Craving
C. Fatigue
D. Hunger

A

craving

254
Q

it takes an average of how many years after one begins smoking to become a regular smoker?
A. 2 to 3
B. 4 to 5
C. 6 to 7
D. 8 to 9

A

2 to 3

255
Q

What is the chemical in clove cigarettes that makes inhalation easier and anesthetizes the throat?
A. Bidis
B. Eugenol
C. Toluene
D. Nitrous oxide

A

eugenol

256
Q

Most of the carcinogens found in tobacco are mainly found in
A. Nicotine
B. Tar
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Clove

A

tar

257
Q

Cigarette smoke contains which substance that interferes with the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood?
A. Tar
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Hydrogen cyanide

A

carbon monoxide

258
Q

Of all smokers, apparently what percentage began as teenagers?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%

A

80%

259
Q

The nicotine level in one dip of snuff equals that in ______ cigarettes
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

4

260
Q

Nicotine is used as
A. An anti-anxiety drug
B. An antidepressant
C. A tranquilizer
D. An insecticide

A

an insecticide

261
Q

Nicotine ______________ cognitive performance
A. Decreases
B. Has no effect on
C. Improves
D. Impairs

A

improves

262
Q

Smoking-related strokes are related to
A. The adhesion of platelets facilitated by carbon monoxide and nicotine
B. Aneurysms due to tar buildup
C. Nicotine causing the smaller blood vessels in the brain to burst
D. Nicotine weakening the muscle layer in the smaller blood vessels

A

the adhesion of platelets facilitated by carbon monoxide and nicotine

263
Q

Nicotine patches contain how much nicotine
A. 30 mg
B. 60 mg
C. 90 mg
D. 120 mg

A

30 mg

264
Q

The symptoms of nicotine withdrawal
A. Take a long time to develop
B. Are proportional to nicotine intake
C. Are strictly psychological
D. Can be fatal

A

are proportional to nicotine intake

265
Q

A lethal dose of nicotine is considered
A. 20 mg
B. 40 mg
C. 60 mg
D. 80 mg

A

60 mg

266
Q

The first tobacco products to be marketed to women were
A. Cigars
B. Pipe tobacco
C. Cigarettes
D. Snuff

A

cigarettes

267
Q

One factor that has been shown to decrease demand for cigarettes is
A. An increase in cigarette cost
B. A higher concentration of nicotine in cigarettes
C. The popularity of filtered cigarettes
D. The popularity of pipes

A

an increase in cigarette cost

268
Q

The American Psychiatric Association recognized nicotine dependency as a disorder in
A. 1982
B. 1985
C. 1988
D. 1991

A

1988

269
Q

The most common type of cancer among smokers is
A. Bladder cancer
B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Lung cancer
D. Brain cancer

A

lung cancer

270
Q

smoking was carried into Eastern Europe as a result of
A. The Thirty Years’ War
B. Alexander the Great
C. Napoleon
D. The plague

A

the thirty year’s war

271
Q

Hair-like structures that rid the lungs of foreign matter are called
A. Cilia
B. Alveoli
C. Bronchi
D. Villi

A

cilia

272
Q

Currently, approximately what percentage of men smoke?
A. 16%
B. 23%
C. 36%
D. 46%

A

23%

273
Q

Smoke that comes from the burning end of a cigarette is precisely termed
A. Sidestream smoke
B. Mainstream smoke
C. Secondhand smoke
D. Passive smoke

A

sidestream smoke

274
Q

What year was legislation passed requiring the tobacco industry to pay over $206 billion in liability?
A. 1993
B. 1994
C. 1995
D. 1998

A

1998

275
Q

What percentage of new smokers initiate smoking prior to age 18?
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%

A

60%

276
Q

Smoking rates in industrialized countries
A. Are increasing
B. Are decreasing
C. Have not changed
D. Are not known

A

are decreasing

277
Q

Nicotine releases the neurotransmitter
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. GABA
D. Norepinephrine

A

norepinephrine

278
Q

In the late 1800s, saccharine was put into tobacco to sweeten it and to
A. Make is look brown
B. Make it smell better
C. Give it a longer shelf life
D. Make it healthier to consume

A

give it a longer shelf life

279
Q

Currently, approximately what percentage of women smoke?
A. 12%
B. 18%
C. 32%
D. 42%

A

18%

280
Q

In the 1800s, the abundant supply and use of opium was associated with
A. Germans
B. Native Americans
C. Chinese
D. Canadians

A

Chinese

281
Q

Which of the following pain killers is referred to as “hillbilly heroin?”
A. Codeine
B. Fentanyl
C. Methadone
D. OxyContin

A

OxyContin

282
Q

Testing every soldier in Vietnam for heroin use was called
A. The heroin experiment
B. Viet-Thai Checkpoint
C. Operation Opium
D. Operation Golden Flow

A

operation golden flow

283
Q

Heroin was synthesized from
A. Marijuana
B. Meperidine
C. Methadone
D. Morphine

A

morphine

284
Q

The first country to implement an NEP was
A. United States
B. Italy
C. England
D. Netherlands

A

netherlands

285
Q

Drugs that block the reinforcing effects of narcotics are called
A. Neurotransmitters
B. Narcotic analgesics
C. Narcotic antagonists
D. Narcotic synergistics

