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MRI Pathology - SDI 304 > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which of these terms specifically describes a cancerous tumor?

Abscess

Malignant

Neoplasm

Benign

A

Malignant

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2
Q

T/F: Imaging studies alone always allow for differentiation between benign and malignant neoplasms.

A

False

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3
Q

Which of these conditions appears as inflammation in the bowel?

Colitis

Abscess

Cancer

Ascites

A

Colitis

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4
Q

Which of the following is the most common primary cancer?

Prostate

Lung

Colorectal

Breast

A

Prostate

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5
Q

What term describes a cancer in one organ/tissue but originated from a different organ/tissue?

Metastatic neoplasm

Primary cancer

Benign neoplasm

Malignant neoplasm

A

Metastatic neoplasm

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6
Q

T/F: The terms inflammation and infection are synonymous.

A

False

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7
Q

Define Ascites

A

The condition of pathological fluid collection within the abdominal cavity

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8
Q

Define Abscess

A

A localized collection of infection in any part of the body

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9
Q

Define Hematoma

A

A collection of blood, usually clotted, outside of a blood vessel

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10
Q

Define Colitis

A

inflammation of the colon

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11
Q

Which of these pathologic processes is most likely to be associated with hepatitis or malignancy?

Ascites

Cysts

Abscess

Hematoma

A

Ascites

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12
Q

Which of these conditions might appear as a walled cavity filled with infected fluid, blood, and sometimes air?

Hematoma

Ascites

Inflammation

Abscess

A

Abscess

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13
Q

Which of these conditions appears as excessive fluid inside the abdomen but outside of the GI tract?

Ascites

Abscess

Colitis

Inflammation

A

Ascite

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14
Q

Which of these conditions may be further categorized as infectious, ulcerative, or ischemic?

Cysts

Abscess

Colitis

Cancer

A

Colitis

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15
Q

Which of the following is a common cause of cancer? (choose all correct)

Radiation

Immune conditions

Inherited mutations

Chemicals

A

All of the above

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16
Q

Define Organ Laceration

A

A tear in the body of an organ that results in bleeding

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17
Q

Define Organ Infarct

A

Tissue deprived of blood supply

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18
Q

Define Cyst

A

An abnormal, a sac-like structure usually containing a gaseous, liquid or semisolid substance

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19
Q

Define Aneurysm

A

An abnormal widening or ballooning of a portion of an artery

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20
Q

Which of these conditions describes a blood vessel partitioned by an intimal flap into a true and false lumen?

Cyst

Dissecting Aneurysm

Aneurysm

Abscess

A

Dissecting Aneurysm

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21
Q

An organ infarct may be linked to which of the following? (choose all correct)

Laceration

Stenosis

Emboli

Dissection

A

All of the above

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22
Q

Which of the following is a kind of organ infarct? (Choose all correct)

MI

Ascites

TIA/CVA

Malignancy

A

MI

TIA/CVA

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23
Q

Which of these conditions appears in imaging as tissue ischemia and/or areas of poor contrast perfusion?

Malignancy

Abscess

Aneurysm

Infarct

A

Infarct

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24
Q

Which of these skull fractures is least likely to require intervention?

Linear skull fracture

Ping-pong fracture

Basilar skull fracture

Depressed skull fracture

A

Linear skull fracture

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25
Q

What is the most significant complication often associated with a depressed skull fracture?

All of the above

Epidural hemorrhage

CSF leaking

Dural tearing

A

Epidural hemorrhage

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26
Q

Which of these fractures are most likely to result in CSF leakage? (choose all correct)

Diastatic fracture

Ping-pong fracture

Depressed skull fracture

Basilar skull fracture

A

Diastatic fracture

Basilar skull fracture

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27
Q

Which of these fractures are most likely to affect children? (choose all correct)

Diastatic fracture

Depressed skull fracture

Basilar skull fracture

Ping-pong fracture

A

Diastatic fracture

Ping-pong fracture

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28
Q

Which of these fractures is most likely to be comminuted?

