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Networking 243 Final Review > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

The official standard for USB interfaces is called IEEE 1394.
True or False

A

False

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2
Q

DDR memory is faster than GDDR memory since it is used by the CPU.
True or False

A

False

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3
Q

Defragmenting is not recommended for solid-state hard drives.
True or False

A

True

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4
Q

The chkdsk command will not fix anything on the drive unless the drive is unlocked.
True or False

A

False

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5
Q

The Advanced Boot Options menu appears when a user presses F8 as Windows is loading.
True or False

A

True

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6
Q

Which of the following is a basic principle that applies to both internal and external devices?
A. When connecting a faster device to a slower port, the port adapts to the speed of the device.
B. If you have multiple devices to install, it’s best to install them at the same time
C. For most installations, install the device first, then the device driver
D. Some devices don’t require a software component for them to work properly.

A

C. For most installations, install the device first, then the device driver

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7
Q

Which of the following describes USB 2.0?
A. 480 Mbps, cable length up to 5 meters
B. up to 54 Mbps, range up to 50 meters
C. 1.5 Gbps, cable length up to 2 meters
D. up to 12 Mbps, cable length up to 3 meters

A

A. 480 Mbps, cable length up to 5 meters

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8
Q

Which of the following is true about the FireWire standard and devices?
A. Data is transferred on a parallel bus
B. 1394b allows up to 16 daisy-chained devices
C. FireWire 800 uses a 4-pin connector
D. FireWire devices are hot-swappable

A

D. FireWire devices are hot-swappable

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9
Q

What happens when a flash memory card is installed in a slot and it is recognized by Windows?
A. A window appears prompting you to initialize the device
B. A drive letter is assigned to the device and you can see it in Explorer
C. Windows automatically partitions and formats the device
D. The files are copied from the device to your Documents folder.

A

B. A drive letter is assigned to the device and you can see it in Explorer

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10
Q 
Which type of expansion slot uses a retention mechanism to help stabilize a heavy card?
A. ISA
B. PCI
C. AGP
D. MGA
A

C. AGP

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11
Q

Which of the following might be the cause of a black screen right after you install a new video card?
A. No video card is detected
B. The onboard video is not disabled in BIOS
C. You installed the video card in the wrong slot
D. The video card has insufficient RAM

A

B. The onboard video is not disabled in BIOS

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12
Q 
Which monitor characteristic is the distance between adjacent dots on the screen?
A. Viewing angle
B. Refresh rate
C. Native resolution
D. Pixel pitch
A

D. Pixel pitch

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13
Q 
Which slot type would you install a video card in to get the best performance?
A. AGP
B. PCI
C. ISA
D. PCI-e
A

D. PCI-e

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14
Q 
Which type of video port provides a digital-only signal?
A. DVI-I
B. DVI-D
C. DVI-A
D. VGA
A

B. DVI-D

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15
Q 
Which file system is used by large-capacity USB and memory cards?
A. NTFS
B. FAT16
C. exFAT
D. CDFS
A

C. exFAT

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16
Q 
Which of the following is defined as a record of a call for help with a computer problem?
A. Token tracker
B. Online help database
C. Expert system
D. Ticket
A

D. Ticket

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17
Q

Which of the following is a good practice when working with a customer on site?
A. If a customer has a document on the screen, it’s okay to read it.
B. Limit use of your cell phone to work-related calls
C. Since you are there to help, it’s okay to use the customer’s phone for important calls
D. Inform the user that if you have to leave while they make a phone call, they will have to pay more.

A

B. Limit use of your cell phone to work-related calls

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18
Q

Which of the following is a good practice when working with an overly confident user over the phone?
A. compliment the user’s knowledge, insight, and experience
B. Keep the conversation moving to place the user at a disadvantage
C. Point out the customer’s mistakes to shake their confidence
D. Use technical jargon that matches or exceeds the customer’s use of jargon.

A

A. Compliment the user’s knowledge, insight, and experience

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19
Q

What should you do when you have a customer that is frequently complaining about your company, products, or services?
A. Explain how the customer is being inappropriate and end the conversation
B. Inform the customer that you agree and will make suggestions to management
C. Allow the customer to vent for a while and apologize as necessary.
D. If the complaint is not in your area of expertise, explain how it is not your problem and ask to move on.

A

C. Allow the customer to vent for a while and apologize as necessary.

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20
Q

Which of the following should you do after a problem has been completed at an on-site service call?
A. If you restored data, tell the user all their data is fully restored.
B. Hand the customer the bill and tell him to have a nice day
C. Tell the customer that if they contracted for preventive maintenance, these problems wouldn’t happen
D. If you changed anything since the last boot, reboot one more time.

