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MRI Patient Care & Safety - SDI314 > Final review > Flashcards

Final review Flashcards

1
Q

What is a normal pulse rate for a healthy adult

A

60-100 beats/minute

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2
Q

Systolic blood pressure corresponds with the contraction of which chamber of the heart

A

Left ventricle contraction

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3
Q

What is a normal blood pressure

A

120/80 or less

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4
Q

Diastolic blood pressure corresponds to

A

Ventricular diastole or ventricular relaxation

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5
Q

Initial electrical impulse in the heart is generated by the

A

Sinus node

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6
Q

An elevated ST segment on an EKG indicates what

A

Myocardial infarction

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7
Q

Which reasons might a patient’s pulse ox reading fall below 90%

A

Sleep apnea

Poorly placed oximetry sensor

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Cardiac arrest

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8
Q

Which aspect of the EKG rhythm strip represents the electrical conduction through the atria of the heart

A

P segment (the first little bump)

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9
Q

Which aspect of the EKG rhythm strips represents the electrical activity of the ventricles during diastole e

A

T segment

small little bump at the end

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10
Q

Normal range for BUN

A

7-21 mg/dL

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11
Q

What factors can cause creatinine levels to fluctuate

A

Age

Muscle mass

Hydration

Gender

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12
Q

Which tests are used for renal function

A

BUN

Creatinine

GFR

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13
Q

Which tests are hematology tests

A

Hematocrit

Hemoglobin

Platelets

WBC

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14
Q

What tests are coagulation tests

A

PT (Prothrombin time)

PTT (Partial thromboplastin time)

INR (International standardized ratio)

ACT (activated coagulation time)

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15
Q

What is the normal range for creatinine

A

0.7-1.5mg/dL

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16
Q

What is the normal GFR range

A

90-120

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17
Q

A GFR below 90 would indicate what

A

Poor renal function

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18
Q

A GFR below 30 would indicate

A

Potential renal failure

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19
Q

A BUN over 50 would indicate

A

Potential renal failure

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20
Q

A creatinine over 2 indicates what

A

Potential renal failure

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21
Q

What factors are used to calculate a patient’s GFR

A

Creatinine level

Age

Gender

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22
Q

What represents the amount of red blood cells in whole blood

A

Hematocrit

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23
Q

Which lab tests may help to indicate if a patient has anemia

A

Hemoglobin

Hematocrit

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24
Q

Which lab tests May indicate bleeding or blood loss

A

Hematocrit

Hemoglobin

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25
Q

What lab test may indicate a patient’s potential for bleeding

A

Platelet count

PTT

PT

INR

ACT

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26
Q

What is a normal hemoglobin range for males

A

14-17

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27
Q

What is a normal hemoglobin range for females

A

12-15

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28
Q

A software program that allows for digital documentation of all patient health information

A

EHR

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29
Q

This system has replaced hard copy and film storage systems in most Radiology departments

A

PACS

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30
Q

“Meaningful use” is a set of electronic medical records standards as governed by

A

Center for Medicare and Medicaid services (CMS)

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31
Q

An information-sharing system unique to the diagnostic imaging department is identified as

A

RIS

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32
Q

The acronym PACS stands for

A

Picture archiving and communication system

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33
Q

A PACS program consists of what three things

A

Storage device

Display workstation

Imaging modality

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34
Q

The acronym RIS stands for

A

Radiology information system

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35
Q

Definitions for appropriate sharing of personally identified health information is largely provided by

A

Health insurance portability and accountability Act (HIPAA)

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36
Q

Define embolism

A

Anything blocking a vessel

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37
Q

Define thrombus

A

Clotting within a vessel

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38
Q

Define thrombotic embolism

A

Condition in which the formation or movement of a thrombus occludes a vessel causing infarction of the tissues being supplied by the vessel

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39
Q

Define CVA

A

A critical condition in which a thrombus in the brain causes irreversible damage to brain cells

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40
Q

Define TIA

A

Focal cerebral ischemia not associated with permanent cerebral infarction

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41
Q

How long do the symptoms of a TIA typically last

A

Less than 1 hour

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42
Q

Which of the following terms are synonymous

Ischemic stroke

Transient ischemic attack

Cerebral infarct

Cerebrovascular accident

A

Ischemic stroke

Cerebral infarct

Cerebrovascular accident

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43
Q

Which signs/symptoms are often associated with CVA

A

Acute confusion

Permanent brain infarction

Acute dysphasia

Unilateral weakness

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44
Q

Define cardiogenic shock

A

A physiologic state in which inadequate tissue perfusion results from cardiac dysfunction

