Final Revision Flashcards

1
Q

What is osteomas?

A

Benign slow-growing tumor composed of mature compact or cancellous bone

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2
Q

types of osteomas:

A

1 - periosteal
2 - endosteal
3 - extra-skeletal

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3
Q

SOS

In which syndrome we have multiple osteomas?

A

Gardner syndrome

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4
Q

Where are giant cell granulomas seen more frequently?

A

anterior portions of the jaws
and
mandibular lesions across the midline

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5
Q

types of giant cell granulomas:

A

1 - Non-aggressive lesions:
• Small, few or no symptoms, grow slowly, and do not cause cortical perforation or root resorption

2 - Aggressive lesions:
• Pain, rapid growth, cortical perforation, root resorption, tooth displacement, and/or paresthesia

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6
Q

SOS

Which lesions histologically have giant cells?

A
peripheral giant cell granuloma
giant cell tumor
cherubism
neurofibromatosis
brown tumors
aneurysmal bone cyst
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7
Q

SOS

most common primary malignancy of bone in children and adolescents:

A

Osteosarcoma

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8
Q

Osteosarcoma definition:

A

malignancy of mesenchymal cells that have the ability to produce osteoid or immature bone

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9
Q

Risk factors and pathogenesis of Osteosarcoma:

A
  1. Paget disease, fibrous dysplasia
  2. Inherited conditions
  3. Issues related to bone growth
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10
Q

Osteosarcoma Types:

A

central, surface, extra-skeletal(rare)

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11
Q

SOS

what is the most important radiographic characteristic of Osteosarcoma?

A

sunburst

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12
Q

histological types of osteosarcomas:

A

1 - Osteoblastic
2 - Chondroblastic
3 - Fibroblastic

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13
Q
  • SOS*
    2. Which one of the following does NOT contribute to histogenesis of Ameloblastoma?

(a) Developing dental papilla
(b) Developing dental organ
(c) Epithelial lining of odontogenic cyst
(d) Rests of dental lamina

A

(a) Developing dental papilla

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14
Q

Ameloblastomas - Histologically:

A
follicular
plexiform
desmoplastic
granular
acanthomatous
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15
Q

Most common type of Ameloblastoma:

2nd most common type of Ameloblastoma:

A

Most common type of Ameloblastoma:
conventional

2nd most common type of Ameloblastoma:
unicystic

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16
Q
  • SOS*
    6. Which amongst the following radiographic appearances is most likely to represent a conventional ameloblastoma?

(a) Ill-defined, radiolucency
(b) Well-defined unilocular radiopacity attached to root of tooth
(c) Well-defined, mixed radiopaque-radiolucent lesion in anterior maxilla
(d) “Soap bubble/Honeycomb” radiolucent defects with scalloped margins

A

(d) “Soap bubble/Honeycomb” radiolucent defects with scalloped margins

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17
Q

Unicystic ameloblastoma diagnosis:

A

asymptomatic swelling, posterior mandible

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18
Q
  1. Which amongst the following is NOT a histological subtype of unicystic ameloblastoma?

(a) Intramural
(b) Intraluminal
(c) Luminal
(d) Mural

A

(a) Intramural

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19
Q

Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor (AOT) diagnosis:

A

found in young females
associated with an unerupted tooth
ANTERIOR MAXILLA !!

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20
Q
  1. Which amongst the following odontogenic tumors is considered to be the least aggressive clinically?

(a) Conventional ameloblastoma
(b) Clear cell odontogenic carcinoma
(c) Ameloblastic fibrosarcoma
(d) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

A

(d) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

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21
Q

Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor histologically:

A

Liesegang ring calcifications - amyloid-like material

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22
Q

Ameloblastic Fibroma diagnosis:

A
benign neoplasm
rare
slow-growing
posterior mandible
asymptomatic
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23
Q
  1. The mesenchymal component of ameloblastic fibroma closely resembles:

(a) Dental organ
(b) Dental follicle
(c) Dental papilla
(d) Dental lamina

A

(c) Dental papilla

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24
Q
  1. The ectodermal component of ameloblastic fibroma characteristically proliferates in the form of:

(a) Sheets
(b) Ducts
(c) Large islands
(d) Long narrow anastomosing cords

A

(d) Long narrow anastomosing cords

25
Q
  1. Which is the most common odontogenic tumor?

(a) Ameloblastoma
(b) Unicystic Ameloblastoma
(c) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
(d) Odontoma

A

(d) Odontoma

26
Q
  1. Radiographic features of multiple teeth-like structures surrounded by a radiolucent zone are diagnostic of:

(a) Complex odontoma
(b) Odontoameloblastoma
(c) Odontogenic Myxoma
(d) Compound odontoma

A

(d) Compound odontoma

27
Q

SOS

Odontogenic Myxoma (OM) diagnosis:

A
  • Most commonly, it occurs in young adults
  • The mandible is involved more frequently
  • Is usually painless, displacement of teeth
  • it reaches considerable size before being detected, and perforation of the cortices of the involved bone may be seen
28
Q

SOS

MRONJs definition:

A

=medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw
=area of exposed bone in the maxillofacial region that did not heal within 8w after identification by a health care provider, in a patient who was receiving or had been exposed to a bisphosphonate and didn’t have radiation tx to the craniofacial region

29
Q

MRONJs stage 2:

A

exposed necrotic bone - bone that doesn’t bleed

30
Q

MRONJs treatment:

A
  • eliminate pain
  • control infection of the soft and hard tissue
  • stop/minimize the progression of disease
  • prescribe antibiotics and remove any mobile bony sequestra to facilitate soft tissue healing
  • extraction of symptomatic teeth
  • histologic analysis for all resected bone specimens
31
Q

SOS

Which of the lesions is categorized potentially malignant disorder?

