Final Revision Flashcards
1
Q
How is Squamous Papilloma caused:
A
HPV 6 and 11 infection
2
Q
From which other disease is difficult to distinguish Squamous Papilloma from?
A
verruca vulgaris, condyloma acuminatum, verruciform xanthoma, or multifocal epithelial hyperplasia
3
Q
Verruca Vulgaris (Common Wart):
caused by:
most often in which people:
A
- HPV 2
- Is contagious and can spread to other parts of a person’s skin or mucosa
- Most often arises in children
4
Q
SOS
Condyloma Acuminatum (Veneral Wart):
=
caused by:
how is transmitted?
which people?
A
=is an HPV virus of stratisfied squamous epithelium
- HPV 6 and 11
- sexually transmitted disease
- anogenital region, mouth, and larynx
- anogenital condylomata infected with HPV 16 or 18
- Is usually seen in immunocompromised patients
5
Q
SOS
Histopathologic Features of Condyloma Acuminatum (Veneral Wart):
A
- multiple pieces of soft tissue composed of papillary surface epithelium with an underlying fibrous CT core
- the spinous layer has cells with empty looking cytoplasm and small nuclei consistent with koilocytes
6
Q
Keratoacanthoma is caused by:
A
sun damage, tar exposure, HPV, immunosuppression, certain drugs, tattooing, and burns or trauma
7
Q
Inflammatory Papillary Hyperplasia:
=
caused by?
A
- reactive tissue growth
- in maxilla
Due to:
• Ill-fitting denture
• Poor denture hygiene
• Wearing the denture 24 hours a day
8
Q
Inflammatory Papillary Hyperplasia - Clinical Features:
where does it occur?
symptomatic or not
A
- early lesions may involve only the PALATAL VAULT, although advanced cases cover most of the palate
- asymptomatic
9
Q
Verruciform Xanthoma probably represents an:
A
unusual reaction or immune response to localized epithelial trauma or damage
10
Q
Clinical Features of Verruciform Xanthoma:
A
- on the gingiva and alveolar mucosa
- well-demarcated lesion
11
Q
SOS
What is the most common benign salivary neoplasm?
a. mucocele
b. ranula
c. warhin’s tumor
d. none of the above
A
d. none of the above
answer: pleomorphic adenoma
12
Q
SOS
What is the most common malignant neoplasm?
A
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
13
Q
SOS
What is the most common side for major salivary gland tumors? (in general)
A
parotid
14
Q
SOS
What is the most common intraoral side for minor salivary gland tumor?
A
palate
15
Q
SOS
Bilateral parotid glands are most likely in what type of benign tumors?
A
warthin tumors
16
Q
SOS
Older females and salivary gland in upper lip most likely will be?
What benign neoplasm is most likely to appear in the upper lip?
A
canalicular adenoma
- is most often in OLDER females
- may also be a basal cell adenoma
17
Q
SOS
Association pain due to perineural invasion what is the first malignant neoplasm that comes in mind?
A
adenoid cystic carcinoma (ACC)
18
Q
SOS
If the tumor is ulcerated or is in palate/parotid gland and we have facial nerve paralysis or weakness this tumor is always: benign or malignant?
A
Malignant until proven otherwise
19
Q
SOS
What is the most common malignancy in children? (salivary gland)
Where?
A
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
-in parotid gland most common
20
Q
SOS
Which malignant salivary neoplasm is almost exclusively a tumor of the minor salivary glands?
/ Minor salivary gland, only seen on palate, painless, or can erode the underlying bone - we are talking about:
A
Polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma (plga)
-exclusively on minor salivary gland
21
Q
SOS
Differential diagnosis depends/based on:
A
the SITE of the tumor and the clinical FEATURES
22
Q
SOS
If there is a tumor in the palate and overlying mucosa is ulcerated and the ulceration is not related to trauma or biopsy the mass is malignant or benign?
