Final Review Flashcards

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0
Q

Snell’s law describes physics of

A

refraction

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1
Q

Name the three components of attenuation

A

Scattering, Absorption, reflection

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2
Q

If the power is unchanged and the beam area doubles, what happens to the intensity?

A

it halves

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3
Q

If intensity goes up by 25%, what happens to power?

A

it goes up 25%

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4
Q

Reflection requires the media to have different

A

Impedance

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5
Q

Wavelength has the greatest effect on

A

Axial resolution

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6
Q

If the PRF increases, the duty factor

A

increases

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7
Q

Longitudinal waves are parallel to the axis of the wave propagation where as transverse waves are perpendicular to the wave propagation. T or F

A

True

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8
Q

Spatial pulse length _______ if the frequency is increased.

A

Decreases

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9
Q

Propagation speed describes the number of waves in the medium.
T or F

A

False

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10
Q

Initially, what determines the amplitude of an ultrasound wave?

A

Ultrasound System

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11
Q

The maximum variation of an acoustic variable from its baseline is

A

Amplitude

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12
Q

A reduction in intensity of a sound beam to one half its original intensity is a _____ db change

A

-3

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13
Q

db is a mathematical representation with a _____ and _____ scale

A

Logarithmic and relative

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14
Q

Name the units of attenuation

A

decibels or dB

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15
Q

a sound wave strikes a boundary at normal incidence. The impedances of the two media are identical. What percentage of the sound wave is refracted?

A

0%

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16
Q

As an ultrasound wave travels through the body, its amplitude usually;

A

Decreases

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17
Q

The power of an ultrasound wave can be reported with which of the following?

A

Watts

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18
Q

When a sonographer decreases the amplitude of a wave to 1/2 of its original value, how has the power changed?

A

Decreases 25%

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19
Q

The intensity of an ultrasound beam is defined as the ____ in the beam ____ by the _____ of the beam

A

Power, divided, cross sectional area

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20
Q

What is impedance?

A

The resistance of a medium to the sound traveling through it

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21
Q

Reflection requires the media to have different

A

Impedance

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22
Q

The two things that are required for refraction to occur are:

A

Oblique incidence, media with different sound speeds

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23
Q

With specular reflection, the strength of the received signal depends on the following two factors?

A

Difference in acoustic impedance, angle of incidence

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24
Q

For soft tissue, one of the factors responsible for determining acoustic impedance is

A

Density

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25
Q

What interaction of ultrasound and tissue is primarily responsible for imaging the internal structure of organs?

A

Scattering

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26
Q

What sound tissue interaction is necessary to form an ultrasound image?

A

Reflection

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27
Q

Which of the following describes diffuse reflection?

A

The reflected beam is scattered in various directions

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28
Q

If you choose a lower frequency transducer to image a highly attenuating liver, what tradeoff are you making?

A

Decreased spatial resolution

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29
Q

Decreasing the following parameter will improve axial resolution

A

Spatial pulse length

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30
Q

Concentration of force or pound per square inch or pascal’s?

A

Pressure

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31
Q

Concentration of mass or mass per unit volume

A

Density

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32
Q

The speed of sound is fastest in solids

T or F

A

True

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33
Q

Wavelength always _____ as frequencies increase.

A

Decrease

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34
Q

Perpendicular incidence is also known as normal incidence.

T or F

A

True

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35
Q

Refraction requires the 2 media to have different _______.

A

Propagation speeds

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36
Q

Which of the following will increase the duty factor?

A

Increasing PRF

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37
Q

The amplitude of an echo from a specular reflector depends on all of the following EXCEPT?

angle, attenuation, PRF, distance

A

PRF

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38
Q

What is the approximate coefficient for 1 MHz US in soft tissue?

A

.5 db/cm

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39
Q

You are scanning the liver at an incidence angle of 45 degrees. When the sound hits the interface of a hemangioma and reflects off it, the reflection angle will be______.

A

45 degrees

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40
Q

Pulse repetition frequency is directly related to pulse repetition period.
T or F

A

False

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41
Q

The spatial pulse length

A

Determines axial resolution

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42
Q

An ultrasound wave is a mechanical longitudinal wave.

T or F

A

True

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43
Q

Compressions are regions of higher pressure. Rarefactions are regions of lower pressure in a sound wave.
T or F

A

True

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44
Q

Constructive interference in a sound wave are also called out-of-phase waves.
T or F

A

False

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45
Q

Destructive interference is also called out-of-phase waves.

T or F

A

True

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46
Q

By adjusting the imaging depth, the sonographer can change the pulse repetition period, pulse repetition frequency, and the duty factor.
T or F

A

True

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47
Q

Wavelength has the greatest effect on axial resolution.

T or F

A

True

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48
Q

Beam uniformity is a unitless ratio that describes the distribution of an ultrasound beam in space.
T or F

A

True

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49
Q

Temporal peak and temporal average intensities are the same for pulsed ultrasound
T or F

A

False

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50
Q

A wave’s intensity is 2mW/cm2. There is a change of +9 dB. What is the final intensity?