(a) ameloblastoma
(b) frictional keratosis
(c) mucoedema
(d) leukoplakia

A
(d) leukoplakia
AND
Erythroplakia
Oral lichen planus
Actinic cheilitis
Palatal lesions of reverse cigar smoking
Oral submucous fibrosis
Discoid lupus erythematosus
Dyskeratosis congenita
Fanconi anemia
32
Q

Leukoplakia types:

A

• Homogeneous leukoplakia, a lesion of uniform flat appearance that may exhibit superficial irregularities, but with consistent texture throughout, generally well-demarcated
• Non-homogeneous leukoplakia, a predominantly white or white and red lesion (erythroleukoplakia)
with an irregular texture that may include ulceration and may be characterised by a speckled, nodular or verrucous topography. These lesions have a higher risk for malignant transformation

33
Q

Differential diagnosis of Leukoplakia:

A
candidiasis
frictional keratosis
hairy leukoplakia
fordyce granules
leukoderma
linea alba
nicotine stomatitis
chemical burn
white sponge nevus
34
Q

SOS

What is the next step when you find the clinical and differential diagnosis?

A

biopsy

35
Q

SOS !!!!!!!!!!!!

Differential diagnosis of Erythroplakia:

A
Erythematous candidiasis
Early SCC
Local irritation
Mucositis
Lichen planus
Lupus erythematosus
Autoimmune diseases
Drug reaction
36
Q

SOS !!!!!!!

What we will do with a patient having Erythroplakia?

(a) observe
(b) surgical intervention
(c) conservative treatment
(d) biopsy

A

(b) and (d)

37
Q

Oral cancer definition

A

is a malignant neoplasia, affecting any region of the oral cavity, pharyngeal regions and salivary glands

38
Q

most frequent of all oral neoplasms:

A

oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC)

39
Q

gold standard assessment for oral cancer:

A

biopsy and histopathological examination

40
Q

Oral squamous cell carcinoma - Clinical Features:

A
  • Exophytic
  • Endophytic
  • Leukoplakic
  • Erythroplakic
  • Erythroleukoplakic
41
Q

Oral squamous cell carcinoma locations:

A
  • Tongue
  • Floor of the mouth
  • Lips
  • Palate
  • Buccal Mucosa
  • Gingiva
42
Q

Tumor-Nodes-Metastasis (TNM) staging system:

A

describes the severity and prognosis of disease

43
Q

Staging:

A

tells us how to manage a patient the stage of the cancer

44
Q

What does stage 0 means?

A

tumor in situ, no lymph nodes, no metastasis

45
Q

SOS

What does stage III, T3 means?

A

tumor in t3, no lymph nodes, no metastasis

46
Q

What does stage IV means?

A

with any T, with any N, with or without metastasis

47
Q

What does stage III, T1,T2,T3 means?

A

with lymph nodes but not any metastasis

48
Q

Oral squamous cell carcinoma Tx:

  • For early stage oral cancers (stages 1 and 2):
  • For advanced stage oral cancers (stages 3 and 4):
A

early stage: surgery or radiation therapy

advanced stage: radio-/ chemotherapy (with surgery)

49
Q

Amalgam Tattoo diagnosis:

A

localized lesion, blue-gray macule of the oral mucosa that is evenly pigmented

50
Q

Name of black-blue line that follows the outlines of the marginal gingiva:
-> caused by:

A

Burton or Burtonian line

caused by: lead poisoning

51
Q

If you have a child with blue nevus will you:

(a) assure the mother
(b) benign lesion but need to do biopsy and confirm
(c) nothing you can go home

A

(b) benign lesion but need to do biopsy and confirm

52
Q

Types of blue nevus:

A

common and cellar

53
Q

Blue nevus - Clinical Features:

A
  • macular or dome-shaped, blue or blue-black lesion smaller than 1 cm
  • predilection for the dorsa of the hands and feet, the scalp and face
  • mucosal lesions may involve the oral mucosa, conjunctiva, and, rarely, sinonasal mucosa
  • oral lesions found on palate
54
Q

ABCDE Clinical Features of Melanoma:

A
Asymmetry
Border irregularity
Color variegation
Diameter > 6 mm
Evolving
55
Q

Staging of Melanoma:

A

Stage I – Localized disease
Stage II – Regional lymph node metastasis
Stage III – Distant metastasis

56
Q

SOS !!!!!!

a red, velvety plaque or patch with smooth, velvety, or granular surface depressed below the level of the surrounding mucosa

A

ERYTHROPLAKIA

57
Q

MRONJs clinical features:

A

pain
edema
pus

58
Q

Oral cancer risk factors:

A
sun
workers (pluggers, electricians)
HIV
alcohol
smoking
genetic
environment
unhealthy lifestyle