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45
Q

Define myocardial infarction

A

Irreversible necrosis of heart muscle secondary to prolonged ischemia

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46
Q

Define congestive heart failure

A

A clinical syndrome in which the heart fails to pump blood at the rate required by the metabolizing tissues

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47
Q

Define cardiac tamponade

A

A clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space

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48
Q

Which of these compensatory mechanisms are associated with CHF

Increased blood volume

Increased cardiac filling pressure

Decreased heart rate

Decreased myocardial mass

A

Increased blood volume

Increased cardiac filling pressure

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49
Q

Which of the following is a critical cardiac arrhythmia

Ventricular tachycardia

Atrial fibrillation

Ventricular fibrillation

Asystole

A

Ventricular tachycardia

Ventricular fibrillation

Asystole

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50
Q

Which of these cardiac conditions can cause inadequate ventricular filling in the presence of a healthy myocardium

Myocardial infarction

Congestive heart failure

Cardiogenic shock

Cardiac tamponade

A

Cardiac tamponade

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51
Q

Which of these conditions typically occurs secondary to myocardial infarction

Cardiogenic shock

Cardiac tamponade

Congestive heart failure

Transient ischemic attack

A

Cardiogenic shock

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52
Q

Which of these conditions is caused by a thrombus in the coronary arteries

Congestive heart failure

Cardiac tamponade

Myocardial infarction

Cardiogenic shock

A

Myocardial infarction

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53
Q

Which of the following can cause respiratory arrest

Trauma

Airway obstruction

Respiratory muscle weakness

Decreased respiratory drive

A

All of them

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54
Q

Which of the following are clinical signs of anaphylaxis

Hypertension

Airway edema

Vasoconstriction

Mucus secretions

A

Airway edema

Mucus secretions

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55
Q

Hypotension and hypertension are always secondary to other clinical conditions true or false

A

False

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56
Q

Which of the following could potentially cause a vasovagal response

Anxiety

Fear

Medications

Pain

A

All of them

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57
Q

Which of the following are considered common vasovagal responses

Fainting

Spontaneous arrhythmias

Syncope

Death

A

Fainting

Syncope

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58
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the intended effect of contrast agent administration in medical imaging

Enhance tissue discrimination

Differentiate between normal tissues

Differentiate between normal tissues and abnormalities

Stimulate physiological response in abnormal tissues

A

Enhanced issue discrimination

Differentiate between normal tissues

Differentiate between normal tissues and abnormalities

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59
Q

Tissue differentiation in sonography imaging is based on

A

Tissue harmonics

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60
Q

Tissue differentiation in MRI imaging is based on

A

Variable nuclear resonance

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61
Q

Tissue differentiation in Interventional Imaging is based on

A

Differential attenuation of the radiation beam

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62
Q

Tissue differentiation in a computed tomography is based on

A

Differential attenuation of the radiation beam

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63
Q

Which of these materials would be correctly described as paramagnetic

Iodine

Air

Microbubbles

Iron

64
Q

Differential ultrasonic imaging may be enhanced with what type of contrast

A

Microbubbles

65
Q

Describe what effect a non-toxic contrast agent has on the body

A

Unless it’s minimal adverse effects in the body

66
Q

Describe what effect a stable contrast agent has on the body

A

Does not break down in the body

67
Q

Describe what effect an inert contrast agent has on the body

A

Does not readily react with other chemicals or medications

68
Q

Describe what effect contrast agent specificity has on the body

A

Engages only the organs or tissues it is intended to affect

69
Q

A contrast material requiring a large volume injection to produce the necessary image contrast would be described as having poor

A

Carrier efficiency

70
Q

The harmonic qualities of tissues and materials is a physical characteristic most relevant to which imaging modality

A

Sonography

71
Q

The administration of a gadolinium nanoparticle for an MRI procedure would have the most pronounced effect on which aspect of the digital image

Spatial resolution

Temporal resolution

Contrast resolution

Digital matrix size

A

Contrast resolution

72
Q

A patient in your department is injected with an iodonated contrast material. Which of these reactions would be described as a normal, non-idiosyncratic response to the contrast agent

Sensations of warmth

Persistent vomiting

Pulmonary edema

Scattered urticaria

A

Sensations of warmth

73
Q

Mild palpitations, tachycardia, and bradycardia are all symptoms of which level of contrast reaction

Non-idiosyncratic
Moderate

Mild

Severe

74
Q

With which of these symptoms of a contrast reaction to the administration of contrast be stopped immediately

