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0001 QM > FINAL (REVIEW Qs ONLY) > Flashcards

FINAL (REVIEW Qs ONLY) Flashcards

1
Q

A procedure to identify potential failure within a
system is

a. SWOT
b. FMEA
c. Six Sigma
d. FOCUS-PDCA

A

A procedure to identify potential failure within a
system is

b. FMEA

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2
Q

Which of the following terms best describes a person, department, or organization that needs or wants a desired outcome?

a. Supplier
b. lnpur
c. Action
d. Customer

A

Which of the following terms best describes a person, department, or organization that needs or wants a desired outcome?

d. Customer

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3
Q

Who is considered to be the “Father of Scientific
Management”?

a. W. Edwards Deming
b. Joseph Juran
c. Raymond Smith
d. Frederick Winslow Taylor

A

Who is considered to be the “Father of Scientific
Management”?

d. Frederick Winslow Taylor

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4
Q

Which of the following groups is usually responsible for implementing the solutions that the focus groups have determined will improve a particular process?

a . Quality circle

b. Work team
c. Quality improvement team
d. Problem-solving team

A

Which of the following groups is usually responsible for implementing the solutions that the focus groups have determined will improve a particular process?

c. Quality improvement team

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5
Q

Which levels of quality control testing can usually be performed by a quality assurance/quality management technologist: level I, level II, or level III?

a. l and II
b. l and III
c . II and III
d. I, II, and III

A

Which levels of quality control testing can usually be performed by a quality assurance/quality management technologist: level I, level II, or level III?

a. l and II

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6
Q

Which government agency mandates policy on
exposure to blood-borne pathogens?

a. FDA
b. EPA
c. OSHA
d. CDRH

A

Which government agency mandates policy on
exposure to blood-borne pathogens?

c. OSHA

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7
Q

Which of the following terms best describes in formation
or knowledge necessary to achieve a desired
outcome?

a. Supplier
b. Input
c. Action
d. Output

A

Which of the following terms best describes in formation
or knowledge necessary to achieve a desired
outcome?

b. Input

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8
Q

How many basic steps a re involved in the creation
of a TPM?

a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10

A

How many basic steps a re involved in the creation
of a TPM?

d. 10

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9
Q

Which oi the iollowing rerrns best describes a valid
and reliable quantitative process or outcome measure related to one or more dimension, of performance?

a. External custome
b. Indicator
c. Level of expectation
d. Sentinel event

A

Which oi the iollowing rerrns best describes a valid
and reliable quantitative process or outcome measure related to one or more dimension, of performance?

b. Indicator

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10
Q

The highest quality of care delivered in the shortest
amount of time with the least amount of expense and
a positive outcome is termed _________ of care.

a. appropriateness
b. continuity
c. effectiveness
d. efficiency

A

The highest quality of care delivered in the shortest
amount of time with the least amount of expense and
a positive outcome is termed _________ of care.

d. efficiency

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11
Q

Which of the following term best describes the entire set or group of items being measured?

a. Population
b. Sample
c. Frequency
d. Central tendency

A

Which of the following term best describes the
entire set or group of items being measured?

a. Population

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12
Q

Which of the following terms best describes the average set of observations?

a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Variance

A

Which of the following terms best describes the average set of observations?

a. Mean

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13
Q

Which of the following terms best describe variables that have only two value or choices?

a. Continuous variable
b. Dichotomous variables
c. Stochastic variables
d. Statistical variables

A

Which of the following terms best describe variables that have only two value or choices?

b. Dichotomous variables

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14
Q

A cause-and-effect diagram i also known as which of the following?

a. Fishbone chart
b. Pareto chart
c. Trend chart
d. Scatter plot

A

A cause-and-effect diagram i also known as which of the following?

a. Fishbone chart

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15
Q

Which of the following terms best describes a chart that pictorially demonstrates whether key indicator are moving up or down over a given period of time?

a. Histogram
b. Pareto chart
c. Trend chart
d. Scatter plot

A

Which of the following terms best describes a chart that pictorially demonstrates whether key indicator are moving up or down over a given period of time?

c. Trend chart

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16
Q

The distribution of continuous data can best be demonstrated by the use which of the following?