Basilar skull fracture

Ping-pong fracture

Diastatic fracture

Depressed skull fracture

A

Depressed skull fracture

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29
Q

Which of these fractures occur only along suture lines?

Diastatic fracture

Basilar skull fracture

Ping-pong fracture

Depressed skull fracture

A

Diastatic fracture

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30
Q

Which of these fractures is comparable to a green stick fracture in long bones?

Basilar skull fracture

Depressed skull fracture

Ping-pong fracture

Diastatic fracture

A

Ping-pong fracture

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31
Q

Which of these fractures is least likely to cause boney protrusion into the cranium?

Ping-pong fracture

None of these fractures intrude into the cranium.

Linear skull fracture

Depressed skull fracture

A

Linear skull fracture

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32
Q

Which of the following is considered the most serious linear skull fracture?

Diastatic fracture

Basilar skull fracture

Depressed skull fracture

Ping-pong fracture

A

Basilar skull fracture

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33
Q

Which of these areas are usually affected in a zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture? (choose all correct)

Nasal bones

Zygomatic arch

Orbital wall

Maxillary sinus

A

Zygomatic arch

Orbital wall

Maxillary sinus

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34
Q

Which of these fractures is associated with a floating face?

LeFort fractures

Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures

Blow-out fractures

Nasal fractures

A

LeFort fractures

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35
Q

Which of these are common complications associated with zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures? (Choose all correct)

Blood in the maxillary sinus

“Floating face”

Ocular injuries

Dural tearing

A

Blood in the maxillary sinus

Ocular injuries

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36
Q

Which of these fractures may result in injury to the maxillary sinus? (choose all correct)

Mandibular fracture

Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures

Nasal fractures

Blow-out fractures

A

Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures

Blow-out fractures

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37
Q

Which of these fractures follows the “ring rule”?

Blow-out fractures

Nasal fractures

Mandibular fractures

Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures

A

Mandibular fractures

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38
Q

Which of these fractures is most often related to a blow to the orbit?

Nasal fractures

Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures

LeFort fractures

Blow-out fractures

A

Blow-out fractures

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39
Q

Which of these injuries can sometime be associated with more serious injuries to the ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses?

Nasal fractures

Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures

Blow-out fractures

LeFort fractures

A

Nasal fractures

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40
Q

Which of these conditions may result in or contribute to dental abscess formation? (Choose all correct)

diabetes

radiation/chemotherapy

tooth infection

autoimmune disorders

A

All of the above

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41
Q

Which of these brain neoplasms is potentially fatal? (choose all correct)

Secondary brain cancer

Benign brain neoplasm

Primary brain cancer

Metastatic brain cancer

A

All of the above

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42
Q

What is the most common lesion of the brain?

Primary brain cancer

Gliomas

Benign brain neoplasm

Metastatic brain cancer

A

Metastatic brain cancer

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43
Q

What is the most common primary brain tumor?

Medulloblastoma

Pituitary adenoma

Meningiomas

Acoustic Neuroma

Astrocytoma

A

Astrocytoma

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44
Q

What is the most aggressive brain tumor?

Meningiomas

Acoustic Neuroma

Medulloblastoma

Astrocytoma

Pituitary adenoma

A

Medulloblastoma

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45
Q

Which of these lesions are most often malignant? (choose all correct)
Correct!

Astrocytoma

Acoustic Neuromas

Meningiomas

Pituitary adenoma

Medulloblastoma

A

Medulloblastoma

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46
Q

Which of these brain lesions is most likely to appear in multiples?

Metastatic brain cancer

Benign brain neoplasm

Primary brain cancer

Gliomas

A

Metastatic brain cancer

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47
Q

Which of these lesions generally grows on the periphery of the brain? (Choose all correct)

Astrocytoma

Meningiomas

Acoustic Neuromas

Medulloblastoma

Pituitary adenoma

A

Meningiomas

Acoustic Neuromas

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48
Q

Which of these lesions grows from the Schwann cell’s of the 8th cranial nerve?

