Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Movement and Exercise Science > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Name the three main sensory systems that pertain to balance and posture.

A
  1. Vestibular
  2. Vision
  3. Somatosensory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is stability?

A

The ability to maintain your CoM within your BoS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is considered normal for neutral pelvis AP rotation?

A

~15 degrees of anterior tilt is considered normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the muscles that are tight and weak in a person with a Flat back posture.

A

Tight hamstrings

weak rectus femoris and iliopsoas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the muscles that are tight and weak in a person with a sway back posture.

A

Tight hamstrings
Weak rectus femoris, external obliques, and hip flexors.

Tend to be kyphotic in the Thoracic spine and increased lordosis in the c-spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name the muscles that are tight and weak in a person with a kyphosis - lordosis posture.

A

Weak hamstrings, Abs, and back extensors

Tight Quads, neck extensors, hip flexors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the spine levels that lines up with the spine of the scapula, the iliac crests, and the PSIS.

A

Spine of the scapula = T3
Iliac crests = L4 or L5
PSIS = S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is considered okay for leg length discrepancy?

A

1 to 1.5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is scoliosis in the spine?

A

It is a lateral shift of the spine in the frontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which direction from the midline do Varus and Valgus alignment go?

A 
Varus = away from the midline
Valgus = toward the midline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a windswept deformity?

A

Genu varum in one knee and Genu valgum in the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If the angle of the head of the femur and the shaft of the femur is too small, what kind of alignment will we see in the knee?

A

Knee valgus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If the angle of the head of the femur and the shaft of the femur is too big, what kind of alignment will we see in the knee?

A

Knee varus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A person that has anteverted hips will have what alignment in the feet?

A

Pigeon toed (internal rotation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A person that has retroverted hips will have what alignment in the feet?

A

Duck footed (outward rotation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What movement does thoracic kyphosis primarily limit? why?

A

It limits flexion and possibly abduction at the shoulder due the scapula being anteriorly tilted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why is it so hard for people to not hyperextend their knees in standing?

A

Line of gravity is anterior tot the axis of rotation

Postural adjustments above and below the knee can cause hyperextension. (e.g. tight PFs, anterior pelvic tilt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What movements happen in the sagittal plane?

A

Flexion and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What movements happen in the frontal plane?

A

Abduction and adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What movements happen in the transverse plane?

A

Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two components of Kinematics?

A

Rotation and translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are arthrokinematics?

A

Describes motion that occurs between the articular surfaces of the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What three movements are associated with arthrokinematics?

A

Roll
Slide/glide
Spin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name the three laws developed by Newton.

A

Law of inertia
Law of acceleration
Law of Action-reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the law of inertia

A

A body at rest or at a constant linear/angular velocity except when compelled by a force to change its state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the law of acceleration

A

Linear acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the force causing it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Law of Action-Reaction

A

For every action there is a opposite and equal reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name the 5 types of forces

A 
Shear
Compression
Tension
Torsion
Combined loading
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does the tension change in a ligament that is continued to be lengthened following recruitment of all of its fibers?

A

Tension drastically increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does creep affect ligaments?

A

It will cause the to lengthen over a period of time making them less effective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Give an example of hysteresis of a ligament.

A

Marathon runner’s ACL length at the beginning of a run vs. length at the end of the marathon. It will have gotten longer due to sustained load and the ligament loses its tension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is it called when the physical properties of the stress strain curve change as a function of time?

A

Visco-elastic properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the three subsystems of Panjabi’s Model

A

Neural subsystem
Passive Osteoligamentous subsytem
Active Muscular subsystem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the role of the passive osteoligamentous subsystem?

A

Contributes the most to stability

Act as dynamic, active mechanoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the role of the active muscular subsystem?

A

Force generation

Mechanoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the role of the neural control subsystem?

A

Receives information

Determines specific requirements for joint function

Causes the active muscular subsystem to achieve the desired outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the contraindications of AROM or PROM?

A

If motion might disrupt healing

If a fracture or dislocation is suspected

If ossification in the muscle is suspected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A lesion of which nerve could cause winging of the scapula?

A

Long Thoracic Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does the rotator cuff muscles help prevent impingement?

A

by pulling the humeral and down and in during abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define a discrete motor skill.

A

A movement with an identifiable beginning and end e.g. a pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define a serial motor skill.