A

16mW/cm2

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51
Q

The sonographer does not have the ability to change the power and intensity of the machine.
T or F

A

False

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52
Q

The formula for power is

A

Power = Intensity x Cross section (beam area)

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53
Q

If the power is unchanged and the beam area doubles, what happens to intensity?

A

It halves

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54
Q

3 dB change means the intensity will double in value.

T or F

A

True

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55
Q

Attenuation decreases when frequency increases or path length increases.
T or F

A

False

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56
Q

What is the actual time that an US machine is creating a pulse?

A

Pulse duration

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57
Q

If the amplitude of a wave is increased to 3 times its original value, what happens to the intensity?

A

Intensity increases 9 times

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58
Q

A linear phased array has a/an _____ footprint?

A

Small

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59
Q

All of the following are TRUE about bandwidth EXCEPT:

A

Longer pulses have narrower bandwidths and provide better resolution

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60
Q

Preprocessing functions can be defined as:

A

A function that is performed before the echo data are stored in scan converter memory

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61
Q

The spatial pulse length

A

Determines axial resolution

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62
Q

To generate an ultrasound image, what is the order of activation for these system components?

P - T - R- M- VD

A

Pulser, Transducer, receiver, memory, video display

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63
Q

Demodulation and rejection are functions of the

A

Receiver

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64
Q

An annular array uses _____ beam steering

A

Mechanical

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65
Q

Spatial pulse length can be improved by

A

using greatly damped transducers

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66
Q

At one near zone length the beam is

A

Half the transducer diameter

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67
Q

The piezoelectric effect, heat energy is converted to mechanical energy.
T or F

A

False

Mechanical to electric

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68
Q

Focal depth is indirectly related to crystal diameter and frequency of US in the crystals
T or F

A

False

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69
Q

Point at which a man made transducer becomes deplarized

A

Curie point

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70
Q

Frequency is inversely related to the speed of sound in the crystals.
T or F

A

False

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71
Q

Which of the following will NOT result in a shorter pulse duration?

A

Using a lower propagation velocity

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72
Q

One way the sonographer can change the axial resolution is by adjusting the maximum imaging depth.
T or F

A

False

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73
Q

With this transducer, a defective crystal will cause a horizontal line dropout across the image.

A

Annular array

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74
Q

Which of the following lists is correct for the impedance from highest to lowest

A

PZT, matching layer, gel, skin

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75
Q

The best lateral resolution can be realized at

A

The focus

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76
Q

The range of frequencies within a pulse

A

Bandwidth

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77
Q

how does bandwidth relate to pulse duration and SPL

A

SPL and pulse duration = directly related

BOTH inversely related to bandwidth

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78
Q

A transducer with a wide bandwidth is likely to have

A

Good axial resolution

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79
Q

Which of the following transducers has the best lateral resolution in far zone

A

Highest frequency, largest crystal diameter

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80
Q

an annular array uses _____ beam steerer

A

Mechanical

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81
Q

Spatial pulse length can be improved by

A

using greatly damped transducers

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82
Q

with these transducers a defected crystal will cause a vertical line dropout in the image.

A

Linear switched array, convex sequential

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83
Q

A curved electrical spike firing pattern yields a?

A

Focused beam

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84
Q

We adjust the “receiving focus” or “dynamic aperture” when we adjust the focal zones on the machine.
T or F

A

False

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85
Q

Which of the following determines the frequency in a pulse wave transducer

A

thickness and propagation speed

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86
Q

States that the wavelength energies combine together to transmit energies along a central axis to give a beam shape of an hour glass.

A

Huygens

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87
Q

Which of the following has the deepest focus

A

6 MHz, 6mm crystal diameter

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88
Q

The beam of an unfocused transducer diverges

A

Fraunhofer zone

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89
Q

Frequency is inversely related to crystal thickness

T or F

A

True

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90
Q

At 2 near zone length, beam diameter is twice the transducer diameter.
T or F

A

False

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91
Q

With these transducers, a defected crystal will cause poor steering and focusing in the image

A

Linear phased array, convex phased

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92
Q

A defective crystal in this transducer will cause the entire image to be lost

A

Mechanical transducer

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93
Q

Which of the following determines the frequency in a continuous wave transducer

A

electrical signal from the voltage applied to the PZT

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94
Q

Doubling the frequency causes axial resolution to be doubled.
T or F

A

False

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95
Q

Doubling the aperture increases the near zone length.

T or F

A

True

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96
Q

Axial resolution is

A

The ability to distinguish two objects parallel to the ultrasound beam

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97
Q

Electronic focusing in slice thickness requires 1-2 rows of elements.
T or F

A

False

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98
Q

Which of the following transducers can be electronically steered

A

sector phased array and linear phased array

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99
Q

Axial resolution equals the spatial pulse length divided by 2.
T or F

A

True

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100
Q

Reduces the reflection at the transducer-tissue interphase

A

Matching layer

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101
Q

You decide to narrow your sector size from 90 to 45 degrees. The frame rate is

A

Doubled

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102
Q

All of the following decrease/degrade temporal resolution except…

A

Narrower sector

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103
Q

Which of the following will decrease temporal resolution

A

Increasing the number of scan lines

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104
Q

You decide you need to increase the line density by 4 times to improve your resolution, what also happens