Medulloblastoma

Acoustic Neuromas

Pituitary adenoma

Meningiomas

Astrocytoma

A

Acoustic Neuromas

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49
Q

Which of these lesions are most likely to be associated with hormonal imbalances?

Astrocytoma

Acoustic Neuromas

Pituitary adenoma

Meningiomas

Medulloblastoma

A

Pituitary adenoma

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50
Q

Which of these lesions grow primarily in the cerebellum/posterior fossa of the cranial cavity?

Medulloblastoma

Astrocytoma

Pituitary adenoma

Meningiomas

Acoustic Neuromas

A

Medulloblastoma

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51
Q

Lesions in the brain may be associated with which of these intracranial conditions? (choose all correct)

Bleeding

Mass effect

Ischemia

Edema

A

All of the above

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52
Q

Ischemic stroke may be a result of arterial interruption in which of these vessels? (choose all correct)

Descending aorta

Internal carotids

Basilar artery

Cerebral arteries

A

Internal carotids

Basilar artery

Cerebral arteries

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53
Q

Which of these conditions is the result of thrombosis or arterial stenosis? (choose one or both)

Hemorrhagic stroke

Ischemic stroke

A

Ischemic stroke

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54
Q

Which of these conditions causes a permanent loss of neurologic function? (choose one or both)

Hemorrhagic stroke

Ischemic stroke

A

All of the above

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55
Q

Which of these conditions is caused by blood extravasation in the brain? (choose one or both)

Hemorrhagic stroke

Ischemic stroke

A

Hemorrhagic stroke

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56
Q

Which of these conditions is also called an “intracranial bleed”? (choose one or both)

Hemorrhagic stroke

Ischemic stroke

A

Hemorrhagic stroke

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57
Q

Which of these conditions will always present in imaging as an area of infarct in the brain? (choose one or both)

Hemorrhagic stroke

Ischemic stroke

A

Ischemic stroke

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58
Q

Which of these conditions is the most likely to be lethal?

Ischemic stroke

Hemorrhagic stroke

A

Hemorrhagic stroke

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59
Q

Which of these bleeds generally occurs in the parenchyma (substance) of the brain? (choose all correct)

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

Intracranial bleed (ICB)

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

A

Intracranial bleed (ICB)

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60
Q

Which of these conditions can be further defined with angiographic/contrast enhanced imaging? (Choose all correct)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

Intracranial bleed (ICB)

Ischemic stroke

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH

A

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

Ischemic stroke

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61
Q

Which of these conditions is most likely to be associated with an aneurysm? (Choose all correct)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

Intracranial bleed (ICB)

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

A

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

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62
Q

Which of these conditions causes blood accumulation on the periphery of the brain? (Choose all correct)
You Answered

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

Intracranial bleed (ICB)

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

A

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

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63
Q

Which of these conditions is almost always the result of trauma to the brain? (Choose all correct)

Intracranial bleed (ICB)

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

A

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

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64
Q

Traumatic contusions in the brain are one form of which of the following conditions?

Intracranial bleed (ICB)

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

A

Intracranial bleed (ICB)

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65
Q

Which of these conditions is almost always associated with a skull fracture? (Choose all correct)

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

Intracranial bleed (ICB)

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

A

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

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66
Q

Which of following describes the appearance of a brain abscess in sectional imaging? (Choose all correct)

Often associated with hemorrhage

Often rim-enhancing

May shows areas of necrosis

May be associated with edema

A

Often rim-enhancing

May shows areas of necrosis

May be associated with edema

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67
Q

Which of these conditions is a result of infection in the brain? (Choose all correct)

Encephalitis

Meningitis

ICB

Brain abscess

A

Encephalitis
Meningitis
Brain abscess

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68
Q

Which of these conditions is rarely associated with bleeding in the brain? (Choose all correct)
You Answered

Metastatic brain cancer

Ischemic stroke

Meningitis

Cerebral Aneurysm

A

Ischemic stroke

Meningitis

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69
Q

Which of these conditions results in bleeding focused in the suprasellar cistern?