A

D. If you changed anything since the last boot, reboot one more time.

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21
Q

When working with co-workers and supervisors, which of the following is a good practice?
A. If you have a problem with a co-worker, first discuss it with other co-workers
B. If you need to give bad news or criticism, use email to lessen the blow
C. Be professional by putting business matters over personal matters
D. Never tell your boss you can’t take on a new project, even if it’s beyond your skills

A

C. Be professional by putting business matters over personal matters

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22
Q 
Which of the following is documentation that includes what, when, and from whom evidence was collected, the condition of the evidence, and how it was secured?
A. Path of possession
B. Evidence track
C. Paper trail
D. Chain of custody
A

D. Chain of custody

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT an important principle to consider when customizing a system?
A. Ensure your company can supply all parts
B. Meet application requirements
C. Balance functionality and budget
D. Consider hardware compatibility

A

A. Ensure your company can supply all parts

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24
Q

Which of the following is likely to be a requirement for a high-end CAD/CAM workstation?
A. A single-core processor with a large cache
B. A motherboard with quad channels for memory and numerous memory slots
C. A PATA hard drive running at least 5400 RPM
D. A moderate video card to balance the pricing on the entire system

A

B. A motherboard with quad channels for memory and numerous memory slots

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25
Q 
What is it called when one physical machine hosts multiple activities that are normally done on multiple machines?
A. Multiprocessing
B. Virtualization
C. Multicore
D. Redundancy
A

B. Virtualization

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26
Q 
What processor feature might you need to enable in the BIOS if you will be running VMs?
A. HAV
B. Hypervisor
C. Multi-core
D. VirtualBox
A

A. HAV

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27
Q 
What is it called when a virtualization server provides a virtual desktop for users on multiple client machines?
A. HAV
B. Thin client
C. VDI
D. Fat client
A

C. VDI

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28
Q 
What is Pagefile.sys used for in Windows?
A. System file storage
B. To store E-books
C. Video RAM
D. Virtual memory
A

D. Virtual memory

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29
Q 
How often does Windows 7/Vista automatically defragment a hard drive?
A. Once a week
B. Once a day
C. Once a month
D. Once an hour
A

A. Once a week

30
Q 
What is the fourth partition on a hard drive called?
A. Extended partition
B. Master boot record
C. Volume
D. Primary partition
A

A. Extended partition

31
Q 
Besides backing up user data or system files, you can also back up the entire volume on which Windows 7 is installed using \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Automated System Backup
B. Complete PC Recovery
C. Automated System Recovery
D. Backup and Restore
A

D. Backup and Restore

32
Q 
Which partition is the bootable partition that startup BIOS turns to when searching for an operating system to start up?
A. Extended partition
B. Startup partition
C. Active partition
D. Volume
A

C. Active partition

33
Q 
If you enter a command and want to terminate its execution before it is finished, you can press \_\_\_\_ to do so.
A. Ctrl + Break
B. Ctrl + V
C. Ctrl + B
D Ctrl + X
A

A. Ctrl + Break

34
Q 
You can use \_\_\_\_ to convert two or more basic disks to dynamic disks.
A. Disk Management 
B. Windows Management
C. System Management
D. Disk Config
A

A. Disk Management

35
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a task you can perform with Task Manager?
A. End a process
B. End a process tree
C. Restart a process
D. Create a process
A

C. Restart a process

36
Q 
Which Task Manager tab allows you to show processes from all users to verify no applications are running under that user account?
A. Processes tab
B. Users tab
C. Networking tab
D. Performance tab
A

A. Processes tab

37
Q 
Which Task Manager tab provides details about how a program uses system resources?
A. Application
B. Services
C. Processes
D. Performance
A

D. Performance

38
Q 
Which Windows utility can be used to monitor the performance of the processor, memory, and hard drive and save the monitored data in logs for future use?
A. Event viewer
B. Reliability Monitor
C. Performance Monitor
D. Resource Monitor
A

C. Performance Monitor

39
Q 
Which Windows utility can be used to build your own customized console windows?
A. Microsoft Management Console
B. Microsoft Manager Console
C. Microsoft Management Components
D. Microsoft Manager Controls
A

A. Microsoft Management Console

40
Q 
Which tool should you consult to find information about a device or service that failed to start?
A. Microsoft Management Console
B. Event Viewer
C. Performance Monitor
D. Resource Monitor
A

B. Event Viewer

41
Q 
What is the term given to the individual tools in a console?
A. Consoles
B. Add-ins
C. Snap-ins
D. Views
A

C. Snap-ins

42
Q 
Which Windows utility gives information about problems and errors that happen over time?
A. Performance Monitor
B. Resource Monitor
C. Reliability Monitor
D. Services Console
A

C. Reliability Monitor

43
Q 
Which Task Manager tab allows a user to see how much memory an application has allocated to it that is not available to other programs?
A. Applications tab
B. Processes tab
C. Performance tab
D. Services tab
A

B. Processes tab

44
Q 
Which Windows utility is used to control the Windows and third-party services installed on a system?
A. Microsoft Management Console
B. Event Viewer
C. System Configuration Utility
D. Services console
A

D. Services console

45
Q 
Which program is responsible for reading motherboard settings and running the POST?
A. Windows Boot Loader
B. Startup BIOS
C. Setup BIOS
D. BootMgr
A