Laryngeal edema

Bronchospasm

Hives

Dizziness

A

All of them

75
Q

Define diaphoresis

76
Q

Define urticaria

77
Q

Define pruritus

78
Q

Define rhinorrhea

A

Runny nose

79
Q

Define retching

A

Dry heaving

80
Q

Define laryngeal edema

A

Throat swelling

81
Q

The imager’s response to a contrast reaction should include

Call for nursing and physician on staff

Have contrast reaction kit and O2 mask on hand

Acquire vital signs

Be prepared to call a code blue if necessary

A

All of them

82
Q

A patient presented to your department has a regular bowel incontinence and has an accident on the examination table it was later determined that patient has c-diff as a consequence of inadequate cleaning of the exam table at least one other patients can do later in the day develops the same infection this type of infection is referred to as

A

Nosocomial

83
Q

Acquiring an infectious agent while bathing a patient is what kind of transmission

A

Direct contact

84
Q

Influenza requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Droplet isolation

85
Q

Acquiring an infectious agent through the hospital ventilation system is what kind of transmission

86
Q

Another word for aseptic technique

A

Sterile technique

87
Q

What procedure is focused on the absence of pathogenic organisms but does not require items to be sterile

A

Medical asepsis

88
Q

Procedures including hand washing, routine equipment cleaning, and proper personal hygiene are considered

A

Medical asepsis

89
Q

What procedures should be followed any time the patient’s skin is intentionally perforated

A

Sterile technique

90
Q

What procedures should be used during procedures involving entry into the peritoneal cavity

A

Sterile technique

91
Q

Another term for “clean technique”

A

Medical asepsis

92
Q

What procedure is required during IV catheter insertion

A

Sterile technique

93
Q

Which of the following applies to a patient with standard precautions

Hand hygiene

Safe injection practices

Use of personal protective equipment

Respiratory hygiene/cough edicate

A

All of them

94
Q

Which of the following is a transmission based infection precaution

Contact isolation

Droplet isolation

Standard precaution

Airborne isolation

A

Contact isolation

Droplet isolation

Airborne isolation

95
Q

What isolation precaution is applicable to a patient with an infectious condition that may be transmitted through skin-to-skin contact

A

Contact isolation

96
Q

Which precaution is most relevant when a patient care is an infectious agent that can be carried by sputum droplets through the air

A

Droplet isolation

97
Q

Pneumonia requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Droplet isolation

98
Q

Meningitis requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Droplet isolation

99
Q

What type of isolation precaution is used for all patients at all times

A

Standard precautions

100
Q

Which type of isolation precautions require special air handling units

A

Airborne isolation

101
Q

Tuberculosis requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Airborne isolation

102
Q

What type of isolation precaution is most relevant when infectious agents can be suspended in air for long periods of time over long distances

A

Airborne isolation

103
Q

MRSA requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Contact isolation

104
Q

C-diff requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Contact isolation

105
Q

Acquiring an infectious agent by touching a contaminated door handle is what kind of transmission

A

Indirect contact

106
Q

876 year old female is brought to your department for imaging of the abdomen. The patient is in contact isolation for MRSA. To avoid transmitting this infection to other patients you should

Shut down the room after the patients departure

Wash your hands after the procedure

Wear a fitted surgical mask during the examination

Disinfect any equipment used for imaging

A

Wash your hands after the procedure

Disinfect and equipment used for imaging

107
Q

Which precaution is most relevant when infectious agents may be spread through a contaminated EKG machine

A

Contact isolation

108
Q

VRE requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Contact isolation

109
Q

What type of precaution is the most relevant when a patient care is an infectious agent that may be spread through talking, sneezing, or coughing

A

Droplet isolation

110
Q

You receive a requisition in your department to complete an imaging procedure of a patient’s lower extremity. This patient has VRE. An appropriate way of minimizing potential infection to other patients in this situation is

Perform the exam portably in the patient’s room

Wear a mask during the examination

Request the patient wears a mask during the examination

Perform the exam in a negative pressure room

A

Perform the exam portably in the patient’s room

111
Q

Reusing gloves between patients is most likely to result in what kind of infection transmission

Influenza

C-diff

Meningitis

Pneumonia

112
Q

What factors potentially affect the human body’s response to a medication

A

Patient weight

Patient immune status

Patient gender

Patient age

113
Q

Define duration of action

A

The time during which the drug is in the body and elicits a therapeutic response

114
Q

Define onset of action

A

The point at which a drug reaches its intended effect

115
Q

Define maximum Peak

A

This is when a drug reaches its highest potential and begins to subside

116
Q

Define antagonist

A

A drug or natural substance that is attracted to and blocks specific receptor sites

117
Q

Define therapeutic index (TI)

A

A measure of the relative safety of a drug

118
Q

Define drug receptors

A

Specific biologic sites located on a cell surface or within the cell

119
Q

Define Agonist

A

A drug or natural substance with an attraction to a specific receptor site that produces a physiologic response

120
Q

Which of the following represents the most desirable therapeutic index

10: 1
1: 1
2: 1
200: 1

121
Q

Define narcotic

A

Opium-based or opium-like pain relievers

122
Q

Define analgesic

A

Pain relievers

123
Q

Define sedatives

A

A drug that calms anxiety

124
Q

Define antibiotics

A

A soluble substance derived from a mold or bacteria that kills or inhibits the growth of other microorganisms

125
Q

Define anxiolytics

A

An anti-anxiety medication

126
Q

Define antiemetic

A

A drug that prevents or minimizes nausea and vomiting

127
Q

Define anticoagulant

A

A drug that prevents or reduces the coagulation of blood

128
Q

Define vasoconstrictors

A

A drug causing increased blood pressure

129
Q

Define anti-arrhythmic

A

A medication that may prevent tachycardia

130
Q

Define thrombolytics

A

A clot dissolving medication

131
Q

Define vasodilators

A

A drug causing relaxation and opening of blood vessels

132
Q

What drug classification do calcium channel blockers fall under

A

Anti-arrhythmic

133
Q

What drug classification does epinephrine fall under

A

Vasoconstrictor

134
Q

What drug classification does Xanax fall under

A

Anxiolytic

135
Q

What drug classification does tPA fall under

A

Thrombolytic

136
Q

What drug classification does Zofran fall under

A

Antiemetic

137
Q

What drug classification does fentanyl fall under

138
Q

What drug classification does Valium fall under

139
Q

What drug classification does tetracycline fall under

A

Antibiotic

140
Q

What drug classification does Coumadin fall under

A

Anticoagulant

141
Q

What drug classification does aspirin fall under

A

Antiplatelet

Analgesic

Anticoagulant

142
Q

What drug classification does morphine fall under

143
Q

Which of these drugs is known to increase heart rate, constrict blood vessels, dilate air passages, and stimulate the sympathetic nervous response

Benadryl

Oxygen

Albuterol

Epinephrine

A

Epinephrine

144
Q

Which of these medications might be valuable to a patient having a respiratory reaction to ICM

Atropine

Albuterol

Atenolol

Oxygen

A

Albuterol

Oxygen

145
Q

Which of these medications function as an immunosuppressant to counteract hives and/or itching

Epinephrine

Solu-Medrol

Benadryl

Atropine

A

Benadryl

Solu-Medrol

146
Q

Which of these medications would be valuable to a patient experiencing hypotension or bradycardia during and medication reaction

Benadryl

Atropine

Versed

Epinephrine

A

Epinephrine

Atropine

147
Q

What medication types. The body’s inflammatory response to iodinated contrast

Diazepam

Solu-Medrol

Epinephrine

Benadryl

A

Solu-Medrol

Benadryl

148
Q

Which of these medications would be useful to a patient experiencing acute dyspnea? (choose all correct)

Epinephrine
Albuterol
Zofran
Oxygen

A

Epinephrine
Albuterol
Oxygen

149
Q

A patient with atrial fibrillation is prone to ischemia stroke as a result of blood thrombi formed in the heart and deposited in the cerebrum. Examples of medications that may reduce the risk of stroke for this patient are: (choose all correct)

warfarin
epinephrine
diazepam
heparin

A

warfarin

heparin

150
Q

A patient with severe pulmonary edema is brought to your department for an examination of the lungs. A patient with this condition is likely to be on which of these medications?

Atropine
Lasix
Normal saline
Epinephrine

151
Q

CT angiography of the heart is sometimes performed prior to ablation procedures in patients with atrial fibrillation. Which of these medications may help to stabilize the rhythm of the heart during the CT angiography study?

Antibiotic
Antiemetic
Narcotic
Beta-blocker

A

Beta-blocker

152
Q

Describe deep sedation

A

limited response to stimuli

153
Q

Describe general anesthesia

A

requires significant support of vital functions

154
Q

Describe anxiolysis sedation

A

relaxes patient and reduced anxiety

155
Q

Describe conscious sedation

A

patient follows specific instructions

156
Q

Which of these medications are likely to be used together for sedation and analgesia during a radiology procedure? (choose all correct)

midazolam
hydromorphone
morphine
fentanyl

A

midazolam

fentanyl

157
Q

When should vital signs be assessed for a patient scheduled for an interventional procedure requiring some level of sedation? (choose all correct)

after the procedure
before the procedure
only during deep sedation
during the procedure

A

after the procedure
before the procedure
during the procedure

MRI Patient Care & Safety - SDI314 (1 decks)

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