a. Histograms
b. Control charts
c. Scatter diagrams
d. Pareto charts

A

The distribution of continuous data can best be demonstrated by the use which of the following?

a. Histograms

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17
Q

Which of the following is not a tool for data presentation?

a. Control charts
b. Brainstorming
c. Pareto charts
d. Cause-and-effect diagrams

A

Which of the following is not a tool for data presentation?

b. Brainstorming

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18
Q

The unit of measure used to express the dose equivalent to occupational workers is which of the
following?

a. Roentgen
b. Rad
c. Rad equivalent, man
d. Relative biological effectiveness (RBE)

A

The unit of measure used to express the dose equivalent to occupational workers is which of the
following?

c. Rad equivalent, man

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19
Q

Which of the following terms best describe the square of the standard deviation?

a. Range
b. Mode
c. Variance
d. Frequency

A

Which of the following terms best describe the square of the standard deviation?

c. Variance

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20
Q

Which of the following does not affect patient dose
during diagnostic radiography?

a. Inherent filtration
b. Added filtration
c. Focal spot size
d. Source-to-image distance (SID)

A

Which of the following does not affect patient dose
during diagnostic radiography?

c. Focal spot size

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21
Q

The indicated level of the tomographic section an the actual level of the section must correspond within ___ mm.

a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

A

The indicated level of the tomographic section an the actual level of the section must correspond within ___ mm.

b. 5

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22
Q

A three-phase X-ray generator can operate at a maximum of 100 kVp and 500 mA at 100 ms. What is the kilowatt rating of this generator?

a. 5 kW
b. 35 kW
c. 50 kW
d. 500 kW

A

A three-phase X-ray generator can operate at a maximum of 100 kVp and 500 mA at 100 ms. What is the kilowatt rating of this generator?

c. 50 kW

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23
Q

The backup timer for an automatic exposure control system should terminate the exposure at ___ second(s) or ____ mAs, whichever comes first.

a. 1; 100
b. 3; 300
c. 6; 600
d. 9; 900

A

The backup timer for an automatic exposure control system should terminate the exposure at ___ second(s) or ____ mAs, whichever comes first.

c. 6; 600

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24
Q

How large of an arc appears during a spinning to test of a three-phase X-ray generator at 50 ms?

a. 18°
b. 20°
c. 36°
d. 90°

A

How large of an arc appears during a spinning to test of a three-phase X-ray generator at 50 ms?

a. 18°

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25
Q

Which of the following should a quality control program for radiographic equipment include: (1) visual inspection, (2) environmental inspection, or (3) performance
testing?

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

Which of the following should a quality control program for radiographic equipment include: (1) visual inspection, (2) environmental inspection, or (3) performance
testing?

d. 1, 2, and 3

26
Q

The minimum half-value layer for X-ray units operating at 80 kVp is __ mm of aluminum.

a. 1.3
b. 1.5
c. 2.3
d. 2.5

A

The minimum half-value layer for X-ray units operating at 80 kVp is __ mm of aluminum.

c. 2.3

27
Q

The maximum variability allowed for the reproducibility of exposure is ± _ %.

a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20

A

The maximum variability allowed for the reproducibility of exposure is ± _ %.

b. 5

28
Q

Any variations between the stated kilovolt (peak) on the control panel and the measured kilovolt (peak) must be ± _ %.

a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20

A

Any variations between the stated kilovolt (peak) on the control panel and the measured kilovolt (peak) must be ± _ %.

b. 5

29
Q

The variability allowed for timer accuracy in exposures
less than 10 ms ± __ %.

a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20

A

The variability allowed for timer accuracy in exposures
less than 10 ms ± __ %.

d. 20

30
Q

The variability allowed for milliampere and time linearity
is+ __ %.

a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20

A

The variability allowed for milliampere and time linearity
is+ __ %.

c. 10

31
Q

Which of the following i not part of an image intensifier
tube?

a. Filament
b. Photocathode
c. Anode
d. Output phosphor

A

Which of the following i not part of an image intensifier
tube?

a. Filament

32
Q

Which material is most often used in the input phosphor
of an image intensifier?

a. Calcium tungsten
b. Cesium iodide
c. Zinc cadmium ulfide
d. Lanthanum oxybromide

A

Which material is most often used in the input phosphor
of an image intensifier?

b. Cesium iodide

33
Q

Which of the following terms best describes the increase in image brightness resulting from the difference in size between the input and output phosphors?

a . Brightness gain

b. Flux gain
c. Minification gain
d. Resolution gain

A

Which of the following terms best describes the increase in image brightness resulting from the difference in size between the input and output phosphors?

c. Minification gain

34
Q

Which of the following increase the brightness of a fluoroscopic image: (1) an increase in kilovolts (peak), (2) an increase in milliamperes, or (3) an increase in pulse width?