Intracranial bleed (ICB)

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

A

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

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70
Q

Which of these conditions may be secondary to cerebral atrophy?

Hydrocephalus

Meningitis

ICB

Brain abscess

A

Hydrocephalus

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71
Q

Define Chiari Malformation

A

best imaged in the sagittal plane

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72
Q

Define Cerebral Atrophy

A

related to dementia and aging

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73
Q

Define Arachnoid Cyst

A

presents as abnormal CSF collections formed by the subarachnoid membrane

74
Q

Define Hydrocephalus

A

imaged as CSF engorgement in the ventricles

75
Q

Define Multiple Sclerosis

A

active lesions enhance with contrast

76
Q

Which of these conditions sometimes coexist? (Choose two)

Spina Bifida

Tethered cord

Spinal Meningioma

Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

Spina Bifida

Tethered cord

77
Q

Which of these conditions results in abnormal stiffening of the vertebral column?

Spinal Meningioma

Tethered cord

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Spina Bifida

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

78
Q

What is the most common primary neoplasm of the spinal cord?

Spinal Metastasis

Spinal Meningioma

Astrocytoma

Spinal Ependymoma

A

Spinal Ependymoma

79
Q

What is most common area of the spine to identify spinal metastasis?

Thoracic Spine

Lumbar Spine

Sacral Spine

Cervical spine

A

Thoracic Spine

80
Q

Define Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

chronic spine inflammation resulting in abnormal vertebral stiffening and fusion

81
Q

Define Spinal Stenosis

A

progressive narrowing of the spinal canal and eventual impingement of the spinal cord

82
Q

Define Spondylolisthesis

A

anteriorly displacement of a vertebrae relative to the vertebra below it

83
Q

Define Subluxation

A

dislocation or displacement

84
Q

Define Compression fracture

A

result of excessive compressive force on spine

85
Q

Which of these lesions is most likely to appear in multiples?

Spinal Ependymoma

Spinal Meningioma

Spinal Metastasis

Astrocytoma

A

Spinal Metastasis

86
Q

Which of the lesions may grow from the spinal cord itself? (Choose all correct)

Spinal Ependymoma

Spinal Meningioma

Spinal Metastasis

A

Spinal Ependymoma

Spinal Metastasis

87
Q

Which of these lesions is most likely to be imaged growing in the vertebral column?

Spinal Metastasis

Spinal Meningioma

Spinal Ependymoma

A

Spinal Metastasis

88
Q

Which of these lesions will only be seen growing near the periphery of the spinal cord?

Spinal Ependymoma

Spinal Meningioma

Spinal Metastasis

A

Spinal Meningioma

89
Q

Which of these neoplasms is most likely to be associated with cystic developments in the intramedullary canal?

Spinal Meningioma

Spinal Ependymoma

Spinal Metastasis

A

Spinal Ependymoma

90
Q

Define Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

an autoimmune condition

91
Q

Define Tethered cord

A

visualized as an abnormally low conus medullaris

92
Q

Define Spina Bifida

A

characterized by incomplete closure in the vertebral canal

93
Q

Define Compression Fracture

A

caused by axial loading

94
Q

Which of the following tumors are malignant? (Choose all correct)

Spinal Ependymoma

Spinal Metastasis

Astrocytoma

Spinal Meningioma

A

Spinal Metastasis

Astrocytoma

95
Q

Which of these pathologies is sometimes accompanied by meningocele formation?

Spinal Meningioma

Spina Bifida

Tethered cord

Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

Spina Bifida

96
Q

Which of these conditions is sometimes accompanied by an intradural lipoma?