A

The temporal resolution decreases

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105
Q

When you increase scanning depth, which one of these automatically decreases by the system to avoid range ambiguity

A

PRF

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106
Q

You finish your longitudinal kidney image and turn transverse. you decide to narrow your sector size to half the original. If the frame rate remains unchanged, which of the following must happen

A

the line density was doubled

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107
Q

Which of the following will increase duty factor, thereby improving temporal resolution

A

Increasing the PRF

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108
Q

Which of the following is consistent with improved temporal resolution

A

Higher frame rate

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109
Q

The number of images displayed per second in real time imaging is called

A

Frame rate

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110
Q

You decide to change from 5 focal zones to 1 focal zone what is the result

A

The temporal resolution increases

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111
Q

What is the primary advantage of multiple focal zones along each scan line in 2D images

A

improved lateral resolution

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112
Q

Frame rate is limited by the speed of sound in a medium and/or the depth of the view.
T or F

A

True

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113
Q

For each focus on a scan line in each frame a ______ is required

A

pulse

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114
Q

Which of the following will decrease temporal resolution

A

Increasing the number of scan lines

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115
Q

The fraction of the time the sound is transmitting is the

A

Duty Factor

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116
Q

An ultrasound system with shorter pulse duration will generally have better temporal resolution.
T or F

A

False

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117
Q

When penetration is multiplied by the number of foci, the number of scan lines per frame and the frame rate, the result cannot exceed

A

77,000

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118
Q

which of the following does not decrease the frame rate

A

Increasing the receiver gain

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119
Q

If the number of foci increases, the frame rate increases.

T or F

A

False

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120
Q

In a real time scanner, which of the following choices determines the maximum frame rate.

A

Depth of View

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121
Q

Which of the following exams would require the best temporal resolution

A

Cardiac

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122
Q

Imaging deeper into a structure gives better temporal resolution.
T or F

A

False

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123
Q

The production of deformation from voltage is called

A

Piezoelectric effect

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124
Q

Preprocessing functions may be defined as

A

A function that is performed before the echo data are stored in memory

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125
Q

Use the minimum output power and the highest receiver gain required to produce optimal images describes which principle?

A

ALARA

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126
Q

The master synchronizer functions to

A

Communicate with all the individual components of the US system
Organize and times their function
Prepares them to operate as a single integrated system

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127
Q

What control could you adjust the signal to noise ratio

A

Power

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128
Q

Creates an image of uniform brightness from top to bottom

A

Compensation

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129
Q

Changes the signal form to one more suitable for TV display

A

Demodulation

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130
Q

Every signal is treated identically

A

Amplification

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131
Q

Affects all low level signals everywhere on the image

A

Rejection

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132
Q

Decreases the dynamic range

A

Compression

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133
Q

A-mode scanning represents the depth of the signal in the horizontal dimension.
T or F

A

True

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134
Q

An ultrasound wave is a mechanical longitudinal wave.

T or F

A

True

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135
Q

The depth of a reflector is 2cm deep. what is the time of flight?

A

26us

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136
Q

The pulse generates the voltages that drive the transducer.

T or F

A

True

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137
Q

In which case is the temporal resolution least important important

A

Thyroid

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138
Q

While scanning an obese patient for an abdomen, you increase both imaging depth and the scan line density, what also happens

A

Reduced temporal resolution

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139
Q

Increasing the transducer frequency will also have an effect on temporal resolution.
T or F

A

False

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140
Q

A sonographer using a phased array US machine turns off multi-focus feature, what is most likely the consequence of this action

A

the temporal resolution improves

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141
Q

Which operator control allows you to alter frame rate?

A

Depth

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142
Q

You need better spatial resolution to improve your image, which of the following adjustments will improve spatial resolution?

A

Increasing the frequency

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143
Q

Which of the following ultrasound imaging modalities has the poorest temporal resolution

A

Color flow imaging

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144
Q

PRF and frame rate are directly related.

T or F

A

True

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145
Q

You are scanning a patient and your frame rate is so slow, you decide to do something to increase it, what do you do to have a faster frame rate

A

Decrease the number of scan lines

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146
Q

If you are scanning a left lobe of the liver and are at 8cm depth, then scan the right lobe and switch to 16cm depth, what can you do to keep your frame rate the same.

A

Narrow your sector

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147
Q

If the image depth of a scan is 15cm and there are 100 lines in the image, the number of pulses making up the scan is 100.
T or F

A

True

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148
Q

A-mode scanning represents the depth of the signal in horizontal dimension.
T or F

A

True

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149
Q

The amplitude of the reflection represented on a B-mode image is on the ____ axis

A

Z axis

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150
Q

The elimination of voltages that do not exceed a certain level is

A

Rejection

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151
Q

If the reflector is sitting twice as far away from the transducer, what effect will this have on the time of flight of sound pulse?

A

Double it.

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152
Q

The x axis of M-mode measures what?

A

Time

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153
Q

Rectification is the process of turning positive voltage into negative voltage.
T or F

A

False

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154
Q

When only bright reflecting objects and nothing else is displayed on the ultrasound machine, the sonographer should.