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

Which of the following increase the brightness of a fluoroscopic image: (1) an increase in kilovolts (peak), (2) an increase in milliamperes, or (3) an increase in pulse width?

d. 1, 2, and 3

35
Q

Which of the following i the main advantage of using a multifield image intensifier?

a. The field of view is increased.
b. The image brightness is increased.
c. Magnification option is available.
d. The patient dose is decreased.

A

Which of the following i the main advantage of using a multifield image intensifier?

c. Magnification option is available.

36
Q

Which of the following terms best describes the type of image intensifier artifact that result from projecting an image onto a flat surface?

a. Veiling glare
b. Pincushion distortion
c. Vignetting
d. S distortion

A

Which of the following terms best describes the type of image intensifier artifact that result from projecting an image onto a flat surface?

b. Pincushion distortion

37
Q

Which of the following is not a “tube” type of television
camera?

a. Orthicon
b. Plumbicon
c. Vidicon
d. CCD

A

Which of the following is not a “tube” type of television
camera?

d. CCD

38
Q

The primary beam should be restricted to the diameter of the input phosphor to within ± __ % of the source-to-image distance.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

The primary beam should be restricted to the diameter of the input phosphor to within ± __ % of the source-to-image distance.

a. 2

39
Q

The video monitor of a fluoroscopic system should be evaluated with a test pattern created by which of the following organizations?

a. The National Electrical Manufacturers Association
b. The American College of Radiology
c. The Society of Motion Picture and Television
Engineers
d. The American Society of Radiologic Technologists

A

The video monitor of a fluoroscopic system should be evaluated with a test pattern created by which of the following organizations?

c. The Society of Motion Picture and Television
Engineers

40
Q

The intensity of the X-ray beam at the tabletop should not exceed _____ R/min for unit that are equipped with an automatic brightness stabilization system.

a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20

A

The intensity of the X-ray beam at the tabletop should not exceed _____ R/min for unit that are equipped with an automatic brightness stabilization system.

c. 10

41
Q

Which of the following i found inside the image receptor used for a CR system?

a. Intensifying screen
b. Duplitized film
c. Imaging plate
d. All of the above

A

Which of the following i found inside the image receptor used for a CR system?

c. Imaging plate

42
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of CR versus film/screen radiography?

a. Lower patient dose
b. Higher-contrast resolution
c. Edge enhancement
d. All of the above

A

Which of the following is an advantage of CR versus film/screen radiography?

d. All of the above

43
Q

Which of the following is true in comparing CR versus film/screen radiography?

a. CR has greater spatial resolution than film/screen
radiography.
b. CR has a lower capital co t than film/ creen
radiography.
c. Collimation and part centering are critical for
CR images.
d. CR demonstrates larger image size than film/
screen radiography.

A

Which of the following is true in comparing CR versus film/screen radiography?

c. Collimation and part centering are critical for
CR images.

44
Q

Which of the following identifies the fluoroscopic
scan mode by which the X-ray tube delivers radiation in short, high-intensity pulses?

a. Continuous fluoroscopic mode
b. Pulsed, inter laced scan mode
c. Slow scan mode
d. All of the above

A

Which of the following identifies the fluoroscopic
scan mode by which the X-ray tube delivers radiation in short, high-intensity pulses?

b. Pulsed, inter laced scan mode

45
Q

When evaluating low-contrast resolution in digital viewing monitor , which patches of the SMPTE or AAPM TG18-QC test pattern must be visible?

a. 0% and 100%
b. 30% and 70%
c. 5% and 95%
d. 10% and 80%

A

When evaluating low-contrast resolution in digital viewing monitor , which patches of the SMPTE or AAPM TG18-QC test pattern must be visible?

c. 5% and 95%

46
Q

Types of DSA include (1) temporal mask subtration, (2) time-interval difference subtraction and (3) dual-energy subtraction.