Spinal Meningioma

Spina Bifida

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Tethered cord

A

Tethered cord

97
Q

Define Spina bifida occulta

A

incomplete closure of the spinal column

98
Q

Define Meningocele

A

a collection of CSF formed by herniation of the meninges through an opening in the vertebral canal

99
Q

Define Myelomeningocele

A

herniation of the spinal cord through an opening in the vertebral canal

100
Q

Which of the following is a form of lung cancer? (choose all correct)

Bronchogenic Carcinoma

Primary lung cancer

Metastatic Lung Cancer

Interstitial Lung Disease

A

Bronchogenic Carcinoma

Primary lung cancer

Metastatic Lung Cancer

101
Q

Which of the following describes the appearance of lung cancer in specialty imaging? (choose all correct)

Poorly defined neoplasm

Single lesions only

Most common in the mediastinum

Rim-enhancing

A

Most common in the mediastinum

Rim-enhancing

102
Q

Pulmonary Fibrosis is a severe form of which of these conditions?

Interstitial Lung Disease

COPD

Bronchogenic Carcinoma

Tuberculosis

A

Interstitial Lung Disease

103
Q

Which of the following describes the imaging characteristics of pneumonia? (choose all correct)

small to large accumulations

rim-enhancing

Well-defined borders

Common near the fissures of the lower lobes

A

small to large accumulations

Common near the fissures of the lower lobes

104
Q

T/F: Pneumonia can infect the entire lung.

105
Q

Which of these pathologies are defined as an abnormal fluid accumulation in the thoracic cavity? (choose all correct)

Pneumothorax

Pleural effusion

Pericardial Effusion

Pneumonia

A

Pleural effusion

Pericardial Effusion

Pneumonia

106
Q

Which of these conditions might demonstrate necrosis and cavity formation in specialty imaging?

Pneumonia

Tuberculosis

Pleural effusion

Pericardial Effusion

A

Tuberculosis

107
Q

What may be responsible for the formation of a pneumothorax? (choose all correct)

Hemothorax

Surgery

Trauma

Spontaneous

A

Surgery

Trauma

Spontaneous

108
Q

Which of these conditions appear most similar on sectional imaging? (choose two)

Bronchogenic Carcinoma

Hemothorax

Pleural Effusion

Tuberculosis

A

Hemothorax

Pleural Effusion

109
Q

Which of these conditions are most likely to co-exist with a hemothorax? (choose all correct)

Fractures

Atelectasis

Interstitial Lung Disease

Pneumothorax

A

Fractures

Atelectasis

Pneumothorax

110
Q

Which of these conditions commonly exist secondary to primary or metastatic lung cancer? (choose all correct)

Pulmonary Embolism

Necrosis

Pleural effusions

Abscess formations

A

Necrosis

Pleural effusions

Abscess formations

111
Q

Which of the following are common causes of pneumonia? (choose all correct)

Chest trauma

Fungal infections

Chemical inhalation

Aspiration

A

All of the above

112
Q

Which of these conditions appear most similar in sectional imaging? (choose two)

Interstitial Lung Disease

COPD

Pneumothorax

Hemothorax

A

Interstitial Lung Disease

COPD

113
Q

Which of these pathologies have the most similar presentation in diagnostic imaging? (choose two)

Pleural effusion

Tuberculosis

Primary lung cancer

Pneumonia

A

Tuberculosis

Pneumonia

114
Q

Which of these conditions is imaged as progressive scarring of the lung tissue?

Hemothorax

Pneumothorax

COPD

Interstitial Lung Disease

A

Interstitial Lung Disease

115
Q

Define Cardiomegaly

A

enlargement of the heart for any reason

116
Q

Define CHF

A

a syndrome in which the heart can not adequately circulate blood through the body

117
Q

Define Myxoma

A

the most common beign tumors of the heart

118
Q

Define CAD

A

can resuly in myocardial infarction (MI)

119
Q

Define Pericardial Effusion

A

exccess fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac

120
Q

T/F: A patient diagnosed with CAD will invariably exhibit symptoms characteristic of MI.