A

Adjust the reject level

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155
Q

The scan converter is part of the ultrasound system that contains the memory bank.
T or F

A

True.

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156
Q

An ultrasound system is operating on the harmonics mode, the harmonic frequency is on 8MHz, what is the transmitted frequency?

A

4 MHz

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157
Q

The ultrasound machine transmits a pulse with a fundamental frequency of 4MHz. when the sonographer switches to harmonic mode, what will the harmonic frequency be?

A

8MHz

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158
Q

The distance to a reflector is doubled, the time of flight for the pulse to travel to the reflector and back is

A

2 times

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159
Q

The range equation represents the relationship of the distance of the reflector to ____ and _____

A

Time of flight, distance

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160
Q

Post processing of the image occurs

A

after the A/D converter and storage but before display

161
Q

Harmonics frequency characteristics occur due to non linear behavior.
T or F

A

True

162
Q

When the sonographer is operating the ultrasound machine in continuous wave, the electrical frequency equals the ultrasound frequency.
T or F

A

True

163
Q

What function of the receiver converts electronic signals from radiofrequency form to video form?

A

Demodulation

164
Q

Which operator control adjusts the dynamic range of the displayed echoes

A

Compression

165
Q

What are the two steps of demodulation?

A

Rectification and smoothing

166
Q

What effect will you detect in the image if you increase the threshold control?

A

Decreased appearance of weak echo signals

167
Q

List the order of operation of the instrumentation in the imaging process of ultrasound: Storage, Master synchronizer, receiver, display, transducer, pulser and beam former

A
Trandsucer
pulser and beam former
receiver
display
storage
master synchronizer
168
Q

When you adjust the TGC what component of the ultrasound system implements the changes?

A

Receiver

169
Q

A pulse is emitted by a transducer and is traveling in soft tissue. The go-return time, or time of flight, of a sound pulse is 52 microseconds. what is the reflector depth?

A

4cm

170
Q

A lower frequency probe requires greater compensation than a higher frequency probe.
T or F

A

False

171
Q

A-mode X and Y axis

A
X = depth
Y = amplitude
172
Q

B-mode Z and X axis

A
Z = echo intensity or amplitude
X = depth
173
Q

Velocity mode color doppler, and variance mode color doppler will produce identical images when blood flow patterns are laminar.
T or F

A

True

174
Q

Aliasing is a disadvantage of power Doppler.

T or F

A

False

175
Q

Color Doppler instruments use

A

Pulsed Doppler

176
Q

Which of the following on a color doppler display is/are presented in real time

A

Gray scale anatomy, flow direction

177
Q

Which of the following reduce the frame rate of a color Doppler image

A

Wider color window

increased ensemble length

178
Q

Spectral analysis of color flow Doppler is most commonly performed by which of the following techniques

A

Autocorrelation

179
Q

Compared with doppler shift imaging, Doppler power imaging is

A

More sensitive
angle independent
aliasing independant
speed independent

180
Q

The two most common color maps used in color flow imaging is

A

Variance and Velocity

181
Q

Lack of color in a vessel containing blood flow may be attributed to…

A

Low color gain
high wall filter setting
low priority setting

182
Q

Auto correlation produces

A

Mean value of the Doppler shift and the variance

183
Q

an annular array uses _____ beam steerer

A

Mechanical

184
Q

Spatial pulse length can be improved by

A

using greatly damped transducers

185
Q

with these transducers a defected crystal will cause a vertical line dropout in the image.

A

Linear switched array, convex sequential

186
Q

A curved electrical spike firing pattern yields a?

A

Focused beam

187
Q

We adjust the “receiving focus” or “dynamic aperture” when we adjust the focal zones on the machine.
T or F

A

False

188
Q

Which of the following determines the frequency in a pulse wave transducer

A

thickness and propagation speed

189
Q

States that the wavelength energies combine together to transmit energies along a central axis to give a beam shape of an hour glass.

A

Huygens

190
Q

Which of the following has the deepest focus

A

6 MHz, 6mm crystal diameter

191
Q

The beam of an unfocused transducer diverges

A

Fraunhofer zone

192
Q

Frequency is inversely related to crystal thickness

T or F

A

True

193
Q

At 2 near zone length, beam diameter is twice the transducer diameter.
T or F

A

False

194
Q

With these transducers, a defected crystal will cause poor steering and focusing in the image

A

Linear phased array, convex phased

195
Q

A defective crystal in this transducer will cause the entire image to be lost

A

Mechanical transducer

196
Q

Which of the following determines the frequency in a continuous wave transducer

A

electrical signal from the voltage applied to the PZT

197
Q

Doubling the frequency causes axial resolution to be doubled.
T or F

A

False

198
Q

Doubling the aperture increases the near zone length.

