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CET 123 > Final Study > Flashcards

Final Study Flashcards

1
Q 
What is the most common central device used today to connect computers to a network?
A. Hub
B. Switch
C. SOHO router
D. VPN Router
A

B: Switch

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2
Q 
What is the most common adapter or connector used to connect a computer to a wired network?
A. RG6
B. RG58
C. RJ45
D. RJ8
A

D. RJ8

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3
Q 
Which of the following does a switch use for increased performance?
A. Simplex
B. Half duplex
C. Full duplex
D. Sliding duplex
A

C. Full duplex

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4
Q 
What do you use to isolate a group of computers within your organization?
A. WLAN
B. WAN
C. VLAN
D. Internet
A

C. VLAN

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5
Q 
What do you use to create VLANs?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Proxy server
A

B. Switch

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6
Q 
What zone is used to publish external websites for an organization?
A. Intranet
B. exanet
C. Internetwork
D. DMZ
A

D. DMZ

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7
Q 
Which topology is the most redundant and the most expensive?
A. Star
B. Ring
C. Mesh
D. Bus
A

C. Mesh

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8
Q 
What standard describes CSMA/CD?
A. 801.2
B. 802.3
C. 802.5
D. 802.11
A

B: 802.3

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9
Q 
What mechanism do wireless networks use to access the network?
A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. token passing
D. polling
A

B: CSMA/CA

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10
Q 
What model promises the most processing power?
A. Centralized computing
B. Distributive computing
C. Switching computing
D. Dumb computing
A

B. Distributive Computing

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11
Q 
Which model uses a central database for authentication?
A. Peer-to-peer
B. Workgroup
C. client/server
D. distributive
A

C. Client/server

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12
Q 
What type of server does Active Director run on?
A. File server
B. print server
C. database server
D. network controller
A

D: network controller

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13
Q 
Which model has each host have their own security database?
A. peer-to-peer
B. client/server
C. distributive
D. sliding
A

A. peer-to-peer

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14
Q 
What type of communication is sent to a single designated host?
A. Unicast
B. Broadcast
C. Multicast
D. Anycast
A

A. Unicast

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15
Q 
What is used to uniquely identify a host on a TCP/IP network?
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. bit pattern
D. Router name
A

A: IP address

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16
Q 
A [blank] is a single computer or device that connects to a TCP/IP network.
A. Host
B. Node
C. Access Point
D. Laptop
A

AB: Host/Node

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17
Q 
What is the central device used in wireless LANs?
A. Wireless Access Point
B. CSA/CDM Connector
C. Wireless Switch
D. MDU
A

A: Wireless Access Point

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18
Q 
What command do you use to test the TCP/IP stack on a computer?
A. Ping localhost
B. Ping 127.0.0.1
C. Ping loopback
D ipconfig /renew
A

ABC: Ping localhost, ping 127.0.0.1, ping loopback

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19
Q 
You need to divide a network into three subnets. Which device should you use?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Segmenter
D. Bridge
A

A. Router

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20
Q

Connecting to a private Network address from a public network requires:
A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
B. Network Access Protection (NAP)
C. Dynamic domain name system (DDNS)
D. Network address translation (NAT)

A

D: Network address translation (NAT)

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21
Q 
What model is used to describe how data communication occurs between hosts?
A. Server-centric model
B. workgroup model
C. peer-to-peer model
D. OSI reference model
A

D. OSI reference model

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22
Q 
Which layer in the OSI model do MAC addresses and switches use?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
A

B. Data Link

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23
Q 
Which layer in the OSI model covers routing between networks?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
A

C. Network

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24
Q 
Which layer in the OSI model is used to verify that data was delivered without error?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
A

C. Network

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25
Q 
Which layer in the OSI model covers HTTP, FTP, and RDC?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Presentation
A

C: Application

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26
Q 
Which layer of the OSI model is used to create a connection so that a host can transfer files?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Presentation
A