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

Types of DSA include (1) temporal mask subtration, (2) time-interval difference subtraction and (3) dual-energy subtraction.

d. 1, 2, and 3

47
Q

In direct capture DR systems, remnant radiation is converted into an electric signal by:

a. PSP crystals
b. Amorphous selenium
c. Cesium iodide
d. Amorphous silicon

A

In direct capture DR systems, remnant radiation is converted into an electric signal by:

b. Amorphous selenium

48
Q

A QC test for DR systems is to check for dark noise. What is the purpose of this test?

a. To determine the maximum exposure that can be
detected
b. To listen for static in the AMA
c. To assess the level of detector noise in the system
d. To evaluate the monitor’s window level settings

A

A QC test for DR systems is to check for dark noise. What is the purpose of this test?

c. To assess the level of detector noise in the system

49
Q

The laser used in most CR reader units emits light in this portion of the color spectrum:

a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue-violet
d. All of the above

A

The laser used in most CR reader units emits light in this portion of the color spectrum:

a. Red

50
Q

Which of the following are component of a CR system: (1) image receptors, (2) reader unit, or (3) workstation?

a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

Which of the following are component of a CR system: (1) image receptors, (2) reader unit, or (3) workstation?

d. 1, 2, and 3

51
Q

In departments with a quality management program in place, the greatest number of repeat images is due to which of the following?

a. Equipment problems
b. Image fog
c. Patient motion
d. Positioning error

A

In departments with a quality management program in place, the greatest number of repeat images is due to which of the following?

d. Positioning error

52
Q

If a department performs 1160 views during a 1-month period and 132 are repeated, the department repeat rate is which of the following?

a. 9.5%
b. 10.7%
C. 11.4%
d. 14.8%

A

If a department performs 1160 views during a 1-month period and 132 are repeated, the department repeat rate is which of the following?

C. 11.4%

53
Q

Any repeat rate exceeding ___ should be seriously examined.

a. 2% to 4%
b. 4% to 6%
c. 6% to 8%
d. 10% to 12%

A

Any repeat rate exceeding ___ should be seriously examined.

b. 4% to 6%

54
Q

Which of the following processing artifacts run in the same direction as film travel?

a. Pi lines
b. Guide shoe marks
c. Hesitation marks
d. Chemical fog

A

Which of the following processing artifacts run in the same direction as film travel?

b. Guide shoe marks

55
Q

Which of the following artifacts can occur in both CR and film/screen radiography?

a. Static electricity
b. Wet-pressure sensitization
c. Moire pattern
d. Water pots

A

Which of the following artifacts can occur in both CR and film/screen radiography?

c. Moire pattern

56
Q

The types of static artifacts include (1) tree, (2) crown, and (3) smudge:

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

The types of static artifacts include (1) tree, (2) crown, and (3) smudge:

d. 1, 2, and 3

57
Q

Which of the following terms best describe the likelihood
of obtaining a positive diagnosis in a patient with the disease actually present?

a. Sensitivity
b. Specificity
c. Variance
d. Frequency

A

Which of the following terms best describe the likelihood
of obtaining a positive diagnosis in a patient with the disease actually present?

a. Sensitivity

58
Q

Data for determining repeat rates should include at least __ patients to obtain a statistical sample large enough for valid results.

a. 100
b. 150
c. 250
d. 500

A

Data for determining repeat rates should include at least __ patients to obtain a statistical sample large enough for valid results.

c. 250

59
Q

Which of the following terms also is referred to as the TP fraction?

a. Accuracy
b. Sensitivity
c. Specificity
d. None of the above

A

Which of the following terms also is referred to as the TP fraction?

b. Sensitivity

60
Q

Which of the following artifacts occur as a result of patient motion during exposure?

a. A processing artifact
b. An exposure artifact
c. A handling artifact
d. No artifact

A

Which of the following artifacts occur as a result of patient motion during exposure?

b. An exposure artifact

0001 QM (5 decks)

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