A
malignant until proven otherwise
23
Q
SOS
If there is a tumor in the parotid gland WITHOUT any facial nerve paralysis or weakness the first in mind will be:
If there is a tumor in the parotid gland WITH facial nerve paralysis or weakness the first in mind will be:
Which malignant tumor is not in parotid gland:
A
benign neoplasms (ex: pleomorphic adenoma, warthin tumor or basal cell adenoma) and secondly: malignant tumor such as neuroepidermoid carcinoma low graded
mucoepidermoid carcinoma high graded (1st) b/c of its propercity to appear in parotid gland and (2ndly) carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, acinic cell carcinoma, MASC of coarse
polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma
24
Q
SOS
If the tumor appears in the upper lip you can have in mind which types of tumors?
A
canalicular adenoma basal cell adenoma (can occur in upper lip but most commonly in parotid gland) plga acinic cell carcinoma MASC
=>pleomorphic adenoma(uncommon in upper lip)
25
*SOS*
A tumor in the parotid gland is most likely to be benign or malignant?
benign
26
*SOS*
A tumor in submandibular and sublingual gland is most likely to be benign or malignant?
malignant
27
*SOS*
Which type of tumor is most likely for older smoking males with bilateral parotid gland to have?
warthin tumors
28
*SOS*
If the tumor is in palate and has an intact mucosa, what type of tumor is it?
benign salivary gland neoplasm
-> pleomorphic adenoma
low grade b/c of intact mucosa
you can also consider acinic cell carcinoma and plga and also non-salivary gland tumors like non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and other benign neural tissue tumors like neurofibroma
29
Warthin tumor:
- exclusivelly in parotid gland
- occurs billaterally
- most common in: older men who smoke
- painless
- will not be present in the deep lobe of the parotid gland or in an oral site
30
What imaging test would be most appropriate for a woman presented with a firm, expanding mass of one of her parotid glands?
ultrasound, but computed tomography is an
| alternative first-line imaging to ultrasound
31
For what type of salivary gland disease is MRI particularly effective?
* Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) distinguishes the water content of tissue, so is effective in diagnosing soft-tissue lesions
* MRI is especially good at differentiating between cystic and solid masses
32
Which is the most common location of the the most common benign salivary neoplasm??
parotid
33
When benign salivary neoplasms arise in the oral mucosa, which is the site of predilection?
palate and also upper lip
34
Which is the 2nd most common benign salivary neoplasm?
warthin
35
what is a leiomyoma?
= benign tumor of smooth muscle
36
what are the types of leiomyomas:
2 common types in oral cavity - solid or vascular
37
From which side of the lesion you will take a sample for incisional biopsy?
center of the tissue b/c maybe there is an information that you may lose it so include both a bit of ulcer and a bit of border
38
Why mucoepidermoid carcinoma sometimes appears bluish? What a blue colored MEC can be mistaken clinically for?
Mucocele
39
*SOS*
Which is the most common location of the the most common malignant salivary neoplasm??
2nd most common?
parotid gland
palate
40
*SOS*
Cheilitis Glandularis occurs on:
lower lip vermilion
41
*SOS*
Cheilitis Glandularis types:
based on the severity of the disease
1. Simple
2. Superficial suppurative (Baelz disease) !!!!!!!!!!!!
3. Deep suppurative
42
*SOS*
Acute form of Sarcoidosis:
1. Heerfordt-Waldenstrom Syndrome = Uveoparotid fever !!!!!
| 2. Lofgren Syndrome
43
*SOS*
Ocular involvement is noted in sarcoidosis cases and most often appears as:
Anterior uveitis
44
*SOS*
Intraosseous lesions cases in Sarcoidosis, most appeared as:
ill-defined radiolucencies eroding the cortex but never create an expansion
45
*SOS*
Sarcoidosis - histopathological features:
Schaumann bodies - are degenerated
| lysosomes/lesions
46
*SOS*
Scleroderma - other name called as?
or Systemic sclerosis
47
*SOS*
Scleroderma clinical feature:
microstomia
48
*SOS*
Salivary Benign Lymphoepithelial Lesion:
according to Sjogren and lymphoma
lymphocyte hyperplasia of the salivary gland is not contributed to Sjogren b/c a 50% of pt with that disease do not have Sjogren, but Sjogren pts have a high possibilty of developing lymphoma
-take biopsy and other laboratory tests to rule out lymphoma
49
*SOS*
Salivary Benign Lymphoepithelial Lesion - histopathological features:
epimyoepithelial islands show infiltration by the lymphocytic infiltrate
50
*SOS*
The most important disease to differentiate from Salivary Benign Lymphoepithelial Lesion is:
Malignant lymphoma
51
What is the most common type of peripheral nerve neoplasm?