B. Startup BIOS

46
Q 
What is the name of the program that reads the settings in the Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file and manages the initial startup of the OS?
A. MBR program
B. Session Manager program
C. Windows Boot Loader
D. Windows Boot Manager
A

D. Windows Boot Manager

47
Q 
It is important to try the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ early in the troubleshooting session before it is overwritten.
A. Last Known Good Configuration
B. System Restore
C. Debugging Mode
D. Safe Recovery
A

A. Last Known Good Configuration

48
Q 
Which Windows RE tool should be used if you suspect the hard drive is corrupted?
A. System Image Recovery
B. Command Prompt 
C. System Restore
D. Startup Repair
A

B. Command Prompt

49
Q 
Which diskpart command is used to remove any partition or volume information from the selected disk?
A. Format
B. Select partition
C. Clean
D. Create partition primary
A

C. Clean

50
Q 
What should be the first thing to try if the hard drive is not spinning at startup?
A. Switch out hard drives
B. Check BIOS setup
C. Check power connections and switches
D. Switch out monitors
A

C. Check power connections and switches

51
Q 
Which command is used to check and repair the hard drive?
A. System Restore
B. MSconfig
C. sfc /scannow
D. chkdsk c:/r
A

D. chkdsk c:/r

52
Q 
What is the name of a 32-bit or 128-bit number that is used to identify a device?
A. Port number 
B. Protocol number
C. IP address
D. IP version
A

C. IP address

53
Q 
How are IP addresses available to the Internet classified?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Non-routable
D. Standard
A

A. Public

54
Q 
Which type of IP address is configured by a server when a device first initiates a connection to the network?
A. Default
B. Dynamic
C. Static
D. Configured
A

B. Dynamic

55
Q 
Which is used to identify the network portion and the host portion of an IP address?
A. Dynamic address
B. DHCP address
C. Default gateway
D. Subnet mask
A

D. Subnet mask

56
Q 
Using a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, packets are delivered to a single node on a network.
A. Anycast address
B. Default gateway address
C. Multicast address
D. Unicast address
A

D. Unicast address

57
Q 
The solution for securing private data traveling over a public network, such as the Internet, is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Public encrypted network
B. Virtual private network
C. Private encrypted network
D. Virtual prevention network
A

B. Virtual private network

58
Q 
Which utility can be used to automatically diagnose a problem with a network connection?
A. My Network Places
B. Device Manager
C. Windows Network Diagnostics
D. Control Panel
A

C. Windows Network Diagnostics

59
Q 
What is used to identify a wireless access point?
A. Secure key
B. MAC address
C. Network ID
D. SSID
A

D. SSID

60
Q 
What type of IP address should be configured on a wireless access point so that it can always be located by the devices that it serves?
A. Static IP address
B. Dynamic IP address
C. Private IP address
D. Default IP address
A

A. Static IP address

61
Q 
Which wireless networking radio frequency yields faster speeds but offers shorter range?
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 7 GHz
D. 11 GHz
A

B. 5 GHz

62
Q 
Which physical topology uses a centralized device to manage traffic on the network?
A. Mesh
B. Ring
C. Bus
D. Star
A

D. Star

63
Q 
Which network technology that is used to connect to the Internet has a maximum speed of 44 Mbps, uses dedicated lines, and is used by large companies?
A. SDSL
B. T3
C. Fast Ethernet
D. OC-3
A

B. T3

64
Q

Which of the following is true about cable Internet?
A. You share the cable infrastructure with your neighbors
B. You need filters on every phone jack
C. Fiber optic cabling is required
D. Provides up to 2.3 Mbps of bandwidth

A

A. You share the cable infrastructure with your neighbors

65
Q 
What type of device do you need if you want to connect two network segments together such as a wireless network and a wired network?
A. Hub
B. NAS
C. Repeater
D. Bridge
A

D. Bridge

66
Q 
What device should you consider if you want to have access to hard drives via an Ethernet connection?
A. NAS
B. VoIP
C. AP
D. RAID
A

A. NAS

67
Q 
Which of the following cabling systems uses fiber-optic cable?
A. 10GBaseT
B. 1000BaseFX
C. 10Base2
D. 10Base5
A

B. 1000BaseFX

68
Q

Which of the following is true about a crossover cable?
A. It’s normally used to connect a computer to a hub or switch
B. You use the T568B wiring standard on both ends
C. It is required to connect two Gigabit Ethernet switches together
D. It can be used to connect to PCs together

A

D. It can be used to connect to PCs together

69
Q

Which of the following is a reason that there are twists in the wires used for network cabling?
A. the twists increase the cable strength
B. The twists reduce crosstalk
C. The twists make it easier to punchdown the cable
D. The twists reduce the amount of copper needed

A

B. The twists reduce crosstalk

70
Q 
What’s the first thing you should do to troubleshoot a network problem related to hardware?
A. Test with a network cable
B. Use a different cable
C. Use a loopback plug
D. Check the indicator lights
A

D. Check the indicator lights

Networking 243 Final Review (1 decks)

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