B: Session

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27
Q 
Which layer of the OSI model includes VLANs?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
A

B: Data link

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28
Q 
Which protocol do you use as the transport protocol for a video application?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. FTP
D. RDC
A

B: UDP

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29
Q 
Which port categories include inbound ports of HTTP, HTTPS, FTP and DNS?
A. well-known ports
B. registered ports
C. dynamic ports
D. private ports
A

A. Well-known ports

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30
Q 
What layer in the OSI model is responsible for logging on and off?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Presentation
A

B: Session

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31
Q 
What layer in the OSI model is used to encrypt data?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Presentation
A

D: Presentation

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32
Q 
Which layer in the OSI model includes the cable and network adapters?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Presentation
A

A: Physical

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33
Q 
How many layers does the TCP/IP model have?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
A

B. 4

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34
Q 
Which layer in the OSI model is included in the TCP/IP model?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Transport
D. Application
A

C. Transport

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35
Q 
Which protocol is used to translate IP addresses to MAC addresses?
A. RARP
B. ARP
C. DNS
D. WINS
A

B: ARP

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36
Q 
What ports are defined above 49, 152?
A. Well-known ports
B. registered ports
C. dynamic ports
D. sliding ports
A

C. Dynamic ports

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37
Q 
A layer 3 switch is similar to a [blank].
A. Router
B. Repeater
C. Hub
D. Patch Panel
A

A. Router

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38
Q 
TCP/IP and IPX/SPX are known as [blank] stacks.
A. Protocols
B. Services
C. Layers
D. Lenses
A

A: Protocols

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39
Q 
What is the advantage of UDP over TCP?
A. Less Overhead - Faster performance
B. Older - larger pool of compatible hardware
C. TCP is not IPv6 compatible UDP is
D. UDP can operate at Layer 1
A

A: Less Overhead - Faster Performance

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40
Q

What are the seven layers found in the OSI model, in order?
A. Physical -Data Link - Network - Transport - Session - Presentation - Application
B. Physical - Data Link - Network - Transport - Session - Application - Presentation
C. Physical - Data Link - Transport - Network - Session - Application - Presentation
D. Physical - Data Link - Transport - Session - Network - Presentation - Application

A

A: Physical - Data Link - Network - Transport - Session - Presentation - Application

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41
Q 
What is the maximum speed supported by 802.11b?
A. 1Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 11 Mbps
D. 54 Mbps
A

C: 11 Mbps

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42
Q

One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:
A. Reduce the number of broadcast domains.
B. Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
C. Increase the number of available IP addresses
D. Reduce the number of nodes in broadcast domain.

A

D. Reduce the number of nodes in broadcast domain.

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43
Q 
What is the minimum cabling requirement for a 100BaseTx network?
A. Category 3 UTP cable
B. Category 5 UTP cable
C. Category 6 UTP cable
D. Multimode fiber cable
A

B. Category 5 UTP cable

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44
Q 
A router's static route is set by the:
A. Next upstream router
B. Routing protocol
C. Adjacent network
D. Network administrator
A

D. Network administrator

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45
Q 
What type of record does DNS use to find a mail service?
A. Host (A) DNS record
B. Canonical (CNAME) DNS record
C. Service (SRV) DNS record
D. Mail Exchanger (MX) DNS record
A

D: Mail Exchanger (MX) DNS record

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46
Q 
How many bits are there in an Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
A

C. 128

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47
Q 
In which OSI layer does routing occur?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Transport
A

B. Network

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48
Q

The query protocol used to locate resources on a network is:
A. Tracert
B. Telnet
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

A

C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

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49
Q 
What is the most common cable used today?
A. UTP
B. STP
C. Coaxial
D. Fiber
A

A: UTP

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50
Q 
If you are making a crossover cable and one end is 568A, what should the other end be?
A. 568A
B. 568B
C. 568C
D. BOGB
A

B: 568B

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51
Q 
If you want to connect a computer directly to another computer without using a switch, you use a [blank].
A. straight-through cable
B. crossover cable
C. laplink cable
D. rollover cable
A