Neurofibroma
52
Most important clinical risk factor of Sjogren syndrome is:
Salivary gland enlargement
53
What is Keratoacanthoma?
self-limiting, epithelial proliferation with a strong clinical and histopathologic similarity to well- differentiated squamous cell carcinoma
54
Squamous Papilloma - extensive coalescing papillary lesions (papillomatosis) of the oral mucosa may be seen in:
nevus unius lateris, acanthosis nigricans, focal dermal
hypoplasia (Goltz-Gorlin) syndrome, and Down
syndrome
55
Mucus Retention Cyst - Salivary Duct Cyst =
true developmental cyst that arises from salivary gland tissue and is lined by epithelium
56
Are mucoceles true cysts?
no b/c it is not lined by epithelium
- difference with the mucus retention cyst
- by the histopathologic identification of an epithelial lining rather than a lining of granulation tissue
57
Why is Mucus Retention Cyst a true cyst?
b/c it is lined by epithelium
58
What is the most common location of Necrotizing Sialometaplasia?
minor salivary glands- palate
59
Necrotizing Sialometaplasia can be misdiagnosed with:
squamous cell carcinoma
or
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
60
The most common salivary gland in Sialolithiasis is:
a. sublingual gland
b. parotid gland
c. submandibular gland
d. both a and b
c. submandibular gland
61
Sialolithiasis causes:
swelling of the affected gland, especially at meal- time
62
Sialadenitis - most common viral infection is:
mumps
63
Obstruction caused by:
sialolithiasis and ductal strictures
64
Which tests do you use for stones?
Sialography, ultrasound, and CT scanning
65
What other diseases cause parotid gland enlargement?
diabetes, bulimia, alcohol use
| +sialolithiasis
66
Which most common bacteria cause sialadenitis?
Staphylococcus aureus or streptococcal species
67
Which are the most common characteristics of Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome?
Fissured tongue, swollen lip(s), recurrent episodes of
| orofacial edema and unilateral facial paralysis
68
What is Epulis Fissuratum?
= hyperplasia of the soft fibrous tissue caused from ill fitting denture
-forms single or multiple folds
69
What is the treatment of Epulis Fissuratum?
excision, new denture or smoothing the borders/linings for better fitting
70
Verruciform Xanthoma may be similar to:
squamous papilloma, condyloma acuminatum, or early carcinoma
71
Fibrous Histiocytoma most commonly seen in which areas?
skin of the extremities
| but also tongue, floor of the mouth, or buccal mucosa
72
Fibrous Histiocytoma - clinical features:
Painless nodular mass
73
Histopathologic Features of Fibrous Histiocytoma:
- storiform pattern of spindle shaped fibroblastic cells
| - histiocyte-like cells, lipid-containing xanthoma cells
74
Bilateral schwannomas are a characteristic feature of:
neurofibromatosis type II (NF2)
75
what type of disease is Schwannoma?
genetic disorder
| schwannomatosis
76
Schwannoma - clinical features and where it occurs:
- The tongue is the favored location. Other sites which can be involved are palate, floor of mouth and buccal mucosa
- slow-growing but may undergo a sudden increase in size
77
Histopathologic Features of Schwannoma in Antoni A pattern:
- more distinctive and better organized pattern
- nuclei lie in palisaded clusters
- shows a haphazard arrangement of Schwann cells in a loose stroma, which contains small vacuoles
When two such clusters occur around an eosinophilic mass, the resultant structure is called a Verocay body
78
From which cells does the neurofibroma arise from?