121
Q

Which of the following is possible etiology of cardiomegaly? (choose all correct)

MVP

Cardiomyopathy

HTN

CHF

A

All of the above

122
Q

Which of these conditions is most likely to be associated with compensatory mechanism such as increased blood volume and increased myocardium muscle mass?

CAD

Pericardial Effusion

Myxoma

CHF

123
Q

Which of these conditions are most likely to be associated with changes in cardiac function? (choose all correct)

Pericardial effusion

CHF
Myxoma

MI

A

Pericardial effusion

CHF

MI

124
Q

Where is a myxoma most likely to be imaged?

Right Atrium

Left Atrium

Right Ventricle

Left Ventricle

A

Left Atrium

125
Q

Which of the following pathologies is imaged as filling a defect(s) in the coronary circulatory system?

CAD

Pericardial Effusion

CHF

Myxoma

126
Q

Which of these conditions will be accompanied by hematoma formation? Choose multiple if applicable.

Simple aneurysm

Ruptured Aneurysm

Dissecting aneurysm

A

Ruptured Aneurysm

127
Q

Which of these conditions appears in sectional imaging as an enlarged artery? Choose multiple if applicable.

Simple aneurysm

Ruptured Aneurysm

Dissecting aneurysm

A

All of the above

128
Q

Which of these conditions will present with an intimal flap? Choose multiple if applicable.

Dissecting aneurysm

Simple aneurysm

Ruptured Aneurysm

A

Dissecting aneurysm

129
Q

Which of these conditions is most likely to show contrast extravasation? Choose multiple if applicable.

Dissecting aneurysm

Ruptured Aneurysm

Simple aneurysm

A

Ruptured Aneurysm

130
Q

Which of these conditions appears in sectional imaging with a true and false lumen? Choose multiple if applicable.

Simple aneurysm

Ruptured Aneurysm

Dissecting aneurysm

A

Dissecting aneurysm

131
Q

Which of these conditions may account for the formation of a PE? (choose all correct)
Recent respiratory infection

pregnancy

recent surgery

immobility

A

All of the above

132
Q

What is the origin of a pulmonary embolism?

Peripheral artery thrombus formation

DVT dislodgment from the lower extremities

DVT dislodgement from the upper extremities

Spontaneous formation in the pulmonary trunk

A

DVT dislodgment from the lower extremities

133
Q

Which of the following describe imaging characteristics of pancreatitis? (Choose all correct)

Ascites

Reactive fluid

Pancreas inflammation

Pancreatic pseudocysts

A

All of the above

134
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the appearance of gastric cancer in sectional imaging? (Choose all correct)

gas-filled ulceration

focal wall thickening with mucosal irregularity

wall thickening with loss of normal rugal folding pattern

focal mass/polyp with or without ulceration

A

All of the above

135
Q

What is the most common location to visualize Crohn’s disease?

Terminal Ileum

Jejunum

Duodenum

Vesicular-Ureteral Junction

A

Terminal Ileum

136
Q

Which of the following statements are true concerning imaging of Crohn’s disease? (Choose all correct)

May be associate with abscess

May affect the mesentery

Shows chronic inflammation without remission

Imaged primarily as large bowel thickening

A

May be associate with abscess

May affect the mesentery

137
Q

Which of the following may be an underlying cause of SBO? (Choose all correct)

Lesion

Crohn’s disease

Pregnancy

Volvulus

A

All of the above

138
Q

What is the most common cancer of the GI tract?

Esophageal Cancer

Small Bowel Cancer

Gastric Cancer

Colo-rectal Cancer

A

Colo-rectal Cancer

139
Q

Which of these conditions is related to vascular insufficiency?