T or F

A

True

199
Q

Axial resolution is

A

The ability to distinguish two objects parallel to the ultrasound beam

200
Q

Electronic focusing in slice thickness requires 1-2 rows of elements.
T or F

A

False

201
Q

Which of the following transducers can be electronically steered

A

sector phased array and linear phased array

202
Q

Axial resolution equals the spatial pulse length divided by 2.
T or F

A

True

203
Q

Reduces the reflection at the transducer-tissue interphase

A

Matching layer

204
Q

You decide to narrow your sector size from 90 to 45 degrees. The frame rate is

A

Doubled

205
Q

All of the following decrease/degrade temporal resolution except…

A

Narrower sector

206
Q

Which of the following will decrease temporal resolution

A

Increasing the number of scan lines

207
Q

You decide you need to increase the line density by 4 times to improve your resolution, what also happens

A

The temporal resolution decreases

208
Q

When you increase scanning depth, which one of these automatically decreases by the system to avoid range ambiguity

A

PRF

209
Q

You finish your longitudinal kidney image and turn transverse. you decide to narrow your sector size to half the original. If the frame rate remains unchanged, which of the following must happen

A

the line density was doubled

210
Q

Which of the following will increase duty factor, thereby improving temporal resolution

A

Increasing the PRF

211
Q

Which of the following is consistent with improved temporal resolution

A

Higher frame rate

212
Q

The number of images displayed per second in real time imaging is called

A

Frame rate

213
Q

You decide to change from 5 focal zones to 1 focal zone what is the result

A

The temporal resolution increases

214
Q

What is the primary advantage of multiple focal zones along each scan line in 2D images

A

improved lateral resolution

215
Q

Frame rate is limited by the speed of sound in a medium and/or the depth of the view.
T or F

A

True

216
Q

For each focus on a scan line in each frame a ______ is required

A

pulse

217
Q

Which of the following will decrease temporal resolution

A

Increasing the number of scan lines

218
Q

The fraction of the time the sound is transmitting is the

A

Duty Factor

219
Q

An ultrasound system with shorter pulse duration will generally have better temporal resolution.
T or F

A

False

220
Q

When penetration is multiplied by the number of foci, the number of scan lines per frame and the frame rate, the result cannot exceed

A

77,000

221
Q

which of the following does not decrease the frame rate

A

Increasing the receiver gain

222
Q

If the number of foci increases, the frame rate increases.

T or F

A

False

223
Q

In a real time scanner, which of the following choices determines the maximum frame rate.

A

Depth of View

224
Q

Which of the following exams would require the best temporal resolution

A

Cardiac

225
Q

Imaging deeper into a structure gives better temporal resolution.
T or F

A

False

226
Q

The production of deformation from voltage is called

A

Piezoelectric effect

227
Q

Preprocessing functions may be defined as

A

A function that is performed before the echo data are stored in memory

228
Q

Use the minimum output power and the highest receiver gain required to produce optimal images describes which principle?

A

ALARA

229
Q

The master synchronizer functions to

A

Communicate with all the individual components of the US system
Organize and times their function
Prepares them to operate as a single integrated system

230
Q

What control could you adjust the signal to noise ratio

A

Power

231
Q

Creates an image of uniform brightness from top to bottom

A

Compensation

232
Q

Changes the signal form to one more suitable for TV display

A

Demodulation

233
Q

Every signal is treated identically

A

Amplification

234
Q

Affects all low level signals everywhere on the image

A

Rejection

235
Q

Decreases the dynamic range

A

Compression

236
Q

A-mode scanning represents the depth of the signal in the horizontal dimension.
T or F

A

True

237
Q

An ultrasound wave is a mechanical longitudinal wave.

T or F

A

True

238
Q

The depth of a reflector is 2cm deep. what is the time of flight?

A

26us

239
Q

The pulse generates the voltages that drive the transducer.

T or F

A

True

240
Q

In which case is the temporal resolution least important important

A

Thyroid

241
Q

While scanning an obese patient for an abdomen, you increase both imaging depth and the scan line density, what also happens

A

Reduced temporal resolution

242
Q

Increasing the transducer frequency will also have an effect on temporal resolution.
T or F

A

False

243
Q

A sonographer using a phased array US machine turns off multi-focus feature, what is most likely the consequence of this action

A

the temporal resolution improves

244
Q

Which operator control allows you to alter frame rate?

A

Depth

245
Q

You need better spatial resolution to improve your image, which of the following adjustments will improve spatial resolution?

A

Increasing the frequency

246
Q

Which of the following ultrasound imaging modalities has the poorest temporal resolution

A

Color flow imaging

247
Q

PRF and frame rate are directly related.

T or F

A

True

248
Q

You are scanning a patient and your frame rate is so slow, you decide to do something to increase it, what do you do to have a faster frame rate

A

Decrease the number of scan lines

249
Q

If you are scanning a left lobe of the liver and are at 8cm depth, then scan the right lobe and switch to 16cm depth, what can you do to keep your frame rate the same.

A

Narrow your sector

250
Q

If the image depth of a scan is 15cm and there are 100 lines in the image, the number of pulses making up the scan is 100.
T or F

A

True

251
Q

A-mode scanning represents the depth of the signal in horizontal dimension.
T or F

A

True

252
Q

The amplitude of the reflection represented on a B-mode image is on the ____ axis

A

Z axis

253
Q

The elimination of voltages that do not exceed a certain level is

A

Rejection

254
Q

If the reflector is sitting twice as far away from the transducer, what effect will this have on the time of flight of sound pulse?

A

Double it.

255
Q

The x axis of M-mode measures what?

A

Time

256
Q

Rectification is the process of turning positive voltage into negative voltage.
T or F

A

False

257
Q

When only bright reflecting objects and nothing else is displayed on the ultrasound machine, the sonographer should.

A

Adjust the reject level

258
Q

The scan converter is part of the ultrasound system that contains the memory bank.
T or F

A

True.

259
Q

An ultrasound system is operating on the harmonics mode, the harmonic frequency is on 8MHz, what is the transmitted frequency?

A

4 MHz

260
Q

The ultrasound machine transmits a pulse with a fundamental frequency of 4MHz. when the sonographer switches to harmonic mode, what will the harmonic frequency be?

A

8MHz

261
Q

The distance to a reflector is doubled, the time of flight for the pulse to travel to the reflector and back is

A

2 times

262
Q

The range equation represents the relationship of the distance of the reflector to ____ and _____

A

Time of flight, distance

263
Q

Post processing of the image occurs

A

after the A/D converter and storage but before display

264
Q

Harmonics frequency characteristics occur due to non linear behavior.
T or F

A

True

265
Q

When the sonographer is operating the ultrasound machine in continuous wave, the electrical frequency equals the ultrasound frequency.
T or F

A

True

266
Q

What function of the receiver converts electronic signals from radiofrequency form to video form?

A

Demodulation

267
Q

Which operator control adjusts the dynamic range of the displayed echoes

A

Compression

268
Q

What are the two steps of demodulation?

A

Rectification and smoothing

269
Q

What effect will you detect in the image if you increase the threshold control?

A

Decreased appearance of weak echo signals

270
Q

List the order of operation of the instrumentation in the imaging process of ultrasound: Storage, Master synchronizer, receiver, display, transducer, pulser and beam former

A
Trandsucer
pulser and beam former
receiver
display
storage
master synchronizer
271
Q

When you adjust the TGC what component of the ultrasound system implements the changes?

A

Receiver

272
Q

A pulse is emitted by a transducer and is traveling in soft tissue. The go-return time, or time of flight, of a sound pulse is 52 microseconds. what is the reflector depth?

A

4cm

273
Q

A lower frequency probe requires greater compensation than a higher frequency probe.
T or F

A

False

274
Q

A-mode X and Y axis

A
X = depth
Y = amplitude
275
Q

B-mode Z and X axis

A
Z = echo intensity or amplitude
X = depth
276
Q

Velocity mode color doppler, and variance mode color doppler will produce identical images when blood flow patterns are laminar.
T or F

A

True

277
Q

Aliasing is a disadvantage of power Doppler.

T or F

A

False

278
Q

Color Doppler instruments use

A

Pulsed Doppler

279
Q

Which of the following on a color doppler display is/are presented in real time

A

Gray scale anatomy, flow direction

280
Q

Which of the following reduce the frame rate of a color Doppler image

A

Wider color window

increased ensemble length

281
Q

Spectral analysis of color flow Doppler is most commonly performed by which of the following techniques

A

Autocorrelation

282
Q

Compared with doppler shift imaging, Doppler power imaging is

A

More sensitive
angle independent
aliasing independant
speed independent

283
Q

The two most common color maps used in color flow imaging is

A

Variance and Velocity

284
Q

Lack of color in a vessel containing blood flow may be attributed to…

A

Low color gain
high wall filter setting
low priority setting

285
Q

Auto correlation produces

A

Mean value of the Doppler shift and the variance

286
Q

Tube length, radius and viscosity all effect ______?

A

Resistance

287
Q

A smaller vessel lumen (from stenosis for instance) result in?

A

More resistance

288
Q

Which of the following will help to eliminate aliasing?

A

Change over to continuous wave Doppler

289
Q

A larger vessel has ____ Flow

A

increased

290
Q

Speed of flow is consistant across the entire tube. This is known as ____ Flow

A

plug flow

291
Q

Speed of flow is slowest at the outer edges because of the friction with the walls. this is known as _____ flow

A

laminar

292
Q

The person at the sound sourse hears?

A

No shift

293
Q

The observer distant from the sound source hears a

A

Doppler effect

294
Q

When we hear more cycles per second we hear a

A

Higher frequency

295
Q

recieved frequeny minus the source frequency =

A

Doppler shift

296
Q

The sound that we send into the body

A

Inaudible

297
Q

The Doppler shifted frequency is

A

audible

298
Q

Negative shifts are demonstrated?

A

Below the baseline

299
Q

Positive shifts are demonstrated?

A

Above the baseline

300
Q

The measured velocity is the true velocity at______ degrees

A

0 degrees

301
Q

No Doppler shift will be appreciated at _______ degrees

A

90 degrees

302
Q

The measured velocity is underestimated about 30% at _____ degrees

A

45 Degrees

303
Q

When nothing is moving we get

A

No doppler shift

304
Q

The nyquist limit appears at

A

half the PRF

305
Q

If a vessel has a stenosis that narrows the vessel by half, the average speed through the stenosis is?

A

Doubled

306
Q

Two important charectoristics of fluid that affect flow are?