B. Crossover cable

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52
Q 
You need to connect a twisted-pair cable to the back of a patch panel. What tool should you use?
A. punch-down tool
B. zip tool
C. wire wedge
D. soldering iron
A

A. punch-down tool

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53
Q 
What is the minimum category of twisted-pair cable you need to support 100 Mbps?
A. Category 3
B. Category 5
C. Category 5e
D. Category 6
A

B: Category 5

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54
Q 
When you pick up your wireless phone, your computer drops network connectivity. What could be the cause of the problem?
A. EMI
B. RFI
C. Network Adapter failure
D. Cable failure
A

B: RFI

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55
Q 
You are setting up a network within a warehouse using Category 6 UTP. However, parts of the network are down because of the heavy machinery used. What cable type should you use?
A. STP
B. coaxial
C. fiber
D. plenum-rated
A

C: fiber

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56
Q 
What do you call it when electrical signals jump to another set of wires?
A. EMI
B. RFI
C. crosstalk
D. jump it is
A

C. Crosstalk

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57
Q 
What type of cable should be used as part of a fire code for a building?
A. STP
B. PVC
C. Heat protected
D. plenum-rated
A

D: plenum-rated

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58
Q 
Which of the following is not a fiber connector?
A. FC
B. LC
C. RJ-45
D. MI-RJ
A

C: RJ-45

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59
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber?
A. single-mode fiber supports longer distances than multimode fiber.
B. Single-mode fiber has increased bandwidth than multimode fiber
C. Single-mode supports only a ring topology.
D. Single mode allows multiplexing of electrical and light signals

A

A. Single-mode fiber supports longer distances than multimode fiber.

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60
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber?
A. single-mode fiber supports longer distances than multimode fiber.
B. Single-mode fiber has increased bandwidth than multimode fiber
C. Single-mode supports only a ring topology.
D. Single mode allows multiplexing of electrical and light signals

A

A. Single-mode fiber supports longer distances than multimode fiber.

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61
Q 
What is the maximum speed supported by 802.11g?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 11 Mbps
D. 54 Mbps
A

D: 54 Mbps

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62
Q 
What of the following is not a characteristic of 802.11n?
A. frame aggregation
B. channel bonding
C. RFI protection
D. MIMO
A

C: RFI protection

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63
Q 
Which is the most secure encryption used in wireless networks?
A. WEP
B. WPA
C. WPA2
D. 802.1x
A

C: WPA2

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64
Q 
What is used to identify a wireless network?
A. network ID
B. frequency identifier
C. wireless password
D. SSID
A

D. SSID

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65
Q 
To test a cable, you would use a [blank].
A. Continuity tester
B. Patch tester
C. loopback plug
D. Tone & Probe
A

A. Continuity tester

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66
Q 
For organizations, using [blank] authentication for wireless networks is recommended.
A. 802.1d
B. 802.1x
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11x
A

B. 802.1x

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67
Q 
When a signal degrades as it runs though a wire, you have [blank].
A. Degradation
B. Attenuation
C. cross over
D. resistance
A

A. Degradation

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68
Q 
What mode uses a wireless access point?
A. Infrastructure Mode
B. Ad Hop mode
C. Bridge Mode
D. Forward Tunneling Mode
A

A. Infrastructure mode

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69
Q 
What command do you use to connect to a FTP server to download a file?
A. nslookup
B. ssh
C. telnet
D. ftp
A

D. ftp

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70
Q 
Which of the following is a public IP address?
A. 10.156.89.1
B. 68.24.78.221
C. 172.16.152.48
D. 192.168.25.101
A

B. 172.16.152.48

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71
Q 
What is the default subnet mask for a Class B network?
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255
A

B. 255.255.0.0

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72
Q 
You have a host with the address of 180.24.45.120. To what class would this address be assigned?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
A

B. Class B

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73
Q 
For IPv4, what class is used for multicasting?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
A

D. Class D

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74
Q 
What is the maximum number of hosts you can use for each subnet that belongs to a class C address?
A. 128
B. 254
C. 256
D. 65,534
A

B. 254

75
Q 
What type of address is 202.23.2.255?
A. Multicast address
B. Broadcast address
C. Unicast Address
D. anycast address
A

B. Broadcast address

76
Q 
What type of address is used to send a single set of packets to multiple hosts?
A. multicast address
B. Broadcast address
C. unicast address
D. anycast address
A

A. Multicast address

77
Q 
Which of the following is not a private address?
A. 10.4.24.24
B. 172.16.36.45
C. 192.168.34.3
D. 200.23.34.120
A

D. 200.23.34.120

78
Q 
What type of address is 169.254.32.23?
A. APIPA
B. multicast address
C. anycast address
D. broadcast address
A

A. APIPA

79
Q

You have a computer that cannot connect to a server. When you look at the IP configuration, the host has an address of 169.32.54.2. What is the problem?
A. The host cannot find a DHCP server.
B. The host is set to multicast
C. The host is currently broadcasting
D. The host cannot find a domain controller

A

A: The host cannot find a DHCP server.

80
Q 
What defines the nearest router for a host?
A. Subnet mask
B. Default gateway
C. DNS server
D. WINS server
A

B. Default gateway

81
Q 
What server is used to translate host names to IP addresses?
A. DNS
B. WINS
C. HOSTS
D. DHCP
A

A. DNS

82
Q 
What is used to remap private addresses to public addresses and back?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. NAT
A

D. NAT

83
Q 
What do you call a smaller network that is part of a larger network?
A. Host
B. broadcast domain
C. cluster
D. subnet
A

D. subnet

84
Q 
You have a subnet mask of 255.255.230.0. What would the CIDR notation be?
A. /16
B. /20
C. /24
D. /28
A

B. /20

85
Q 
How many bits is in an IPv6 address?
A. 32
B. 48
C. 64
D. 128
A

D. 128

86
Q 
What type of address is 2001:4212:0000:34DB:0000:0000:0000:4231?
A. MAC address
B. IPv4
C. IPv6
D. anycast address
A

C. IPv6

87
Q 
A [blank] address is assigned by a DHCP server.
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Private Only
D. Public Only
A

B. Dynamic

88
Q 
What is the loopback IP address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. loopback
C. 255.255.255.1
D. 0.0.0.0
A

AB: 127.0.0.1/loopback

89
Q 
What IPv6 address incorporates IPv4?
A. starting ::ffff:
B. starting 0:0::ffff:
C. ending ::ffff
D. Ending 0:0::ffff
A

A. Staring ::ffff:

90
Q

The protocol maps IP addresses to a Media Access Control (MAC) address is:
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
E. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

A

B: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

91
Q 
A service that resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses is:
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Domain Name Service (DNS)
C. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)
D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
A

C: Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)

92
Q 
What command displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway of the system you are currently on?
A. ipconfig
B. ping
C. tracert
D. nslookup
A

A: ipconfig

93
Q 
What protocol does the ping command use to test network connectivity?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. ICMP
D. FTP
A

C: ICMP

94
Q 
What command do you use to clear the DNS cache on the local system?
A. ipconfig /registerdns
B. ipconfig /cleardns
C. ipconfig /flushdns
D. ipconfig /releasedns
A

C: ipconfig /flushdns

95
Q 
What command do you use to test a system's IPv4 protocol stack?
A. ping 127.0.0.1
B. ping self
C. ping 255.255.255.255
D. ping default gateway
A

A. ping 127.0.0.1

96
Q 
What command do you use to display active TCP or UDP connections?
A. nbtstat
B. netstat
C. ipconfig
D. nslookup
A

B. netstat

97
Q 
What command is used to display NetBIOS over TCP/IP statistics?
A. nbstat
B. netstat
C. ipconfig
D. nslookup
A

B: netstat

98
Q 
What command clears the NetBIOS name cache table?
A. nbstat -r
B. nbstat -R
C. nbstat -RR
D. nbstat -s
A

B. nbstat -R

99
Q 
What command tests network connectivity while showing you each hop along the way?
A. ping
B. nslookup
C. nbstat
D. tracert
A

D. tracert

100
Q 
What command tests network connectivity while showing you each hop along the way and the degree of packet loss?
A. ping
B. pathping
C. nbstat
D. tracert
A

B. pathping

101
Q 
The service that resolves fully qualifies domain name (FQDN) to IP addresses is:
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Domain Name Service (DNS)
C. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
D. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)
A

B. Domain Name Service (DNS)

102
Q 
What command do you use to connect to a remote computer so that you can execute commands?
A. ftp
B. nslookup
C. telnet
D. nbstat
A

C. telnet

103
Q 
What command can you use to connect to a mail server so that you can test SMTP?
A. ftp
B. nslookup
C. telnet
D. nbstat
A

C. telnet

104
Q 
What command do you use to display and modify the network configuration of a local computer?
A. netsh
B. netstat
C. telnet
D. nbstat
A

A. netsh

105
Q 
What command is used to add static routes to a Windows computer?
A. nslookup
B. telnet
C. route
D. nbstat
A

C. route

106
Q 
What command do you use to display the routing table on a local system?
A. route display
B. route table
C. route local
D. route print
A

D. route print

107
Q 
What command do you use to display the MAC address on a system?
A. ipconfig /all
B. pathping -m
C. route /showmac
D. nbstat -r
A

A. ipconfig /all

108
Q 
What command do you use to retrieve or update your DHCP assigned configuration?
A. ipconfig /flushdns
B. ipconfig /all
C. ipconfig /release
D. ipconfig /renew
A

C. ipconfig /release

109
Q 
What command do you use to register the computer's name and IP address with the nearest DNS server?
A. ipconfig /renew
B. ipconfig /renew all
C. ipconfig /flushdns
D. ipconfig /registerdns
A

D. ipconfig /registerdns

110
Q 
What command displays Ethernet statistics?
A. netstat -e
B. netstat -x
C. netstat -q
D. netstat -t
A

A. netstat -e

111
Q 
What option do you use to ping constantly until you stop it?
A. ping -t 
B. ping -q 
C. ping -r 
D. ping -s
A

A. ping -t

112
Q 
What protocol is used with l2TP to encrypt data?
A. IPSec
B. MS-CHAP
C. MS-CHAPV2
D. MPPE
A

A. IPSec

113
Q

The default gateway address identifies the:
A. Server that will provide name services for the computer
B. Device that will connect the computer to a remote network.
C. Device that will connect the computer to the local network
D. Server that will authenticate the user of the computer.

A

B. Device that will connect the computer to a remote network.

114
Q 
What protocol automatically configures IP configuration for a client?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. WINS
D. FTP
A

B. DHCP

115
Q 
Which of these ports does DHCP use?
A. 80
B. 67
C. 23
D. 500
A

B. 67

116
Q 
After you install DHCP servers and configure and activate a scope, what is the last step in installing a DHCP server?
A. register the scope
B. Register the server
C. Authorize the server
D. Register the clients
A

C. Authorize the server

117
Q

You have a computer with an address of 169.254.32.23 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, yet you cannot connect to your local file servers. What is most likely the problem?
A. It cannot communicate with the DHCP server.
B. The DNS servers specified are incorrect or are down.
C. NetBIOS over TCP/IP has not been enabled.
D. The network card is not connected properly to the network.