A

Several discrete movements together in a series e.g. playing piano

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define a continuous motor skill

A

Walking, running, or swimming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the goal of balance?

A

Maintain appropriate orientation of the body relative to the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which joint to people tend to move at during strong perturbations?

A

The hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Give examples of internal perturbations.

A

Taking a step
Lifting objects
Bending

46
Q

Define CoP

A

the centre of the distribution of the total force applied to the support surface

47
Q

How would you progress UE movements?

A

Casual movements –> rapid movements –> loaded movements

48
Q

How would you isolate the visual system for balance?

A

Compliant surface

Head tilt

49
Q

How would you isolate the somatosensory system for balance?

A

Firm surface
Eyes closed
Head tilt

50
Q

How would you isolate the vestibular system for balance?

A

Compliant surface

Eyes closed

51
Q

Define the ages of newborns, infants, children, and adolescents.

A

New borns = 1 to 28 days
Infants = up to 12 months
Children = 1 to 10 yrs
Adolescents = 10 to 19 yrs

52
Q

Describe clubfoot and its treatment.

A

A condition in which one or both feet are twisted into an abnormal position at birth

Treatment: casting

53
Q

What causes longitudinal growth of muscle?

A

Tension

54
Q

What causes increase in muscle thickness?

A

active stress of exercise

55
Q

Which type of muscle atrophies more with denervation?

A

Type II

56
Q

What other conditions demonstrate similar signs to ITW?

A

CP and autism

57
Q

What is the physio intervention for ITW?

A

Casts
Work on PROM and then recast as appropriate
Fit for night splints

58
Q

What is a brachial plexus lesion characterized by in a infant?

A

Arm is medially rotated, elbow is extended and forearm is pronated

59
Q

What muscle is shortened in Congenital Torticollis?

A

SCM

60
Q

What is the usual cause of plagiocephaly/brachycephaly?

A

Usually due to babies not being put on their tummies enough

61
Q

What are the three factors influecing typical skeletal modelling?

A

Genetic coding
Nutrition
Combination of various mechanical forces imposed over time

62
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta better known as?

A

Brittle bone disease

63
Q

What is the cause of Rickets disease?

A

Due to a deficiency in vitamin D and C as a child

64
Q

What are the WHO classifications of aging?

A

Elderly = 60-75
Old = 76-90
Very old = 90 +

65
Q

What is Senescence?

A

It is a term to describe the group deleterious effects that lead to a decrease in the efficient functioning with increasing age, and to an increased probability of death

66
Q

What is the progression of the CTSIB?

A
  1. Firm surface, eyes open
  2. firm surface, eyes closed
  3. Firm surface, inaccurate visual info
  4. compliant surface
  5. Compliant surface, eyes closed
  6. compliant surface, inaccurate visual info.
67
Q

What are two adaptations to the periarticular tissue that occur with aging?

A

increased stiffness of the ligaments and tendons

Decrease in the length at which rupture occurs

68
Q

What are three adaptations to the articular cartilage that are seen with aging?

A

potential increase in susceptibility to mechanical failure
Reduced water content
Disruption of collagen

69
Q

What are 3 adaptations to bone that are seen with aging?

A

Progressive loss of bone density
More vulnerable to fracture
May affect posture as well

70
Q

What happens to the spinal curvature with age?

A

lordosis decreases and kyphosis increases

71
Q

What is the closed-packed position of the GH joint?

A

external rotation and abduction

72
Q

What is the closed-packed position of the AC joint

A

Arm abducted to 90 degrees

73
Q

What is the closed-packed position of the ulno-hemoral joint?

A

extension

74
Q

What is the closed-packed position of the hip?

A

Medial rotation, extension, and abduction

75
Q

What is the closed-packed position of the knee

A

full extension

76
Q

What is the closed-packed position of the ankle?

A

Dorsiflexion and eversion

77
Q

What are 4 common considerations to make during a movement analysis?

A

Effect of environment

Coordinated behaviour

Nature of the movement

Movement phases

78
Q

What are the three requirements for independent locomotion?

A

Progression
Stability
Adaptation

79
Q

Classify the young walkers.

A

8 to 11 months = pre-walkers
12 to 18 months = new walkers
18 to 24 months = experienced walkers

80
Q

Name the 5 attributes of gait.

A 
Stability in stance
Foot clearance in swing
Pre-position of the foot in terminal stance
Adequate step length
Energy conservation
81
Q

What are the two stages of gait development?