A

Density and Velocity

307
Q

Mass is an objects resistance to acceleration or flow. This resistance is called?

A

Inertia

308
Q

Mass per unit volume describes?

A

Density

309
Q

Resistance to flow offered by fluid in motion is called?

A

Viscosity

310
Q

Blood flows from _____ side to the _____ side in our circulation

A

arterial to venous

311
Q

artieries are the ______ pressure side in the circulation

A

High

312
Q

Veins are the _____ pressure side in our circulation

A

low

313
Q

In order for blood to flow we need a _____ differance

A

Pressure

314
Q

Increased radius causes _____ resistance

A

decreased

315
Q

increased tube length causes _____ resistance

A

increased

316
Q

Increased resistance causes _____ velocity

A

faster

317
Q

Increased viscosity causes ____ resistance

A

higher

318
Q

As blood flows along the circulatory path, some energy is lost in the form of ______

A

Heat

319
Q

This states that the radius of the stenosis has a dramatic effect on the stenosis because it is raised to the fourth power

A

Poisuille’s law

320
Q

The body tries to keep flow constant proximal to, in, and distal to a stenosis, this is called

A

Continuity rule

321
Q

Another word for the brightness of a hue and saturation presented is?

A

Luminance

322
Q

Aliasing is a disadvantage of power Doppler.

T or F

A

False

323
Q

The sound beam is traveling East to West, The blood flow is traveling North to south, which statement is true

A

No Doppler shift is created

324
Q

Velocity mode color Doppler and variance mode color Doppler will produce identical images when blood flow is laminar.
T or F

A

True

325
Q

You are scanning a pediatric patients liver, performing Doppler of the hepatic artery using a transducer with a frequency of 8 MHz. Aliasing is occuring and you would like to eliminate it. You can change transducers and scan with a 2.5 MHz transducer in order to succussfully eliminate aliasing.
T or F

A

True

326
Q

Spectral analysis of color flow Doppler is most commonly performed by which of the following techniques

A

Autocorrelation

327
Q

No aliasing, no angle dependance and increased sensitivity are all features of color Doppler.
T or F

A

False

328
Q

Which of the following will help to eliminate aliasing?

A

increase your angle so it is closer to 90 degrees

329
Q

One of the disadvantages of having more pulses in color packet is?

A

More time is required to aquire the information

330
Q

Which of the following reduce the frame rate of a color Doppler image?

A

Wider color window

Increased ensamble length

331
Q

All of the following are true about the nyquist limit except

A

It cannot be changed by the operator

332
Q

The two most common color maps used in color flow images are?

A

Variance and velocity

333
Q

One thing autocorrelation does not determine is

A

Perfusion

334
Q

Autocorrelation is used with color Doppler because of the enormous amount of Doppler information that requires processing. Autocorrelation is much more accurate and much faster than Fast fourier transformation.
T or F

A

False

335
Q

If you are scanning a liver, performing duplex Doppler on the hepatic artery at the depth of 11cm and aliasing is occuring, you can reposition your probe to scan at a depth of 13cm and the aliasing will be eliminated.
T or F

A

False

336
Q

This type of flow occurs at the bifurcation area

A

Disturbed

337
Q

When there is no pressure difference, there will be no flow. but according to Bernoulli’s principle, when there is pressure difference fluid will flow from the area of low pressure to the area of high pressure.
T or F

A

True

338
Q

The resistance to flow offered by a fluid in motion is

A

Viscosity

339
Q

the top and bottom end of the color map represents?

A

the nyquist limit

340
Q

Bernoulli’s effect is an increase in pressure associated with high flow speed at or through a stenosis.
T or F

A

False

341
Q

This flow happens past a stenosis and has a random and chaotic flow pattern.

A

Turbulent

342
Q

Which of the following on a color Doppler display are presented in real time

A

Gray scale anatomy and flow direction

343
Q

Grating lobes occur with mechanical transducers.

T or F

A

False

344
Q

This artifact produces equally spaced echoes parallel with the sound beam

A

reverberation

345
Q

The most likely cause for a beam thickness of artifact

A

Partial volume effect

346
Q

Propagation speed describes the number of waves in the medium.
T or F

A

False

347
Q

A highly attenuating structure causes what to occur?

A

Shadowing

348
Q

Enhancement occurs due to abnormally low attenuation resulting in bright echoes.
T or F

A

True

349
Q

When reducing an ultrasound image all of the following assumptions are made except.

A

All structures create reflections of equal magnitude

350
Q

Mechanical or single crystal transducers create side lobes.

T or F

A

True

351
Q

The know that artifacts are not the true anatomical structure. Artifacts do not help in making a diagnosis.
T or F

A

False

352
Q

Mirror image artifact can appear along side of the true anatomy.
T or F

A

False

353
Q

Absorption coefficients are highest in bone.

T or F

A

True

354
Q

Of the following choices, which is considered most important to the sonographer with regards to bioeffects?

A

Duration of study

355
Q

Which testing device is used to measure acoustic output power?

A

Hydrophone

356
Q

It is generally beleived that the ultrasound bioeffects are minimal at intensity levels typical of those produced by diagnostic imaging equiptment

A

True

357
Q

Maximal heating is related to temporal peak intensity.