A

A. It cannot communicate with a DHCP server.

118
Q 
What name does Windows Server 2008 R2 use for Terminal Services?
A. MS Telnet Server
B. MS Primary Services
C. MS Thin Server
D. Remote Desktop Services
A

D. Remote Desktop Services

119
Q 
What port does Remote Desktop Services use?
A. 443
B. 501
C. 389
D. 3389
A

D. 3389

120
Q 
What would you use to crate VPN tunnels so that users can connect to your internal network while at home using Windows Server 2008 R2?
A. Microsoft RAS
B. Microsoft RRAS
C. Microsoft RDC
D. Microsoft VPN Server
A

B. Microsoft RRAS

121
Q

A user reports that she cannot connect to network resources from a computer on the company network. The user was able to connect to the network resources yesterday. You verify that the user’s computer is properly physically connected to the network. You discover that the computer’s IP address is 169.254.48.97. You need to restore access to the network. What should you do next?
A. Verify that the DHCP service is available.
B. reset the user’s password on the server.
C. Flush the cache on the DNS server.
D. Check your router’s current routing tables.

A

A. Verify that the DHCP service is available.

122
Q 
Which component of IPSec generates the encryption and authentication keys?
A. SA
B. AH
C. ESP
D. MPPE
A

A. SA

123
Q 
Which IPSec component provides connectionless integrity and data authentication but does not provide confidentiality?
A. SA
B. AH
C. ESP
D. MPPS
A

B. AH

124
Q 
Which IPsec component includes the most security, including confidentiality?
A. SA
B. AH
C. ESP
D. MPPE
A

C. ESP

125
Q 
What port does DNS use?
A. 443
B. 389
C. 51
D. 53
A

D. 53

126
Q 
What service on a Windows network is used to translate between NetBIOS names/computer names and IP addresses?
A. DNS
B. WINS
C. DHCP
D. LDAP
A

B. WINS

127
Q 
What feature within Windows allows the server to act as a router?
A. IPsec
B. DHCP
C. IP forwarding
D. RDC
A

C. IP forwarding

128
Q 
You use the [blank] to connect to a terminal server.
A. Remote Desktop Connection (RDC)
B. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
C. Remote Session Call (RSC)
D. Remote NetBios Connect (RNC)
A

A: Remote Desktop Connection (RDC)

129
Q 
What provides name resolution between domain names and IP addresses?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. ARP
D. RPC
A

B. DNS

130
Q 
What allows a user to connect to a corporate network using the internet?
A. VPN
B. VPC
C. PPTN
D. IPSec
A

A. VPN

131
Q 
What command do you use to release the IP configuration handed out by the DHCP server?
A. ipconfig /renew
B. ipconfig /releasedns
C. ipconfig /savestatic
D. ipconfig /release
A

D. ipconfig /release

132
Q 
What command do you use to reacquire IP configuration from a DHCP server?
A. ipconfig /renew
B. ipconfig /releasedns
C. ipconfig /savestatic
D. ipconfig /release
A

A. ipconfig /renew

133
Q

List the four steps for a client to get an IP address from a DHCP server in the correct order.
A. Discover Offering Request Acknowledge
B. Request Offering Discovery Acknowledge
C. Discovery Request Offering Acknowledge
D. Request Offering Discovery Acknowledge

A

A. Discover Offering Request Acknowledge

134
Q 
What is the primary disadvantage of X.25?
A. digital circuit
B. small data payloads
C. circuit switching
D. slow speeds
A

D. slow speeds

135
Q 
What routing protocol is the most popular distance-vector routing algorithm used to determine the best routes within a network?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. IGMP
A

A. RIP

136
Q 
What routing protocol is the most popular link-state protocol used within a large organization?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. IGMP
A

B. OSPF

137
Q 
What technology takes data and breaks them into packets and sends them over a network, sometimes using different routes for each packet?
A. Circuit switching
B. connection switching
c. packet switching
d. network switching
A

C. packet switching

138
Q 
X.25 and Frame Relay are examples of what type of WAN technology?
A. circuit switching
B. connection switching
C. packet switching
D. network switching
A

C. packet switching

139
Q 
What device acts as a high-speed modem for a LAN?
A. analog modem
B. telco incoming router
C. packet switcher
D. CSU/DSU
A

D. CSU/DSU

140
Q 
What does X.25 use as its DTE device?
A. telco incoming router
B. packet switcher
C. analog modem
D. PAD
A

D. PAD

141
Q 
What part of the network is the point where the responsibility of the administrator ends and the telecommunications provider's responsibility begins?
A. last mile
B. demarc
C. router array
D. PAD interface
A

D. PAD interface

142
Q 
Which of these is a multicast address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D.224.0.0.1
A

D. 224.0.0.1

143
Q 
When a packet traverses a network, each router is a [blank].
A. jump point
B. CSU/DSU
C. jump switch
D. hop
A

D. Hop

144
Q 
When you have multiple circuits connected to a site, the entire circuit is known as a [blank].
A. Virtual circuit
B. emulated circuit
C. joined circuit
D. multitasked circuit
A

A. Virtual circuit

145
Q 
What replaced X.25?
A. Frame Relay
B. ATM
C. ISDN BRI
D. DSL
A

A. Frame Relay

146
Q 
At what speed does a T3 line run?
A. 1.5 Mbps
B. 4.5 Mbps
C. 44.7 Mbps
D. 128 Mbps
A

C. 44.7 Mbps

147
Q 
In Europe, what circuit would be similar to the T1 found in the United States?
A. E1
B. J1
C. T2
D. F1
A

A. E1

148
Q 
How many B channels does an ISDN PRI support?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 23
D. 48
A

C. 23

149
Q 
What speed does FDDI use?
A. 10 Mbps
B. 44 Mbps
C. 54 Mbps
D. 100 Mbps
A

D. 100 Mbps

150
Q 
What topology does FDDI use?
A. bus
B. star
C. ring
D. mesh
A

C. ring

151
Q 
What technology uses wires from the telephone company to provide broadband internet connection?
A. cable
B. DSL
C. FDDI
D. Frame Relay
A

B. DSL

152
Q 
[blank] is used to send packets from one network to another network.
A. Routing
B. Transport
C. BGP
D. Encapsulation
A

A. Routing

153
Q 
[blank] is a route that must be manually defined on each router.
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Persistent
D. Global
A

A. Static

154
Q 
[blank] uses a clocking circuit to control the timing of communications between two WAN devices such as routers.
A. Static Route
B. Dynamic Route
C. PPTP Route
D. Point To Point
A

A. Static Route

155
Q 
A [blank] is the guaranteed certain amount of information provided by a circuit or line.
A. Committed Information Route
B. Pivotal Information Route
C. Next Hop Policy Route
D. Frame x Frame Route
A

A. Committed Information Route

156
Q 
What speed does a T1 run at?
A. 1.544 Mbps
2. 2.889 Mbps
C. 3.101 Gbps
D. 2.54 MBps
A

A. 1.544 Mbps

157
Q 
Ho fast is a DS0 circuit?
A. 32 Kbps
B. 64 Kbps
C. 128 Kbps
D. 1024 Kbps
A

B. 64 Kbps

158
Q 
What protocol is used with L2TP to provide encryption?
A. IPSec
B. MPPE
C. HTTPS
D. MSC-CHAP
A

A. IPSec

159
Q 
The [blank] is the largest WAN in the world.
A. Internet
B. Intranet
C. WWW
D. MSDN
A

A. Internet

160
Q 
What type of network can you set up that is another company's internal network?
A. Intranet
B. Extranet
C. Extranet
D. DMZ
A

B. extranet

161
Q 
What technology can you use temporarily to connect networks from two different companies?
A. VPN
B. HTTP
C. DHCP
D. passive router
A

A. VPN

162
Q 
Which VPN technology is the most common and the easiest to set up?
A. PPTP
B. L2TP with IPSec
C. SSTP
D. CHAP
A

A. PPTP

163
Q 
What port does L2TP use?
A. 501
B. 1723
C. 1701
D. 443
A

B. 1723

164
Q 
Which type of firewall blocks packets based on rules that are based on IP addresses or ports?
A. packet filtering
B. stateful packet inspection
C. NAT filtering
D. Application-level gateway
A