Ischemic colitis

Crohn’s disease

Infectious colitis

Ulcerative colitis

A

Ischemic colitis

140
Q

With of these conditions can be identified as bowel wall thickening? (Choose all correct)

Ischemic colitis

SBO

Ulcerative colitis

Crohn’s disease

A

Ischemic colitis

Ulcerative colitis

Crohn’s disease

141
Q

Which of these conditions is likely to be accompanied by ascites? (Choose all correct)
You Answered

Appendicitis

SBO

Ulcerative colitis

Cirrhosis

A

Ulcerative colitis

Cirrhosis

142
Q

Which of these conditions are idiopathic? (Choose all correct)

Cirrhosis

Ulcerative Colitis

SBO

Crohn’s disease

A

Ulcerative Colitis

Crohn’s disease

143
Q

What is the most important indication of SBO?

Bowel distention

Abscess

Bowel inflammation

Hemorrhage

A

Bowel distention

144
Q

What is the most common etiology of colon cancer?

Crohn’s disease

Ulcerative colitis

Colic ulcer

Polyp neoplasm

A

Polyp neoplasm

145
Q

What other pathologies are commonly associated with colon cancer? (Choose all correct)
Herniation

Abscess

Bowel obstruction

Inflammation

A

Abscess

Bowel obstruction

Inflammation

146
Q

Which of these conditions might be viewed as surface and parenchymal nodularity in the liver?

Secondary liver cancer

Cirrhosis

Laceration

Primary liver cancer

147
Q

Which of these conditions is most likely to present as standing and abscess formation in the RLQ?

Ulcerative colitis

Appendicitis

SBO

Colon cancer

A

Appendicitis

148
Q

Which of the following statement concerning liver cancer are true? (choose all correct)

Metastatic liver cancer will enhance during the venous phase of imaging

Metastatic liver cancer can be both singular or multi-focal

Primary liver cancer is more common than secondary liver cancer

Primary liver cancer will enhance during the arterial phase of imaging

A

Metastatic liver cancer will enhance during the venous phase of imaging

Metastatic liver cancer can be both singular or multi-focal

Primary liver cancer will enhance during the arterial phase of imaging

149
Q

T/F: Hemangiomas appear only in the liver.

150
Q

What is the most significant indication of hemangioma in sectional imaging?

Rim-enhancement

Delayed contrast enhancement

Absence of venous enhancement

No contrast enhancement

A

Delayed contrast enhancement

151
Q

Which of these are common causes of liver cirrhosis? (Choose all correct)

Renal failure

Alcoholism

Pancreatitis

Hepatitis

A

Alcoholism

Hepatitis

152
Q

Pericholecystic fluid accumulation is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?

Cholelithiasis

Pancreatic Cancer

Cirrhosis

Pancreatitis

A

Cholelithiasis

153
Q

Which of the following are imaging indications of organ laceration? (Choose all correct)

Limited or absence of contrast perfusion through the organ

Hematoma in the area of the organ

Contrast extravasation in or around the organ

Atypical contrast perfusion through the organ

A

All of the above

154
Q

Which of the following is a likely cause of organ infarct? (Choose all correct)

laceration

emboli

thrombus

arterial dissection

A

All of the above

155
Q

T/F: Lymphoma primarily affects the spleen.

156
Q

T/F: Malignant lesions identified in the spleen are most likely lymphoma.

157
Q

Which of the following statements are true concerning imaging of the spleen? (Choose all correct)

Malignant splenic lesions may appear as single or multi-focal

Patchy contrast enhancement during arterial imaging indicates splenic infarct or laceration

During the venous phase of contrast enhancement the spleen should appear homogenous

A

Malignant splenic lesions may appear as single or multi-focal

During the venous phase of contrast enhancement the spleen should appear homogenous

158
Q

Pancreatic cancers primarily affect what aspect of the pancreas?

Tail

Body

Head

159
Q

Which of the following best describe contrast enhancement of pancreatic tumors?

Delayed enhancement

Highly vascular

No contrast enhancement

Absence of venous enhancement

A

Delayed enhancement

160
Q

Gallstones can be related to which of the following conditions? (Choose all correct)

Cirrhosis

Cholecystitis

Pancreatitis

Gall bladder cancer

A

Cholecystitis

Pancreatitis

Gall bladder cancer

161
Q

What is the typical presentation of GB cancer? (Choose all correct)

Mass completely replacing the gallbladder

Notable GB atrophy

Wall thickening

Intraluminal mass

A

Mass completely replacing the gallbladder

Wall thickening

Intraluminal mass

162
Q

From where do renal stones originate?

Collecting system

VUJ

Bladder

Ureters

A

Collecting system

163
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describe PKD? (Choose all correct)

May be unilateral

Potentially affects other organs

Commonly associated with renal stones

Often results in renal failure

A

Potentially affects other organs

Often results in renal failure

164
Q

Uterine fibroids are also known as:

Leiomyoma

BPH

endometrial cancer

TCC

165
Q

Which of the following are common causes of renal stones? (Choose all correct)

low fluid intake

metabolic abnormalities

recurrent yeast infections

dehydration

A

low fluid intake

metabolic abnormalities

dehydration

166
Q

T/F: Wilm’s tumor is usually unilateral.

167
Q

Which of the following describes the early-stage appearance of endometrial cancer?

hemorrhage

loculations

necrosis

wall thickening

A

wall thickening

168
Q

Which of these conditions may be secondary to renal stone formation?

Hydronephrosis

Renal cancer

PKD

Horseshoe kidney

A

Hydronephrosis

169
Q

What aspect of the kidney can be affected by renal cell carcinoma (RCC)? (Choose all correct)

collecting system

medulla

Gerota’s fascia

cortex

A

collecting system

medulla

cortex

170
Q

What is the most common cause of kidney laceration?

Infarct

Hemorrhage

Trauma

Thrombus

171
Q

Which of the following statements are true concerning RCC? (Choose all correct)

unifocal or multifocal

general kidney atrophy

necrosis in large lesions

calcification in 30% of lesions

A

unifocal or multifocal

necrosis in large lesions

calcification in 30% of lesions

172
Q

Wilm’s tumor is most likely to affect which of the following demographics?

Smokers

Males

Elderly

Children

173
Q

Define Horseshoe kidney

A

Congenital condition in which the kidneys are fused together at the upper and lower poles.

174
Q

Define Wilm’s tumor

A

visualized as a large mass completely replacing the kidneys and filling one side of the abdominal cavity.

175
Q

Define Renal Cancer

A

most common malignancy of the kidneys

176
Q

Which of the following are likely indicators of bladder cancer? (Choose all correct)

hydronephrosis

asymmetrical wall thickening

renal stone

focal mass lesion

A

asymmetrical wall thickening

focal mass lesion

177
Q

Which of the following describes potential characteristics of adrenal lesions (Choose all correct)

metastatic

cystic

malignant

benign

A

All of the above

178
Q

Which of the following describes the appearance of uterine fibroids in sectional imaging? (Choose all correct)

Solid

Calcified

Cystic

Variable size

A

Variable size

179
Q

What is the distinguishing feature of ovarian cancer?

Wall thickening

General enlargement

Cystic changes

Rim-enhancement

A

General enlargement

180
Q

Which of the following imaging characteristics indicate prostate cancer as opposed to BPH? (Choose all correct)

General enlargement

urine outflow obstructions

lymphadenopathy

asymmetry

A

lymphadenopathy

asymmetry

181
Q

By what age will 90% of men have some degree of BPH?

80

60

90

70

182
Q

Which of these conditions is most likely to metastasize?

Wilm’s tumor

Urolithiasis

BPH

Uterine leiomyoma

A

Wilm’s tumor

MRI Pathology - SDI 304 (1 decks)

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