T or F

A

False

358
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential mechanism for production of bioeffects from ultrasound exposure of the body?

A

Fractionation

359
Q

What is the highest SPTA intensity of an unfocused ultrasound wave where there have been no observed bioeffects

A

100 mW/cm2

360
Q

Some ultrasonic bioeffects studies are performed in vivo. what is the meaning of the term in vivo?

A

Observable in a living body

361
Q

what kind of resolution cannot be assessed on a test phantom?

A

Contrast

362
Q

Cavitation is related to temporal peak intensity.

T or F

A

True

363
Q

A mirror image artifact is a result of the machines assumption that?

A

Sound travels directly to the reflector and than back to the transducer

364
Q

A quality assurance program is?

A

Needed by all labs

365
Q

Which of the following sets of properties of a test phantom is most relevent when assessing depth calibration accuracy?

A

reflector spacing and propagation speed

366
Q

Sometimes this can be interpretted as an editional vessel which has a spectrum similar to that of the real vessel

A

Doppler mirror image

367
Q

When you increase the PRF in attempt to solve the problem of aliasing, you can encounter

A

Range Ambiguity

368
Q

An artifact that gives rise to a double or duplicate image

A

Split image or refraction

369
Q

The most likely cause for beam thickness artifact is

A

Volume averaging

370
Q

With this artifact, the correct number of echoes appear on the image: there is less than average attenuation on a structure: and the artifact is parallel to the sound beam.

A

Enhancement

371
Q

This artifact causes a sound beam to bounce off a reflector and be redirected, it places the artifact deeper than the true reflector

A

Mirror image

372
Q

This artifact places structures much closer to the surface than they should be

A

Propagation speed error

373
Q

With this artifact there is high attenuation, absence of true anatomy on the scan, and structures that lie deeper than the original structure are not imaged

A

Shadowing

374
Q

The most common type of artifact in patients with a shotgun wound is

A

Comet tail artifact

375
Q

At this point aliasing begins

A

nyquist limit

376
Q

With this color representation, low velocity red is seperated from low velocity blue by a black line

A

flow reversal

377
Q

With this color representation, high velocity red and high velocity blue are shown directly next to one another with no black line inbetween

A

Aliasing

378
Q

An artifact produced from interaction of the incidence beam with a curved surface and results in an acoustic shadow is

A

a refractive edge shadow artifact

379
Q

Two things that can help reduce grating lobes are harmonics and apodization.
T or F

A

False

380
Q

Which of the following bests describes and epidemiologic bioeffect study?

A

Randomized and Prospective

381
Q

Mirror image artifacts is often seen around the pancreas.

T or F

A

False

382
Q

Which artifact has a grainy appearance and is caused by interference effect of scattered sound

A

Speckle

383
Q

You are performing a QA test on US system using a tissue equivilant phantom. you make an adjustment using a knob on the system council that changes the appearance of reflector brightness from fully bright to barely visible. you are evaluating what?

A

Sensitivity

384
Q

With transiate cavatation, the bubbles burst.

T or F

A

True

385
Q

The force excerted on a sound beam on an absorber or a reflector is called radiation force.
T or F

A

True

386
Q

You are most likely to experience the range ambiguity artifact on Doppler under which of the following conditions?

A

Pulsed wave Doppler, PRF 22kHz, 3 MHz Doppler frequency

387
Q

All of the following statements regarding in-vitro bioeffects are true except?

A

In_vitro bioeffects conclusions are clinically relevent

388
Q

Attenuation in tissue primarily due to absorption that is conversion of sound energy to heat energy. Thus ultrasound increases the temperature of tissue as it travels through it. The extent to which the temperature rises relies on the following four factors. T or F
Implied intensity or power, frequency, impedance, age of patient

A

False

389
Q

When producing an ultrasound image all assumptions are made except?

A

All structures create reflection of equal magnitude

390
Q

From a safety standpoint. Which of the following methods is the best?

A

Low transmit output and high receiver gain

391
Q

At what location in a sound beam is SPTA intensity the highest

A

The focal point

392
Q

If the output of an US machine is calibrated in dB and the output is increased by 20 dB, the beam intensity is increased by

A

100 times

393
Q

How is range ambiguity artifact eliminated

A

lower the PRF

394
Q

Under which circumstance is cavitation most likely to occur

A

High pressure, low frequency

395
Q

Side lobes are caused by the use of single crystal transducers
Grating lobes are caused by the use of arrays
T or F

A

True

396
Q

The propogation speed of US in an AIUM test object is

A

1.54 mm/microsec

397
Q

Generally linear ray tansducers have excellent elevational resolution.
T or F

A

Fales

398
Q

If sound is traveling faster than the machine expects, it places the structure shallower than it should be
T or F

A

True

399
Q

Which type of artifact occurs most commonly with highly reflective objects

A

Shadowing

400
Q

A shadowing artifact occurs behind an artifact because of

A

Higher than usual attenuation

401
Q

If the wires in an AIUM test object do not appear in the same place as on the display, what is the issue?

A

Registration accuracy