A

narcotic antagonists

286
Q

Detoxification typically takes how many days?
A. 1-2
B. 10-14
C. 16-21
D. 22-28

A

10-14

287
Q

Demerol is
A. More potent than morphine
B. Less potent than morphine
C. The same in potency as morphine
D. Not comparable to morphine because it is a stimulant

A

less potent than morphine

288
Q

The active ingredients in cough remedies are termed
A. Antitussives
B. Suppressives
C. Antiemetic
D. Surfactants

A

antitussives

289
Q

Opiates are
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Hallucinogens
D. Only synthetic

A

narcotics

290
Q

Narcotics _______________ peristaltic contractions.
A. Speed up
B. Slow down
C. Maintain continuous
D. Have no effect on

A

slow down

291
Q

After withdrawal, the desire for narcotics can persist for
A. Days
B. Months
C. Weeks
D. Years

A

years

292
Q

The effects of morphine are about how many times more potent than the effects of opium?
A. 4 times
B. 6 times
C. 8 times
D. 10 times

A

10 times

293
Q

Morphine’s actions last approximately how many hours?
A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 4-5
D. 6-8

A

4-5

294
Q

Naltrexone is an example of
A. A prescription form of heroin
B. A narcotic analgesic
C. A narcotic antagonist
D. A form of methadone

A

a narcotic antagonist

295
Q

The reason that heroin is more powerful than morphine is because heroin is
A. Lipid-soluble
B. Fat-insoluble
C. Protein-bound
D. Lipid-insoluble

A

lipid-soluable

296
Q

Dragon is structurally related to
A. Fentanyl
B. Methadone
C. Heroin
D. Morphine

A

methadone

297
Q

Originally heroin was promoted as a
A. Estrogen replacement
B. Sleeping medication
C. Cure for morphine addiction
D. Cure for obesity

A

cure for morphine addiction

298
Q

What type of “pain” are narcotics most effective in relieving?
A. Sharp pain
B. No descriptive pain
C. Continuous dull pain
D. Intermediate pain

A

continuous dull pain

299
Q

NEP stands for
A. Need expressed publicly
B. Needle-exchange program
C. Narcotic expedited programs
D. Narcotic extracurricular programs

A

needle-exchange programs

300
Q

Clonidine is a drug used to
A. Eliminate heroin withdrawal symptoms
B. Be a substitute for heroin
C. Heal liver problems from heroin
D. Reverse cardiac arrest from heroin overdose

A

eliminate heroin withdrawl symptoms

301
Q

Fentanyl is known colloquially as
A. Heroin
B. Horse
C. China white
D. Ecstasy

A

china white

302
Q

People who die quickly from an overdose of heroin are likely to die from
A. Toxicity
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. A lethal dose
D. Reverse tolerance

A

anaphylactic shock

303
Q

“Women’s tonics” contained
A. Cocaine
B. Thebaine
C. Ergot
D. Laudanum

A

laudanum

304
Q

Dextromethorphan is used in place of in medications
A. Morphine
B. Codeine
C. Methadone
D. Thebaine

A

codeine

305
Q

Heroin users who take the drug only on occasion are known as
A. Social users
B. Chippers
C. Kickers
D. Tokers

A

chippers

306
Q

What is the title of the novel that describes how narcotics make people feel less sociable?
A. Man With the Golden Arm
B. Junky
C. Midnight Express
D. Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde

A

junky

307
Q

Approximately what percentage of narcotic abusers becomes dependent?
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

A

50%

308
Q

Disulfiram interferes with the metabolism of alcohol and increases the level of ______in the blood.

a. carbon dioxide
b. water
c. acetic acid
d. acetaldehyde

A

acetaldehyde

309
Q

Naltrexone may be most helpful after
Select one:
a. one year of sobriety
b. identification of a sound support group
c. incarceration
d. detoxification

A

detoxification

310
Q

The FDA approved naltrexone as an adjunct treatment to prevent
Select one:
a. relapse
b. toxicity
c. reverse tolerance
d. delirium tremens

A

relapse

311
Q

Acamprosate is a drug primarily used to treat
Select one:
a. alcoholism
b. cocaine addiction
c. heroin addiction
d. inhalant abuse

A

alcoholism

312
Q

Secular Organizations for Sobriety and Rational Recovery systems would most likely be used by
Select one:
a. professionals
b. very religious people
c. medical personnel who have drug problems
d. atheists

A

atheists

313
Q

For nonviolent drug offenders whose underlying problem is substance use, drug treatment courts combine the power of the judicial system with what component?
Select one:
a. Effective treatment services
b. Constant supervision
c. Incarceration
d. Denial of driver’s license

A

effective treatment services

314
Q

Moderation management is an example of
Select one:
a. NA
b. detoxification
c. AA
d. controlled drinking model

A

controlled drinking

315
Q

The U.S. Public Health Service hospital-based approach to drug treatment was said to be ineffective because of the
Select one:
a. location of the hospitals
b. lack of personnel
c. high relapse rate of people released
d. lack of funding

A

high relapse rate of people released

316
Q

The 12 steps of Alcoholics Anonymous focus mainly on which dimension of health?
Select one:
a. mental
b. emotional
c. spiritual
d. physical

A

spiritual

317
Q

Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is an example of
Select one:
a. an outpatient facility
b. an inpatient facility
c. a self-help group
d. a therapeutic community

A

a self-help group

318
Q

Research shows that a major benefit of drug courts is that
Select one:
a. more people are rearrested and convicted
b. fewer people are rearrested and convicted
c. less police are needed to oversee illegal drug distribution
d. less treatment facilities are needed

A

fewer people are rearrested and convicted

319
Q

Most people in drug treatment are
Select one:
a. age 20-45 white males
b. age 20-45 white females
c. age 40-65 white males
d. age 40-65 white females

A

age 20-45 white males

320
Q

The most common form of community drug abuse treatment is done
Select one:
a. inpatient
b. outpatient
c. in therapeutic communities
d. through spontaneous remission

A

outpatient

321
Q

Hospital-based drug treatment programs are referred to as
Select one:
a. outpatient programs
b. therapeutic communities
c. self-help programs
d. inpatient programs

A

inpatient programs

322
Q

Acamprosate is generally administered
Select one:
a. once a day
b. twice a day
c. several times a day
d. every other day

A

several times a day

323
Q

Recruiting and retaining staff in treatment programs is difficult because
Select one:
a. of intense demands
b. most are addicts themselves
c. most reject authority
d. all of the above

A

of intense demands

324
Q

LAAM is a long-acting
Select one:
a. morphine
b. codeine
c. methadone
d. heroin

A

methadone

325
Q

To help individuals overcome their dependency on opiates, Freud experimented on his patients with ________.
Select one:
a. codeine
b. cocaine
c. amphetamines
d. LSD

A

cocaine

326
Q

Drug-free residential settings where drug abusers reside for a year or two are called
Select one:
a. therapeutic communities
b. detox centers
c. half-way houses
d. inpatient facilities

A

therapeutic communities

327
Q

Therapeutic communities stress
Select one:
a. psychoanalysis
b. psychotherapeutic drugs
c. social drinking
d. encounter groups

A

encounter groups

328
Q

Disulfiram is better known as
Select one:
a. Antabuse
b. naltrexone
c. Valium
d. Librium

A

antabuse

329
Q

When drug treatment was initiated in the United States, the focus was mainly on
Select one:
a. cocaine
b. opiates
c. alcohol
d. amphetamines

A

opiates

330
Q

Methadone maintenance is effective for the treatment of ________addiction only.
Select one:
a. morphine
b. codeine
c. heroin
d. LAAM

A

heroin

331
Q

When alcoholics are taught to drink moderately, the approach is referred to as
Select one:
a. the social drinking model
b. the moderate drinking model
c. the controlled drinking model
d. the rational approach model

A

the controlled drinking model

332
Q

A medically-supervised program designed to gradually withdraw addicts from the drug on which they are physically dependent is termed
Select one:
a. abstinence
b. detoxification
c. a therapeutic community approach
d. rehabilitation

A

detoxification

333
Q

According to CASA, parents who take a “hands-off” approach to parenting have children who are how many times more likely to use alcohol, tobacco, and illegal drugs?
Select one:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

4

334
Q

Teens who eat dinner with their families at least ___ times a week have significantly lower rates of drug use than teens who have dinner ___ or fewer times a week.
Select one:
a. 2; 1
b. 3; 2
c. 4; 1
d. 5; 3

A

5;3

335
Q

The ability to overcome obstacles such as resisting drug use is referred to as
Select one:
a. self-esteem
b. self-actualization
c. resiliency
d. maturity

A

resiliency

336
Q

A major limitation to drug prevention programs is that most have not
Select one:
a. been implemented by professionals
b. established clear goals
c. been evaluated
d. been developed according to proper standards

A

established clear goals

337
Q

Studies of DARE’s effectiveness
Select one:
a. show DARE to be highly effective
b. show DARE to be effective only for high school students
c. show DARE to be an exemplary drug education program
d. have not been shown to work

A

have not been shown to work

338
Q

In 1974, Robert DuPont reported that most students and teachers felt that drug education should be
Select one:
a. abolished
b. taught only by health educators
c. taught by nurses
d. taught by medical doctors

A

abolished

339
Q

According to NIAAA, parents can have a major impact on their children’s drinking especially during what times in the child’s life?
Select one:
a. Late teen years
b. Toddler stage
c. Preteen and early teen years
d. Middle teen years

A

preteen and early teen years

340
Q

Drug education focusing on the underlying values contributing to drug use is termed
Select one:
a. values clarification
b. resiliency education
c. distributive education
d. health beliefs

A

values clarification

341
Q

in the 1970s, the thrust of drug education was
Select one:
a. development of refusal skills
b. development of positive attitudes
c. disseminating information
d. development of sound behaviors

A

disseminating information

342
Q

Drug treatment would be an example of
Select one:
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
d. primary care

A

tertiary prevention

343
Q

Drug-taking behavior learned through modeling and reinforcement is the premise of
Select one:
a. skills training
b. DARE
c. LST
d. Project ALERT

A

skills training

344
Q

School performance improves and high risk behaviors are reduced particularly with what type of education?
Select one:
a. Cognitive
b. Affective
c. Experiential
d. Values clarification

A

experiential

345
Q

Reaching people prior to their use of alcohol, tobacco, or other drugs is
Select one:
a. primary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. tertiary prevention
d. quandary prevention

A

primary prevention

346
Q

Several studies note that older siblings have a ____________ influence on the drug use of younger siblings than parents have.
Select one:
a. lesser
b. greater
c. significant
d. negligible