A
  1. balance control (3-6 months)

2. Refinement of locomotion pattern (5-7 yrs)

82
Q

Name 4 main characteristics of pre-walker gait.

A
  1. Forward lean
  2. Large BOS
  3. Uneven step lengths
  4. Short swing phase
83
Q

Name 4 main characteristics of New walkers.

A
  1. Increased cadence
  2. Relative foot drop
  3. High stepping gait
  4. Lordosis
84
Q

Name 4 main characteristics of experienced walkers

A
  1. Decrease in BOS
  2. Foot drop disappears
  3. Decrease in lordosis
  4. Heel strike at initial contact
85
Q

What are 4 characteristics of mature gait?

A 
Duration of SLS
Walking velocity
Cadence
Step length
Ratio of pelvic span to ankle spread
86
Q

Name 3 functional gait assessments.

A
  1. TUG
  2. 6MWT
  3. Functional Gait Assessment
87
Q

Why do we walk with an inverted pendulum motion?

A

To reduce the change in the vertical displacement of our CoM

88
Q

When is our CoM highest during walking?

A

Midstance

89
Q

Where would the most amount of energy be required?

A

When CoM is lowest
@ 5% (loading phase)
@ 55% (Terminal Stance phase)

90
Q

In which direction does the GRF act during initial contact?

A

posteriorly

91
Q

What is considered a comfortable cadence?

A

80 - 110 steps per minute

92
Q

What are three temporal characteristics of gait?

A

Cadence
Stance time
Swing time
Stride time

93
Q

What are 4 spatial parameters of gait?

A

Stride length
Step length
Step width
Foot progression angle

94
Q

What will cause greater disruption to gait patterns: hip flexion decreased ROM or Hip extension decreased ROM?

A

Hip extension because it gets closer to max

95
Q

What is the typical range that the hip goes through during walking?

A

30 degrees of flexion to 10 degrees of extension

96
Q

People with swelling in their knees tend to walk with more flexion or extension?

A

Flexion

97
Q

What ankle movement would cause more disruption to walking: DF or PF?

A

DF

98
Q

What is the typical range that the ankle goes through during walking?

A

10 degrees of DF to 20 degrees of PF

99
Q

Describe what is meant by Support Moment?

A

If one joint has a decreased moment, the other joints must compensate in order to maintain functional gait

100
Q

Name three important factors from the hip, knee and ankle joints for Sit-to-stand

A
  1. hip ROM
  2. Knee extensor strength
  3. Dorsiflexion ROM
101
Q

Name the three movement strategies for going from Sit-to-stand.

A

Momentum Transfer Strategy
Exaggerated Trunk Flexion
Dominant Vertical Strategy

102
Q

Describe the momentum transfer strategy.

A

Horizontal momentum into vertical momentum effectively. No exaggeration of hip flexion
No use of arms

103
Q

Describe Exaggerated Trunk Flexion strategy

A

placing CoM over their feet before take off
May result from Quad weakness
w/o assistance from momentum transfer

104
Q

Describe Dominant vertical strategy.

A

Less forward trunk flexion
Can reduce hip joint moment by 50% due to use of arms
Typically adopted if arms are used to stand up

105
Q

What are the 4 main factors that influence sit to stand ability?

A 
Chair height
Chair type
Arm rests
Foot position
Personal determinants
106
Q

What are the personal determinants of sit to stand?

A 
LE muscle strength
ROM
Disease
balance
pain
Need roughly 90 to 110 degrees of knee flexion
107
Q

What are the 4 phases of sit to stand

A

Flexion momentum
Momentum transfer
Extension
Stabilitzation

108
Q

Is knee extensor strength important to perform a sit to stand independently? Why?

A

Yes! because if your knee extensor strength is below 28 % BW than you will have difficulty standing independently even with other strategies.

109
Q

Is knee extensor the only thing that needs to trained during rehab to gain the ability to perform a sit to stand?

A

No, there is coordination and balance involved as well.

110
Q

Can STS be used as a measure of strength/strengthening exercise?

A

No, unless you lower the seat and also not in healthy people

More of an endurance test

111
Q

What are the pre-reqs for successful sit to stand?

A 
Coordination
Stability
ROM
Strength
Appropriate environment.

Movement and Exercise Science (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions