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STEP 2 CK! > Final Round > Flashcards

Final Round Flashcards

Incorrect UWORLD Questions

1
Q

what is the treatment for legionnaires disease

A

levofloxacin (resp floroquinolone)

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2
Q

what are the only two immunologic disorders that are treated with stem cell transplant

A

Wiskott-Aldrich

SCID

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3
Q

what is the common lab finding in methemoglobulinemia

A 
normal PaO2 (arterial partial pressure of oxygen) 
-because this measures unbound oxygen

low pulse Ox

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4
Q

what is the meaning of methemoglobulinemia

A

one of the four oxygen binding sites is changed to ferric (Fe3) which cannot bind oxygen, so less oxygen is delivered to the tissues

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5
Q

a blue-green discoloration of blood and mucous surfaces is seen in

A

sulfahemoglobinemia

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6
Q

what is the antidote for cholinergic toxicity

A

pralidoxime

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7
Q

wat is the tx for ethelyene glycol or methingestion

A

fomepizole

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8
Q

treating hyponatremia too fast will cause

A

osmotic demyelination (don’t exceed more than .5/hr)

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9
Q

treating hypernatermia too fast will cause

A

cerebral edema

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10
Q

the development of AV block in a patient with endocarditis should make one think of

A

Perivalvular Abscess

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11
Q

myotonic dystrophy (myotonia) has what trinucelotide repeat

A

CTG

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12
Q
  • patient cannot release their grip after shaking a hand
  • muscle weakness in the face, forearms and hands
  • bilateral foot drop
  • adolescent
  • testicular atrophy
A

myotonia (myotonic dystrophy)

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13
Q

what is the first AB test you should always order for SLE

A

ANA

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14
Q

what antidepressant has been linked to causing HTN at high doses (>300)

A

Venlafaxine

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15
Q

trinucleotide repeat for friedrich ataxia

A

GAA

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16
Q

myotonic dystrophy is what kind of condition

A

autosomal dominant

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17
Q

duchenne and Becker are what kind of condition

A

x-linked recessive

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18
Q

patients with BAT who have signs of splenic injury who have a negative FAST should have what next step in management

A

CT

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19
Q

what are the two complications of giant cell arteritis

A

polymyalgia rheumatica and aorta aneurysm

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20
Q

what is the mechanism behind myopathy of proximal muscles seen in Cushings

A

Cortisol causes muscle atrophy which results in painless muscle weakness

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21
Q

patients on isoniazid can develop what

A

mild hepatic injury (severe hepatic injury should be require stopping INH)

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22
Q

what are the three steps to evaluate secondary amenorrhea

A
  1. bHCG
  2. LH/FSH (rule out hypothalamus)
  3. Prolactin Level (rule out pituitary)
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23
Q

describe what is seen in aromatase deficiency

A
  1. virilization of external genitalia (cliteromegaly)
  2. normal internal genitalia
  3. undetectable estrogen levels (no breast development)
  4. delayed puberty
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24
Q

neutropenia, splenomegaly, skin ulcers and RA in a woman in her 40’s

A

Felty Syndrome

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25
Q

tx for Felty syndrome

A

methotrexate (tx RA)

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26
Q

who should you avoid giving the copper IUD too

A

women who are anemic or who have heavy periods

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27
Q

what does a hazard ratio of <1 means

A

the treatment group had a lower event rate

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28
Q

hazard ratios of more than 1 mean

A

the treatment group had a higher event rate

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29
Q

two or more experimental interventions with two or more variables being measured independently is an example of what kind of design

A

factorial design

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30
Q

a study that assigns one treatment to one group and another treatment to another group (placebo) is an example of what kind of study

A

parallel study

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31
Q

what is a drug that causes acute dystonia that is not an antipsychotic

A

metoclopramide or prochlorperazine (treat nausea)

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32
Q

what patients are at the highest risk for reactive TB

A

HIV (immunosuppressed patients)

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33
Q

cryptococcal infections in HIV patients causes what sickness

A

meningitis

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34
Q

which patients have a lower risk of Sarcoidosis because of their immune dysfunction

A

HIV pts

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35
Q

what should be done for the initial evaluation for Addisons Disease

A

8 AM serum cortisol (LOW) and cosinotropyin stimulation test (stimualtes the production of ACTH)
- if ACTH rises then we know it is a primary adrenal problem

36
Q

what is the next step for a patient who most likely has a PE

A

IV heparin if there is no contraindication before doing any diagnostic testing

37
Q

what condition is associated with a resistance to protein C

A

Factor V Leyiden

38
Q

complication of preeclampsia that presents with sudden dyspnea, hypoxia and crackles

A

pulmonary edema (there is increased after load in preeclampsia and the heart tries to pump against this causing edema)

39
Q

what will the liver biopsy of a child with Reye Syndrome show

A

micro vesicular fatty infiltration

40
Q

when is it okay to give aspirin to a child

A

Kawasaki disease or Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

41
Q

when will you see macro vesicular fatty infiltrates on a liver bx

A

in alcoholic hepatitis and in nonalcoholic fattty liver disease

42
Q

when is sinusoidal congestion and hemorrhagic necrosis of the liver seen

A

in the setting of CHF

43
Q

what are the drugs used to tx tourettes

A

antidopaminergic drugs

  • antipsychotics
  • tetrabenzine (dopamine depleting agent)
44
Q

what is the treatment for bronchitis

A

symptomatic treatment because it is self limiting

45
Q

non-tender dilation of the GB in the presence of painless jaundice is associated with

A

pancreatic cancer (Courvoiser Sign)

46
Q

what does pancreatic cancer in the head of the pancreas cause because of compression on the bile ducts

A

intra and extrahepatic biliary tract dilation

47
Q

what is the most effective way to treating mild HTN in non-obese individuals

A

DASH diet

48
Q

blood transfusions before 1990 where not checked for

A

Hep C

49
Q

tx for entamoeba hystolytica

A

metronidazole (don’t drain the liver abscess)

50
Q

what is the most strong risk factor for acute cerebral infarction

A

HTN

51
Q

how does a glucagonoma present

A

weight loss
diarrhea
migratory necrolytic erythema (large painful inflammatory blisters)
and anemia

52
Q

glucagon levels >500

A

glucagonoma

53
Q

adenosine and carotid massage are used to treat

A

PSVT

54
Q

contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss and deviation of the eyes toward the side of the lesion in someone with uncontrolled HTN is

A

a putaminal hemorrhage (basal ganglia)

55
Q

contralateral paralysis of the arm, contralateral loss of position sense and deviation of the tongue to the side of the lesion is a

A

medial medullary syndrome (supplied by the vertebral arteries)

56
Q

pinpoint pupils, coma and total paralysis is seen in

A

bilateral hemorrhage of the pons

57
Q

what is the first diagnostic step for pancreatic cancer

A

abdominalUS (if this shows nothing then get a CT)

58
Q

for RUQ abdominal issues when should ERCP used

A

only after diagnosis with an abdominal US

59
Q

cholesterol emboli can cause?

A

livido reticular, acute kidney injury and pancreatitis

60
Q

what is the pathology behind Menieres disease

A

increased endolymphatic pressure

61
Q

loose calcium debris in the semicircular canal is seen in

A

BPPV

62
Q

irregular contractions and a closed cervix is

A

Braxton Hicks (false labor)

63
Q

if someone is positive for GBBS at 35 weeks what do you do

A

wait to give PNC during labor, if you give it before the chances of GBBS coming back is high

64
Q

ude of furosemide

A

bilateral hearing loss

65
Q

BP of 152/45 is?

A

a widened pulse pressure (AR)

66
Q

1st line tx for sciatica

A

NSAID or Acetominophen (usually spontaneous resolution occurs )

67
Q

What drugs cause SIADH

A

SSRI NSAID or carbamazepine

68
Q

how do you CONFIRM fibroadenoma

A

biopsy

69
Q

how do you initially diagnose fibroademona in a woman <30

A

US

70
Q

how do you measure cervical length in a woman who had a cold knife colonization

A

Transvaginal US

71
Q

recurrent pulmonary infections and cutaneous abscesses are seen in

A

chronic granulomatous disease (problem with oxidative bursts)

72
Q

how do you DX chronic granulomatous disease

A

neutrophile function testing

  • dihydrorhodamie testing
  • nitro blue tetrazolium testing
73
Q

cells with bacteria on gram stain is seen in

A

CGD

74
Q

low B cell count
sinopulmonary infections
GI infections

A

X Linked Agammaglobulinemia

75
Q

lytic bone lesion (punched out)

rash (eczematous) and signs of Diabetes Insipidus

A

Langerhanss Histocytosis

76
Q

sunburst pattern lesion in the metaphysis of the bone

A

osteosarcoma

77
Q

what is the first lien treatment for pseudo tumor cerebra

A

acetozolamide or furosemide

78
Q

tachycardia that resolves with cold water immersion is

A

PSVT

79
Q

what is the most common form of PSVT

A

atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia

80
Q

how does venlafaxine cause HTN at high doses

A

at high doses this drug also blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine which can increase systolic bP

81
Q

because neutrophils are abnormal and do not function well in CML what is low

A

leukocyte alkaline phosphate score

82
Q

myelocytes>metamyelocytes

A

CML

83
Q

metamyelocytes > myelocytes

A

leukemiod reaction

84
Q

treatment for tachycardia associated cardiomyopathy

A

rate and rhythm control, it is reversible

85
Q

the preferred HIV screening test detects what

A

p24 antigen and HIV antibodies

86
Q

what is the test to give to someone with high suspicion of HIV but negative antibody test

A

HIV RNA Testing

STEP 2 CK! (2 decks)

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