A

greater

347
Q

Secondary prevention is geared toward
Select one:
a. education
b. school children
c. those who use drugs or have some experience with drugs
d. those in detox programs

A

those who use drugs or have some experience with drugs

348
Q

The main message of Schools Without Drugs is
Select one:
a. change drug attitudes among youth
b. change values among youth
c. abstinence
d. emphasize health beliefs

A

abstinence

349
Q

Which of the following is grounded in social learning theory?
Select one:
a. DARE
b. SCHEP
c. Project Northland
d. LST

A

LST

350
Q

The national agency that oversees national drug prevention is
Select one:
a. SAMHSA
b. NIDA
c. CSAP
d. NIAAA

A

SAMHSA

351
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a problem with drug education?
Select one:
a. Teachers keep abreast of new information.
b. Students may be more knowledgeable about drugs than the teacher.
c. Teachers may be judgmental or moralistic.
d. Teachers tend to promote drug use.

A

teachers tend to promote drug use

352
Q

A blending of the senses is referred to as
Select one:
a. psychedelic
b. synesthesia
c. hallucinogenic
d. formication

A

synesthesia

353
Q

Amanita muscaria is also called
Select one:
a. God’s flesh
b. the businessman’s LSD
c. fly agaric
d. St. Anthony’s fire

A

fly agaric

354
Q

Bad trips seem to be related to
Select one:
a. the amount of LSD consumed
b. set and setting
c. other drugs in the system
d. the source of the LSD

A

set and setting

355
Q

Because hallucinogens have “stimulating and inebriating properties,” Lewin refers to them as
Select one:
a. psychedelics
b. psychotogenic
c. psychotomimetic
d. phantasticants

A

phantasticants

356
Q

DMT is referred to as
Select one:
a. the businessman’s LSD
b. the hippy elixir
c. the men’s room
d. the women’s drug

A

the businessman’s LSD

357
Q

Ketamine is considered a
Select one:
a. stimulant
b. dissociative anesthetic
c. hallucinogen
d. anxiolytic

A

dissociative anesthetic

358
Q

LSD became popular because of which man?
Select one:
a. Hoffman
b. Freud
c. Leary
d. Schultes

A

leary

359
Q

LSD tolerance
Select one:
a. develops rapidly
b. develops slowly
c. does not develop
d. has not been determined

A

develops rapidly

360
Q

LSD was discovered by using ergot to discover a cure for
Select one:
a. menstrual problems
b. headaches
c. opiate poisoning
d. tuberculosis

A

headaches

361
Q

LSD was discovered by
Select one:
a. Leary
b. Hoffman
c. Alpert
d. Schultes

A

hoffman

362
Q

Nutmeg and mace are not taken for hallucinogenic purposes because
Select one:
a. of unpleasant side effects
b. they are not hallucinogenic agents
c. they have to be injected
d. they are illegal

A

of unpleasant side effects

363
Q

Preparation of mescal buttons is difficult to do because
Select one:
a. of their small size
b. of their intoxicating effect
c. of their volatile nature
d. of their foul odor

A

of their foul odor

364
Q

Psilocybin is chemically similar to
Select one:
a. LSD
b. amphetamines
c. caffeine
d. PCP

A

LSD

365
Q

Some drug experts describe PCP as a
Select one:
a. mild sedative
b. dissociative anesthetic
c. profound tranquilizer
d. cerebral stimulant

A

dissociative anesthetic

366
Q

St. Anthony’s fire is associated with
Select one:
a. psilocybin
b. mescaline
c. ergotism
d. atropine

A

ergotism

367
Q

Teonanacatl is
Select one:
a. “God’s flesh”
b. “friends folly”
c. “mother’s bread”
d. “father’s help”

A

“God’s flesh”

368
Q

The behavioral effects of LSD last approximately how long?
Select one:
a. 1-2 hours
b. 2-4 hours
c. 4-6 hours
d. 6-8 hours

A

6-8 hours

369
Q

Which drug is made from mandrake?
Select one:
a. DMT
b. Scopolamine
c. Nitroglycerin
d. Beta blockers

A

scopolamine

370
Q

Which hallucinogen is found in peyote?
Select one:
a. Psilocybin
b. Mace
c. Mescaline
d. Datura

A

mescaline

371
Q

Which neurotransmitter does LSD principally operate on?
Select one:
a. Dopamine
b. Serotonin
c. Acetylcholine
d. Norepinephrine

A

serotonin

372
Q

Which of the following drugs would most likely be used as a substitute for PCP?
Select one:
a. Ketamine
b. Peyote
c. DMT
d. MDMA

A

ketamine

373
Q

which of the following hallucinogens are referred to as “love apples?”
Select one:
a. Peyote
b. Belladonna
c. Datura
d. Mandrake

A

belladonna

374
Q

Which plant is also known as locoweed?
Select one:
a. Mandrake
b. Peyote
c. Datura
d. Teonanacatl

A

datura

375
Q

Which toad is licked to get a hallucinogenic effect?
Select one:
a. Bull toad
b. Horned toad
c. Bufo toad
d. Swamp toad

A

bufo toad

376
Q

Heroin is linked to criminal behavior, but NOT
Select one:
a. violent behavior
b. family problems
c. community problems
d. financial problems

A

violent bahavior

377
Q

_______ is a synthetic derivative of morphine
Select one:
a. MDMA
b. Ecstasy
c. Meperidine
d. MDA

A

meperidine

378
Q

Which type of toxicity alludes to the danger from a single experimentation with the drug?
Select one:
a. Chronic
b. Acute
c. Physiological
d. Intensified

A

acute

379
Q

Data regarding drug use has been collected periodically from U.S. households since what year?
Select one:
a. 1951
b. 1961
c. 1971
d. 1981

A

1971

380
Q

The most important distinction between drug users and non-users is the extent of
Select one:
a. their response to family problems
b. their responses to peer pressure
c. use of legal substances
d. conventionality

A

conventionality

381
Q

A report from the Brooking Institute suggested that the debate over how to address the drug problem is based on
Select one:
a. the strength of the military
b. the strength of the police force
c. speculation, not on fact
d. the amount of money available to address the problem

A

speculation, not on fact

382
Q

which of the following refers to the toxicity danger resulting from repeated use of a drug
a. Acute
b. Intensified
c. Physiological
d. Chronic

A

chronic

383
Q

The drug involved with the most violent incidents is
Select one:
a. heroin
b. amphetamines
c. alcohol
d. LSD

A

alcohol

384
Q

What type of drug use refers to the user’s lifestyle revolving around drugs?
Select one:
a. Intensified
b. Compulsive
c. Social-recreational
d. Circumstantial-situational

A

compulsive

385
Q

According to the National Survey on Drug Use and Health, the highest rate of binge drinking and the highest rate of heavy drinking were in which age group?
Select one:
a. 18-21
b. 18-25
c. 21-30
d. 25-35

A

18-25

386
Q

biphetamine is also known as
Select one:
a. the love drug
b. the date rape drug
c. herbal ecstasy
d. black widow

A

black widow

387
Q

Most Americans view drug testing as
Select one:
a. degrading and dehumanizing
b. important and valuable
c. a necessary procedure
d. illegal

A

degrading and dehumanizing

388
Q

What type of toxicity refers to a drug’s interference in one’s ability to function?
Select one:
a. Acute
b. Chronic
c. Physiological
d. Behavioral

A

behavioral

389
Q

taking a drug on a short-term basis to contend with immediate distress or pressure describes what type of drug use?
Select one:
a. Intensified
b. Circumstantial-situational
c. Social-recreational
d. Experimental

A

circumstantial-situational

390
Q

Family interventions into adolescent alcohol use reduce the initiation and __________ of alcohol use.
Select one:
a. cost
b. frequency
c. amount
d. duration

A

frequency

391
Q

Cathinone is another name for
Select one:
a. bath salts
b. Ecstasy
c. cannabinoids
d. fentanyl

A

bath salts

392
Q

The data in DAWN reports reflects
Select one:
a. chronic overdoses
b. acute drug-related problems
c. only alcohol-related problems
d. only those needed to be hospitalized

A

acute drug-related problems

393
Q

Most surveys showed that less than _______ of workers used alcohol or other drugs on the job.
Select one:
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 7%
d. 10%

A

10%

394
Q

The Office of National Drug Control Policy places the health and social cost of drug use at ____________ annually.
Select one:
a. $121 billion
b. $141 billion
c. $161 billion
d. $193 billion

A

$193 billion

395
Q

Tactics for stopping the flow of drugs into the United States have proved
Select one:
a. effective
b. ineffective
c. cost effective
d. positive

A

ineffective

396
Q

A pattern of taking drugs in a social environment to share pleasurable experiences among friends describes what type of drug use?
Select one:
a. Experimental
b. Intensified
c. Social-recreational
d. Circumstantial-situational

A

social-recreational

397
Q

Which of the following is a fast and inexpensive test used in a drug screening?
Select one:
a. Gas chromatography
b. Immunoassay
c. Thin-layer chromatography
d. None of the above

A

immunoassay

398
Q

Drug abuse by Americans aged 60 years and older has been referred to as
Select one:
a. geriatric psychotropic effect
b. gerontology syndrome
c. pharmaceutical pandemic
d. invisible epidemic

A

invisible epidemic

399
Q

Nearly __________ Americans die each year from the use of tobacco, alcohol, and illegal drugs.
Select one:
a. 500,000
b. 1 million
c. 1.5 million
d. 2 million

A

500,000

400
Q

Political leaders from Central America have pledged to intercede in the drug trade, but the security forces in many of these countries are hampered by
Select one:
a. lack of funds
b. lack of access to good weapons
c. internal corruption
d. lack of technology

A

internal corruption

401
Q

It is estimated that employee drug abuse costs the workplace
Select one:
a. $15 billion
b. $25.6 billion
c. $27.9 billion
d. $30 billion

A

$25.6 billion

402
Q

Which of the following is a designer drug?
Select one:
a. Heroin
b. MDMA
c. Wine coolers
d. Crack

A

MDMA

403
Q

When a person tests negative for a drug even though that drug is present in the body, it is termed
Select one:
a. negative outlier
b. false negative
c. false positive
d. inaccurate

A

false negative

404
Q

When a person uses drugs on a steady, long-term basis to achieve relief from a persistent problem, what kind of use is this?
Select one:
a. Intensified
b. Compulsive
c. Circumstantial-situational
d. Social-recreational

A

intensified

405
Q

When a person tests positive for a drug even though there was no drug present in the body, it is termed
Select one:
a. inaccurate
b. false negative
c. false positive
d. positive outlier

A

false positive

406
Q

The federal government monitors the rate of emergency room visits and fatal overdoses due to drugs through a network called
Select one:
a. FBIN
b. DEA
c. DAWN
d. ATF

A

DAWN

407
Q

The difference between a safe and dangerous level of a drug is termed
Select one:
a. therapeutic index
b. margin of safety
c. therapeutic safety coefficient
d. safety coefficient

A

margin of safety

408
Q

preventing drugs from entering the United States or reducing the amount of drugs grown in the country is
Select one:
a. hampered by a lack of technology
b. a matter of demand, not supply
c. largely a military effort
d. best done by local police

A

a matter of demand, not supply

409
Q

More than _____________ people are in American jails on any given day for violating drug law.
Select one:
a. 500,000
b. 1,000,000
c. 1,500,000
d. 2,000,000

A

500,000

410
Q

synthetic substances chemically similar to existing drugs are referred to as
Select one:
a. look-alike drugs
b. sound-alike drugs
c. designer drugs
d. quasi-synthetic drugs

A

designer drugs

411
Q

Individuals who use drugs infrequently and due to curiosity are what type of user?
Select one:
a. Social-recreational
b. Circumstantial-situational
c. Experimental
d. Intensified

A

experimental

412
Q

Which term refers to a drug being poisonous?
Select one:
a. Addiction
b. Dependence
c. Habituation
d. Toxic

A

toxic

413
Q

“Ice” is also called
Select one:
a. Bital
b. crystal meth
c. Ritalin
d. all of the above

A

crystal meth

414
Q

Recruiting and retaining staff in treatment programs is difficult because
Select one:
a. of intense demands
b. most are addicts themselves
c. most reject authority
d. all of the above

A

of intense depands

415
Q

Which of the following is banned by the FDA?
Select one:
a. Ephedrine
b. PPIs
c. Xanthine
d. Creatine

A

ephedrine

416
Q

The prescribed version of Alli is
Select one:
a. Xenical
b. PPA
c. Fen-Fen
d. Tagamet

A

xenical

417
Q

The prescribed version of Alli is
Select one:
a. Xenical
b. PPA
c. Fen-Fen
d. Tagamet

A

category 1

418
Q

Acetaminophen is a by-product of
Select one:
a. acetylsalicylic acid
b. willow bark
c. ibuprofen
d. phenacetin

A

phenacetin

419
Q

Robo-tripping is the inappropriate use of
Select one:
a. dextromethorphan
b. hydrocitric acid
c. thebaine
d. codeine

A

dextromethorphan

420
Q

The primary ingredient in an OTC sleep aid is
Select one:
a. antihistamine
b. antitussives
c. antiemetics
d. alcohol

A

antihistamine

421
Q

Two antitussive drugs are codeine and
Select one:
a. pseudoephedrine
b. dextromethorphan
c. expectorant
d. thebaine

A

dextromethorphan

422
Q

Signs of acetaminophen overdose may not appear for up to how many hours after the overdose?
Select one:
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours

A

48 hours

423
Q

Two advantages of using acetaminophen over aspirin is less stomach irritation and
Select one:
a. a better analgesic effect
b. that it does not prolong bleeding time
c. a better antipyretic effect
d. a better anti-inflammatory effect

A

that it does not prolong bleeding time

424
Q

Two advantages of using acetaminophen over aspirin is less stomach irritation and
Select one:
a. a better analgesic effect
b. that it does not prolong bleeding time
c. a better antipyretic effect
d. a better anti-inflammatory effect

A

rebound effect

425
Q

To make a cough productive, one would take a
Select one:
a. antitussive
b. expectorant
c. astringent
d. surfactant

A

expectorant

426
Q

Alli works by
Select one:
a. blocking absorption of fat
b. burning fat
c. stimulating metabolism
d. increasing stomach acid

A

blocking absorption of fat

427
Q

Another term for a fever-reducing drug is
Select one:
a. antihistamine
b. antipyretic
c. antitussive
d. antiemetic

A

antipyretic

428
Q

The topical anesthetic in chewing gums used as weight control products is
Select one:
a. benzocaine
b. xylocaine
c. lidocaine
d. midocaine

A

benzocaine

429
Q

Antitussives stop
Select one:
a. bleeding
b. coughing
c. vomiting
d. diarrhea

A

coughing

430
Q

Salts of aluminum can bring about
Select one:
a. constipation
b. dysentery
c. muscle pain
d. diarrhea

A

diarrhea

431
Q

The FDA approved PPA as a supplement for weight reduction for up to __ weeks
Select one:
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12

A

12

432
Q

Naproxen sodium is most similar to what drug?
Select one:
a. Acetaminophen
b. Aspirin
c. Ibuprofen
d. Phenacetin

A

ibuprofen

433
Q

Ibuprofen is less likely to cause stomach upset than aspirin, but
Select one:
a. does prolong bleeding time
b. results in iron deficiency anemia
c. has no antipyretic effect
d. has no anti-inflammatory effect

A

does prolong bleeding time

434
Q

It was not until the passage of what legislation did nonprescription drugs have to be proven safe and effective?
Select one:
a. Pure Food and Drug ACt of 1906
b. Kefauver-Harris Amendment
c. Anti-Drug Abust Control Amendments
d. Harrison Act of 1914