mixture of cell types, including Schwann cells and perineural fibroblasts
79
single neurofibroma may be the first sign of:
neurofibromatosis
80
Neurofibroma - Clinical Features:
common sites:
tumor can arise:
tongue and buccal mucosa
| tumor can arise centrally within bone
81
Neurofibromatosis type I (Von Recklinghausen) - Clinical Features:
* Neurofibromas
* Café au lait spots
* Crowe’s sign
* Lisch bodies
82
*SOS*
Μultiple Εndocrine Νeoplasia (MEN) Syndromes:
MEN 2B involves primarily:
* Multiple mucosal and intestinal neuromas
* Medullary thyroid carcinoma
* Pheochromocytoma
83
Vascular Tumors and Vascular Malformations - Capillary hemangiomas:
most common in children
located in oral mucosa, tongue and skin
regress spontaneously
surgical treatment is not recommended
84
Small Capillary Malformations
are common in:
known by various names:
- newborns
| - stork bite, nevus flammeus, port wine stains, angel’s kiss
85
Sturge-Weber Syndrome:
Usually has a unilateral distribution along one or more segments of the trigeminal nerve
86
*SOS*
Lymphatic malformations =
- Is SUPERFICIAL in location and demonstrates a pebbly surface that resembles a cluster of translucent vesicles
- Secondary hemorrhage into the lymphatic spaces may cause some of these “vesicles” to become purple
87
Fibrosarcoma - Histopathologic Features:
spindle cell sarcomas forming a “herringbone” pattern
88
Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma =
= an expanding mass that may or may not be painful or ulcerated
89
Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma symptoms in the mandible Vs maxilla:
In the mandible, they may produce paresthesia of the lower lip and in the maxilla paresthesia of the cheek
90
Histopathologic Features of Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma:
storiform pleomorphic type: spindle cells arranged in a storiform pattern, admixed with areas of pleomorphic giant cells
91
Liposarcoma:
=
clinical features:
most common site:
malignant neoplasm of fatty origin
Soft, slow-growing, ill-defined mass that may appear normal in color or yellow
neck
most frequent intraoral locations are the tongue and cheek
92
Which is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in adults?
Liposarcoma
93
Rhabdomyosarcoma
=
most common in:
most frequent site:
common clinical features:
are malignant tumors of primitive mesenchymal cells that undergo partial rhabdomyoblast differentiation
children, males
head and neck
grow rapidly which readily invades and destroys bone
94
Histopathologic Features - Rhabdomyosarcoma:
Stellate-shaped, spindle small round or oval cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and indistinct cytoplasm with more compact cellular areas and less cellular myxoid areas
95
*SOS*
Kaposi Sarcoma caused by:
HPV 8
96
*SOS*
Kaposi Sarcoma
clinical features:
most commonly seen in:
most common type:
multiple blue-purple macules and plaques
lesions grow slowly over many years and develop into painless tumor nodules
late adult life - in men
Classic Type
97
*SOS*
Kaposi Sarcoma oral lesions are more often found in:
The oral cavity is the initial site of involvement in 22% of patients with KS, and oral lesions are found more often in AIDS-related KS than other types of KS. Approximately 70% of individuals with AIDS-related KS demonstrate oral lesions at some point
-common for oral lesion is the AIDS related KS
98
What are the most common sites for men and women for Metastatic tumors to the oral cavity?
men: lung cancer followed by renal carcinoma and
melanoma
women: breast cancer followed by malignancies of the genital organs, kidney, lung, and bone
99
Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma - Histopathologic Features:
Mixture of mucus-producing cells and squamous
(epidermoid) cells
- encapsulated neoplasm
- cystic spaces that are lined by mucous cells, epidermoid cells and clear cells
100
*SOS*
Which is the most newly recognized salivary gland malignancy?
Mammary Analogue Secretory Carcinoma (MASC)
101
Cribriform pattern of Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma (ACC):
Islands of basaloid epithelial cells that contain multiple cyst like spaces resembling Swiss cheese
102
Pleomorphic Adenoma is derived from:
a mixture of ductal and myoepithelial elements
103
Histopathologic Features of Pleomorphic Adenoma:
-composed of a mixture of glandular epithelium and round myoepithelial cells which demonstrate an eccentric nucleus and eosinophilic hyalinized cytoplasm, thus resembling plasma cells
104
Sialorrhea =
In children, the most common cause of sialorrhea is:
In adults, the most common cause of sialorrhea is:
Drooling or ptyalism
children: CP (cerebral palsy)
adults: PD ( Parkinson's disease)
105
*SOS*
Causes of xerostomia:
```
salivary gland aplasia
impaired fluid intake
hemorrhage
vomiting/diarrhea
medications
radiation therapy
chemotherapy
sjogren syndrome
diabetes mellitus
sarcoidosis
amyloidosis
HIV
hepatitis
psychogenic disorders
decreased mastication
smoking
mouth breathing
```
106
*SOS*
Clinical signs of xerostomia:
```
Burning sensation
Food sticks to mucosa
Oral health problems / Tissue alterations
Angular chellitis
Candidiasis
Caries
Halitosis
Loss of filiform papillae on tongue
Oral lesions
Mucositis
Pain
Oral lesions
Periodontal disease
Redness of the tongue
Taste alteration
Tooth sensitivity
```
107
Sjögren syndrome:
=
most common in which people
chronic autoimmune inflammatory disorder
women
108
The most common diseases associated with Sjögren syndrome are:
rheumatoid arthritis
| systemic lupus erythematosus
109
Clinical Features of Sjögren syndrome:
- dry eye disease - irritation, grittiness, a foreign body sensation and diminished tear flow
- salivary hypofunction - xerostomia
- salivary gland enlargement
- unilateral nodular and less commonly bilateral diffuse enlargement
- lymphoma development
110
The duct associated with parotid gland:
a. Bartholin's duct
b. Wharton's duct
c. Stensen's duct
d. none
c. Stensen's duct
111
The first gland appears during intrauterine life is:
a. sublingual gland
b. parotid gland
c. submandibular gland
d. minor salivary gland
b. parotid gland
112
The largest salivary gland is:
a. sublingual gland
b. parotid gland
c. submandibular gland
d. accessory ducts
b. parotid gland
113
Wharton's duct is associated with:
a. sublingual gland
b. parotid gland
c. submandibular gland
d. both b and c
c. submandibular gland
114
How mucoceles are formed?
injury/trauma
115
What are the clinical types of mucoceles???
mucoceles, granular and lupocells?
116
How is a mucocele called that occurs in the floor of the mouth?
ranula (=a benign, mucous-containing cyst of the sublingual salivary gland that is caused by either rupture or blockade of the salivary duct)
-located lateral to the midline, a feature that may help to distinguish it from a midline dermoid cyst
117
how is plunging ranula formed?
-they cause swelling
the pressure of the cyst herniate through the mylohyoid muscle
118
*SOS*
What is the anatomic variant that resembles the Giant Cell Fibroma?
The retrocuspid papilla (=is a microscopically similar developmental lesion that occurs on the gingiva lingual to the mandibular cuspid)
119
*SOS*
What is epulis granulomatosa?
is a term used to describe hyperlastic growths of granulation tissue that sometimes arise in healing extraction sockets. These lesions resemble pyogenic granulomas and usually represent a granulation tissue reaction to bony sequestra in the socket
120
A mucocele is not a true cyst because
(a) It is lined by epithelium
(b) Its lumen is filled with pus
(c) It occurs as a result of trauma
(d) It is not lined by an epithelium
(d) It is not lined by an epithelium
121
The most common location for occurrence of mucoceles is
(a) Upper lip
(b) Floor of mouth
(c) Lower lip
(d) Palate
(c) Lower lip
122
Plunging/cervical ranula is a clinical variant of ranula which occurs when the spilled mucin dissects between the fibers of _______ muscle.
(a) Anterior belly of digastric
(b) Mylohyoid
(c) Omohyoid
(d) Posterior belly of digastric
(b) Mylohyoid
123
Which amongst the following cannot be used to describe a salivary duct cyst?
(a) Mucous retention cyst
(b) Sialocyst
(c) Mucous duct cyst
(d) Mucous extravasation phenomenon
(d) Mucous extravasation phenomenon
124
Submandibular salivary gland is the most common location for which one of the following pathologies?
(a) Sarcoidosis
(b) Sialorrhea
(c) Sialolithiasis
(d) Necrotizing sialometaplasia
(c) Sialolithiasis
125
Which one out of the following is the most common bacterial agent responsible for causing acute Sialadenitis?
(a) Streptococcus mutans
(b) Lactobacillus acidophilus
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Actinomyces israelii
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
126
Cheilitis glandularis typically occurs on the
(a) Upper lip
(b) Lower lip
(c) Soft palate
(d) Gingiva
(b) Lower lip
127
Baelz disease is also known as
(a) Keratosis follicularis
(b) Cheilitis glandularis
(c) Cheilitis granulomatosa
(d) Cheilitis follicularis
(b) Cheilitis glandularis
128
Out of the below mentioned causes, which one is not a cause of xerostomia?
(a) Medications
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Salivary gland aplasia
(d) Tobacco chewing
(d) Tobacco chewing
129
Xerostomia is often associated with atrophy of ___ papillae
(a) Filiform
(b) Circumvallate
(c) Fungiform
(d) Foliate
(a) Filiform
130
12. The characteristic “cherry blossom” or “branchless fruit laden tree” appearance on sialography is seen in which of the following conditions?
(a) Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
(b) Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome
(c) Necrotizing sialometaplasia
(d) Sjögren’s syndrome
(d) Sjögren’s syndrome
131
Microscopic appearance of necrotizing sialometaplasia can be confused with those of which other lesion?
(a) Pleomorphic adenoma
(b) Warthin’s tumor
(c) Squamous cell carcinoma
(d) Squamous papilloma
(c) Squamous cell carcinoma
+mucoepidermoid carcinoma
132
The most frequent site for occurrence of tumors in minor salivary glands is
(a) Palate
(b) Floor of mouth
(c) Buccal mucosa
(d) Lower lip
(a) Palate
133
The mesenchymal appearing elements in pleomorphic adenoma are produced by _______ cells.
(a) Myoepithelial
(b) Squamous
(c) Serous
(d) Ductal
(a) Myoepithelial
134
Myoepithelial cells in pleomorphic adenoma which appear rounded, with eosinophilic, hyalinized cytoplasm and having an eccentric nucleus are called as ______ myoepithelial cells.
(a) Myxoid
(b) Adenomatoid
(c) Plasmacytoid
(d) Oncocytic
(c) Plasmacytoid
135
All of the following except _____ are mesenchymal elements commonly seen in a pleomorphic adenoma.
(a) Fat
(b) Osteoid
(c) Chondroid
(d) Nerve fibers
(d) Nerve fibers
| myoepithelial cells and ductal cells are elements of pleomorphic adenoma
136
Myoepithelioma is considered by many to represent one end of spectrum of
(a) Warthin’s tumor
(b) Oncocytoma
(c) Pleomorphic adenoma
(d) Ductal papillomas
(c) Pleomorphic adenoma
137
The most common histological variant of basal cell adenoma is
(a) Tubular
(b) Solid
(c) Trabecular
(d) Membranous
(b) Solid
138
Canalicular adenoma most frequently occurs in the intra-oral accessory salivary glands of
(a) Upper lip
(b) Soft palate
(c) Lower lip
(d) Floor of mouth
(a) Upper lip
139
Which one of the following malignant salivary gland neoplasms demonstrates serous acinar differentiation?
(a) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
(b) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
(c) Acinic cell adenocarcinoma
(d) Malignant pleomorphic adenoma
(c) Acinic cell adenocarcinoma
140
The most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm is
(a) Acinic cell carcinoma
(b) Malignant pleomorphic adenoma
(c) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
(d) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
(d) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
141
Cribriform, solid and tubular histological patterns of growth of neoplastic myoepithelial and ductal cells is seen in
(a) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
(b) Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
(c) Basal cell adenocarcinoma
(d) Acinic cell carcinoma
(a) Adenoid cystic carcinoma (ACC)
142
Which amongst the following is the most recently recognized salivary gland neoplasm?
(a) Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
(b) Malignant pleomorphic adenoma
(c) Mammary Analogue Secretory Carcinoma
(d) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
(c) Mammary Analogue Secretory Carcinoma (MASC)
143
Trauma to which gland can result in facial paralysis?
(a) Submandibular
(b) Parotid
(c) Sublingual
(d) Palatal
(b) Parotid
144
Which one of the following factors is responsible for causing xerostomia?