A. packet filtering

165
Q 
What technology used in firewalls keeps track of conversations so that it knows what to allow back into a network?
A. stateless packet inspection
B. stateful packet inspection
C. NAT filtering
D. application-level gateway
A

B. stateful packet inspection

166
Q 
What acts as a middleman that translate between internal and external addresses and that caches previously accessed web pages so that it can provide those more quickly in the future?
A. NAT server
B. stateful packet inspector
C. proxy server
D. NIDS
A

C. proxy server

167
Q 
What type of device is used to detect malicious network activities and reports only those issues to the administrator?
A. NIDS
B. NIPS
C. Internet content filter
D. NAT server
A

A. NIDS

168
Q 
What type of device is designed to inspect traffic, detect malicious activities, and take steps to mitigate the malicious activity?
A. NIDS
B. NIPS
C. Internet content filter
D. NAT server
A

B. NIPS

169
Q 
Which DMZ configuration uses one firewall with three interfaces?
A. back-to-back configuration
B. three-leg perimeter configuration
C. basic configuration
D. perimeter configuration
A

B. three-leg perimeter configuration

170
Q 
What stage is the World Wide Web in?
A. 1.0
B. 1.1
C. 2.0
D. 3.0
A

C. 2.0

171
Q 
Which of the following services masks internal IP addresses from the outside network?
A. DHCP
B. NAT
C. WINS
D. DNS
A

B. NAT

172
Q 
What type of firewall works on the Session layer that creates a connection and allows packets to flow between the two hosts without further checking?
A. proxy server
B. application firewall
C. NAT filtering
D. circuit-level gateway
A

D. circuit-level gateway

173
Q 
What type of firewall do you use to black access to certain websites or instant messengers?
A. Internet content filter
B. NIDS
C. circuit-level gateway
D. NAT filtering
A

A. Internet content filter

174
Q

When trying to protect your network, you should create your secure network based on [blank].
A. Multiple content filters
B. A master firewall that all traffic flows through
C. a NAT firewall and proxy server
D. layers

A

D. layers

175
Q

If a router is installed so that is separates DHCP server from its clients, the clients will:
A. immediately lose connectivity of all segments
B. Receive an immediate renew of their lease
C. Be unable to obtain their leases from the server
D. Immediately lose connectivity to the local segment

A

A. Immediately lose connectivity to all segments

176
Q 
An [blank] is the internal network for an organization.
A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. Intranet
D. WWW
A

A. Internet

177
Q 
What port does PPTP use?
A. 80
B. 8080
C. 1723
D. 433
A

C. 1723

178
Q 
What device is used to protect one network from another by using filtering packets?
A. Firewall
B. Point to Point Tunnel
C. VPN
D. Router
A

A. Firewall

179
Q 
What type of configuration creates a DMZ between two firewalls?
A. Gateway Network
B. Perimeter Network
C. DMZ
D. RADIAUS Server
A

BC: Perimeter Network/DMZ

180
Q 
Which type of port is used to support VLAN traffic between two switches?
A. LAN port
B. Trunk port
C. Virtual port
D. WAN port
A

B. Trunk port

181
Q

Tracert is used to:
A. report the shortest route between different networks
B. manage routing tables dynamically
C. manage session-oriented connections between nodes
D. report the route taken by packets across an IP network

A

D. Report the route taken by packets across an IP network

182
Q 
A node within a local area network (LAN) must have a network interface and a:
A. resource to share
B. host address
C. network account
D. table of all network nodes
A

B. host address

183
Q

One purpose of a perimeter network is to:
A. make resource available to the intranet
B. link campus area networks (CANs)
C. link local area networks (LANs)
D. make resources available to the Internet

A

D. make resources available to the Internet

CET 123 (1 decks)

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