A

kefauver-harris amendment

435
Q

OTC stimulants contain which primary ingredient
Select one:
a. alcohol
b. phenacetin
c. caffeine
d. amphetamine

A

caffeine

436
Q

Salts of magnesium in antacids could result in which side effect?
Select one:
a. Diarrhea
b. Headaches
c. Constipation
d. Ringing in the ears

A

constipation

437
Q

Ben-Gay and Absorbine are examples of what type of analgesic?
Select one:
a. External
b. Exogenous
c. Endogenous
d. Internal

A

external

438
Q

Pseudoephedrine is an example of a
Select one:
a. antitussive
b. antiemetic
c. expectorant
d. decongestant

A

decongestant

439
Q

If a drug cannot be sold, and if the drug manufacturer contests the FDA decision, it is in which category?
Select one:
a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV

A

category III

440
Q

There is no regulation of herbal drugs because the FDA does not oversee what type of product?
Select one:
a. Food supplements
b. OTC products
c. Generally recognized as safe products
d. Generally recognized as effective products

A

food supplements

441
Q

Pain-relieving drugs are referred to as
Select one:
a. antitussives
b. antiemetics
c. antihistamines
d. analgesics

A

analgesics

442
Q

Aspirin inhibits the synthesis and release of what hormone-like chemical?
Select one:
a. Histamine
b. Mucous
c. Acetylcholine
d. Prostaglandins

A

prostaglandins

443
Q

drugs not generally recognized as safe or improperly labeled are in which category?
Select one:
a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV

A

category II

444
Q

Theophylline is often used to treat
a. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
b. asthma
c. depression
d. cocaine dependence

A

asthma

445
Q

The peak phase of a cocaine high happens ________ after snorting cocaine.
Select one:
a. 10-20 minutes
b. 20-25 minutes
c. 30-40 minutes
d. 40-60 minutes

A

10-20 minutes

446
Q

the third phase of abstinence from cocaine dependency usually lasts from a period of months up to
Select one:
a. no more than 1 year
b. no more than 2 years
c. no more than 3 years
d. several years

A

several years

447
Q

Crack cocaine use emerged in the ________.
Select one:
a. 1960s
b. 1970s
c. 1980s
d. 1990s

A

1980’s

448
Q

Which of the following is a drug that includes cocaine and is used to manage cancer pain?
Select one:
a. Vin Mariani
b. Brompton’s cocktail
c. lidocaine
d. novocaine

A

brompton’s cocktail

449
Q

The first phase of abstinence from cocaine dependency usually lasts from 9 hours to
Select one:
a. 12 hours
b. 1 day
c. 3 days
d. 4 days

A

4 days

450
Q

Caffeine is classified as a type of
Select one:
a. amphetamine
b. theophylline
c. theobromine
d. xanthine

A

xanthine

451
Q

who referred to cocaine as the “third scourge of humanity?”
Select one:
a. Freud
b. Szasz
c. Reagan
d. Bush

A

freud

452
Q

Approximately what percentage of full-time college students use Adderall for nonmedical purposes?
Select one:
a. 6%
b. 8%
c. 10%
d. 12%

A

6%

453
Q

Ritalin is the most prescribed drug for
Select one:
a. depression
b. opiate detoxification
c. ADHD
d. smoking cessation

A

ADHD

454
Q

Methamphetamines are popularly known as
Select one:
a. speed
b. amphet
c. ice
d. crank

A

speed

455
Q

Vin Mariani was a
Select one:
a. Columbian dictator who promoted the cocaine trade
b. chewable form of cocaine
c. Bordeaux wine with cocaine added
d. city in Peru where coca leaves grow in abundance

A

bordeaux wine with cocaine added

456
Q

Theobromine is found in higher concentrations in
Select one:
a. coffee
b. chocolate
c. tea
d. cocaine

A

chocolate

457
Q

The world’s most frequently consumed stimulant is
Select one:
a. theophylline
b. theobromine
c. Ritalin
d. caffeine

A

caffeine

458
Q

The second phase of abstinence from cocaine dependency can last up to
Select one:
a. 1 week
b. 5 weeks
c. 10 weeks
d. 20 weeks

A

10 weeks

459
Q

When amphetamines were first developed, they were used primarily to treat
Select one:
a. asthma
b. depression
c. alcohol addiction
d. heroin addiction

A

asthma

460
Q

Approximately ______of coffee users experience withdrawal symptoms when they discontinue use.
Select one:
a. 25%
b. 33%
c. 50%
d. 75%

A

25%

461
Q

Which of the following was partly responsible for the rise of cocaine use in the 1970s?
Select one:
a. The popularity of crack
b. The decline in the popularity of amphetamines
c. The decline in the popularity of heroin
d. The discovery of more coca bushes

A

the decline in the popularity of amphetamines

462
Q

Dependency on caffeine is called
Select one:
a. caffeinism
b. caffeine abuse
c. xanthine dependence
d. caffeine consumption deficit

A

caffeinism

463
Q

A controversial drug given to cocaine addicts in treatment is
Select one:
a. Valium
b. methadone
c. ibogaine
d. ibuprofen

A

ibogaine

464
Q

“Ice” is also called
Select one:
a. Bital
b. crystal meth
c. Ritalin
d. all of the above

A

crystal meth

465
Q

FDA guidelines suggest that a safe level of caffeine in beverages is how many milligrams per 12 ounces?
Select one:
a. 62 mg
b. 72 mg
c. 82 mg
d. 92 mg