(a) Sialadenitis
(b) Salivary duct cyst
(c) Sialorrhea
(d) Mouth breathing
(d) Mouth breathing
+Sarcoidosis
145
Repeated attacks of facial palsy, nonpitting, and painless edema of face, cheilitis granulomatosa and fissured tongue are all components of _______ syndrome:
(a) Frey’s
(b) Reye’s
(c) Gorlin-Goltz
(d) Melkersson-Rosenthal
(d) Melkersson-Rosenthal
146
Which virus is most commonly associated with squamous papilloma?
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 11
(d) both b and c
HPV 6 and HPV 11 viruses
147
The squamous papilloma is clinically and microscopically indistinguishable from which other lesion occurring in skin?
(a) Verrucous carcinoma
(b) Verruca vulgaris
(c) Molluscum contagiosum
(d) Keratoacanthoma
(b) Verruca vulgaris
AND condyloma acuminatum, verruciform xanthoma, or multifocal epithelial hyperplasia
148
Which one of the following benign lesions resembles squamous cell carcinoma clinically and microscopically?
(a) Verruca vulgaris
(b) Keratoacanthoma
(c) Squamous acanthoma
(d) Leukoedema
(b) Keratoacanthoma
149
All of the following terms except ____ represent Epulis fissuratum
(a) Denture injury tumor
(b) Denture epulis
(c) Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
(d) Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
(c) Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
150
Single/multiple folds of hyperplastic tissue in alveolar vestibule, occurring in association with flange of an ill fitting denture is most likely to be
(a) Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
(b) Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
(c) Giant cell epulis
(d) Congenital epulis
(b) Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
151
All except ____ are common causes of inflammatory papillary hyperplasia.
(a) Ill-fitting dentures
(b) Poor denture hygiene
(c) Wearing dentures for 24 hours
(d) Infection by herpes virus
(d) Infection by herpes virus
152
Microscopically, one of the most common types of arrangements of tumor cells in fibrous histiocytoma is _____ pattern.
(a) Storiform
(b) Herringbone
(c) Ductal
(d) Glandular
(a) Storiform
153
“Herringbone” pattern of proliferation of spindle-shaped cells is typically seen in
(a) Fibrous histiocytoma
(b) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
(c) Neurofibrosarcoma
(d) Fibrosarcoma
(d) Fibrosarcoma
154
The most common soft tissue sarcoma of adults is
(a) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
(b) Neurofibrosarcoma
(c) Libosarcoma
(d) Fibrosarcoma
(c) Libosarcoma
155
The most common peripheral nerve neoplasm is
(a) Neurofibroma
(b) Granular cell tumor
(c) Schwannoma
(d) Solitary circumscribed neuroma
(a) Neurofibroma
156
Microscopic pattern of Antoni A type of tissue proliferation is found in
(a) Schwannoma
(b) Neurofibroma
(c) Hodgkin’s disease
(d) Verruciform Xanthoma
(a) Schwannoma
157
Neurofibroma arises from
| a) Perineural fibroblasts
(b) Schwann cells
(c) Mixture of (a) and (b
(d) Fibroblasts
c) Mixture of (a) and (b)
158
Lisch nodules and Crowe’s sign are components of
(a) Neurofibromatosis type I
(b) Neurofibroma
(c) Neurofibrosarcoma
(d) Neurofibromatosis type II
(a) Neurofibromatosis type I
159
Sturge-Weber syndrome/angiomatosis demonstrates port-wine stain usually distributed unilaterally along the course of one or more branches of ________ cranial nerve.
(a) VII
(b) V
(c) III
(d) VIII
(b) V
160
The most common soft tissue sarcoma of children is
(a) Leiomyosarcoma
(b) Fibrosarcoma
(c) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(d) Schwannoma
(c) Rhabdomyosarcoma
161
All except _____ are a variety of Kaposi sarcoma
(a) Pleomorphic
(b) Endemic African
(c) Classic
(d) AIDS related
(a) Pleomorphic
1. Classic
2. Endemic (African)
3. Iatrogenic (transplant-associated)
4. Epidemic (AIDS-related)
162
Mark the odd:
Keratoacanthoma
Myxoid
Nevus
?
nevus?
163
Metastatic tumors to the oral cavity:
Are uncommon and represent approximately 1% of all oral malignancies
164
Was asking about genetic disorders
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