A

72 mg

466
Q

Per capita, Ritalin use in France and Italy is what fraction of the use in the United States?
Select one:
a. 1/10
b. 1/20
c. 1/30
d. 1/40

A

1/20

467
Q

Extreme caffeine intake is associated with
Select one:
a. hyperglycemia
b. hypoglycemia
c. type 1 diabetes
d. type 2 diabetes

A

hypoglycemia

468
Q

A speedball is a mixture of cocaine and
Select one:
a. heroin
b. amphetamines
c. crack
d. alcohol

A

heroin

469
Q

The term used to describe when cocaine is treated with an alkaloid to separate it from its hydrochloride salt is
Select one:
a. coca paste
b. coca elixir
c. freebase
d. transdermal

A

freebase

470
Q

Free-basing cocaine started in the
Select one:
a. mid 1940s
b. mid 1950s
c. mid 1960s
d. mid 1970s

A

mid 1960s

471
Q

Charas is the name used in India for
Select one:
a. marijuana
b. hash oil
c. hashish
d. THC

A

hashish

472
Q

Which of the following carcinogens is 70% greater in marijuana smoke than cigarette smoke?
Select one:
a. Tar
b. Benzene
c. Benzopyrene
d. Nitrates

A

benzopyrene

473
Q

the lethal dose of marijuana
Select one:
a. is smoking five joints within one hour
b. is smoking seven joints within one hour
c. is smoking nine joints within one hour
d. has not been established

A

has not been established

474
Q

Amotivational syndrome is more likely to develop among
Select one:
a. children
b. adolescents
c. young adults
d. middle-aged adults

A

adolescents

475
Q

Inability to concentrate and lacking ambition describes
Select one:
a. cerebral aneurysm
b. impairment of long-term memory
c. impairment of short-term memory
d. amotivational syndrome

A

a motivational syndrome

476
Q

A ________ is a type of cigar in which some tobacco is removed and replaced with marijuana.
Select one:
a. ghanta
b. bhang
c. Thai stick
d. blunt

A

blunt

477
Q

Evidence of reverse tolerance in marijuana users
Select one:
a. is highly correlational
b. does not exist
c. is low
d. is well documented

A

does not exist

478
Q

What type of marijuana is derived from the unfertilized cannabis plant?
Select one:
a. Ganja
b. Bhang
c. Sinsemilla
d. Charas

A

sinsemilla

479
Q

What percentage range is there of THC in the marijuana smoked typically in the United States?
Select one:
a. < 1%
b. 2-5%
c. 7-9%
d. > 10%

A

2-5%

480
Q

A prescription form of THC is called
Select one:
a. Prozac
b. Ativan
c. Marinol
d. Xanax

A

marinol

481
Q

One major criteria to determine motivation is
Select one:
a. length of the school day
b. attitude toward teachers
c. length of classes
d. grade point average

A

grade point average

482
Q

Marijuana was used in WWII for
Select one:
a. chemical warfare
b. hemp
c. fighting malaria
d. inducing sleep among nervous recruits

A

hemp

483
Q

Which form of cannabis is mainly found in Northern Europe and parts of Asia?
Select one:
a. Ruderalis
b. Sativa
c. Indica
d. Sinsemilla

A

ruderalis

484
Q

Chemicals unique to cannabis are called
Select one:
a. cannabinoids
b. toxoids
c. THC metabolites
d. THC catalysts

A

cannabinoids

485
Q

What marijuana product is made by separating resin from the plant by boiling the plant products in alcohol?
Select one:
a. Hashish
b. Hash oil
c. Marinol
d. THC resin

A

hash oil

486
Q

Which organization promotes legalization of marijuana?
Select one:
a. THCO
b. NORML
c. ATHCA
d. AMA

A

NORML

487
Q

Marijuana _____ heart rate.
Select one:
a. decreases
b. increases
c. has no effect on
d. has a synergistic effect on

A

increased

488
Q

Hash oil THC content has been found to exceed as much as
Select one:
a. 30% THC
b. 40% THC
c. 50% THC
d. 60% THC

A

60% THC

489
Q

The most intensive or peak effect of marijuana is felt in about
Select one:
a. 10 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 40 minutes

A

30 minutes

490
Q

If dependency to THC develops, it is more likely to be motivated by
Select one:
a. physical dependence
b. behavioral tolerance
c. psychosocial factors
d. reverse tolerance

A

psychosocial factors

491
Q

If marijuana is ingested, the effects of the THC
Select one:
a. last a shorter amount of time
b. last a longer amount of time
c. is not affected
d. is the same as smoking marijuana

A

last a longer amount of time

492
Q

Marijuana ____ testosterone levels.
Select one:
a. decreases
b. increases
c. has no effect on
d. has a synergistic effect on

A

decreases

493
Q

Which form of cannabis is used to make rope?
Select one:
a. Indica
b. Ruderalis
c. Sativa
d. Sinsemilla

A

sativa

494
Q

The lower leaves, stem, and seeds of the cannabis plant of poor quality are termed
Select one:
a. ganja
b. hashish
c. sinsemilla
d. bhang

A

bhang

495
Q

The psychoactive agent in marijuana is
Select one:
a. psilocybin
b. paraquat
c. carbon monoxide
d. THC

A

THC