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Final Review Flashcards

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1
Q

You are comparing two molecules which share the same individual molecular formula and both have a double bond between 2 carbon atoms. You notice there is a difference in how other functional groups are arranged around those double bonds. This fact makes you suspect these two molecules are

A

geometric isomers of each other.

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is true when comparing isomers?

A

They have the same molecular formulas.

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3
Q

Molecules of water can hydrogen bond with other polar molecules. This ability is an example of

A

Adhesion

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4
Q

Carbon is a very versatile element which can form the structure of many types of macromolecules mostly because

A

it can form 4 bonds with other atoms

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5
Q

Energy ENTERS the Earth’s ecosystem in the form of

A

sunlight

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6
Q

Which of the following elements is one of the 4 most comment elements in living organisms?

A

Carbon

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7
Q

When a carbonyl is attached to the middle carbon atom in a chain of carbons, one can more specifically call it a

A

Ketone

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8
Q

If a carbon skeleton does not have enough bonding partners (such as hydrogen atoms) for all the carbons, the carbon chain must contain

A

at least one single bond.

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9
Q

The bonds WITHIN (holding oxygen and hydrogen together) a molecule of water are

A

Polar Covalent Bonds

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10
Q

The major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is that prokaryotic cells

A

lack a membrane bound nucleus

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11
Q

The addition of a hydroxyl group to a molecule will make it

A

Hydrophillic

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12
Q

If water can NOT dissolve a particular solute, you know the solute is

A

Hydrophobic

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13
Q

By definition, an acid will have ______ hydrogen ions compared to a base.

A

more

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14
Q

A hydrocarbon will contain many _____ bonds therefore will be ______.

A

non-polar, hydrophobic

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15
Q

Cations have more _____ than electrons and are _______ charged.

A

Protons, positively

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16
Q

In an atom, ______ are found in the nucleus

A

Protons and neutrons

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17
Q

Boron has an atomic number of 5 and a mass number of 11. This fact tells you that boron has ________.

A

5 protons, 6 neutrons

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18
Q

If two atoms of the SAME element are involved in a covalent bond together (ex. Molecular hydrogen H2), you can be reasonably confident the bond is _________

A

non-polar covalent.

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19
Q

If the hydrogen ion (H+) concentration of a solution is 10^-10M, which of the following statements is correct?

A

The pH is 10 and the solution is basic.

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20
Q

Most of water’s unique properties result from the fact that water molecules

A

are capable of hydrogen bonds with each other.

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21
Q

An organism in _________ would possess prokaryotic cells.

A

Domain Bacteria

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22
Q

The smallest structure than can have all the requirements for life(such as reproduction, metabolism, growth, etc) is the _____.

A

Cell.

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23
Q

ALL amino acids contain which two functional groups:

A

Carboxyl and Amino

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24
Q

The second electron shell can hold a maximum of _____ electrons.

A

8

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25
Q

What bonds must be broken for water to evaporate?

A

Hydrogen bonds

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26
Q

The very simple functional group called a _______ is made of one carbon bonded to three hydrogen atoms, and can have important consequences for controlling the functions of our DNA.

A

methyl

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27
Q

One of the four Eukarya Kingdoms is the

A

Fungi

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28
Q

The only electrons in an atom that are able to interact with other atoms are the _____ electrons.

A

Valence

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29
Q

Ice can float in liquid water because the water molecules in ice are

A

spread much further apart and therefore the ice in less than the liquid water.

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30
Q

A cell’s genetic information is encoded in molecules of

A

DNA

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31
Q

Which of the following is NOT a member of the endomembrane system?

A

Mitochondria

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32
Q

A nucleotide is made up of the following:

A

5 carbon sugar, phosphate group, nitrogenous base

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33
Q

Adenine makes up 30% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. What % of the nucleotides in the sample will be guanine?

A

20%

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34
Q

The bond between monosaccharides in a polysaccharide is called

A

glycosidic linkage

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35
Q

A cell with an internal concentration of 10% glucose is placed in a test tube containing a 20% glucose solution. Which of the following terms describes the internal concentration of the cell relative to the test tube concentration?

A

Hypotonic

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36
Q

A difference between RNA and DNA is

A

DNA contains a thymine nitrogenous base and RNA does not.

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37
Q

A cell has at least the following organelles: nucleus, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, golgi apparatus, and chloroplast. It could be a cell from

A

a plant but not an animal.

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38
Q

The organelle responsible for photosynthesis is the

A

chloroplast

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39
Q

Which of the following is true of all cells?

A

They all have a plasma membrane.

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40
Q

Which of the following would have the easiest time diffusing through a cell membrane?

A

Small non polar ions

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41
Q

The ______ is the monomer of carbohydrates.

A

monosaccharide

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42
Q

If a cell needs to maintain more Na+ on the outside of the cell and fewer Na+ on the inside, this would require

A

active transport and a payment of energy.

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43
Q

A fat molecule is said to be unsaturated if

A

it has one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in its fatty acids.

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44
Q

The primary structure of a protein results from

A

the unique order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.

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45
Q

A molecule that contains ONLY carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio is most likely a

A

carbohydrate.

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46
Q

If an individual had a genetic disease that caused his ribosome to not form properly, which macromolecule production would you expect to be most affected?

A

Proteins

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47
Q

The organelle most similar to the digestive organ system is the

A

lysosome.

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48
Q

The movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane is called osmosis and it is a specialized form of

A

facilitated diffusion

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49
Q

Which of the following is true about diffusion/equilibrium?

A

At equilibrium, molecules continue to more but there is no more diffusion.

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50
Q

An animal cell placed in a hypotonic environment will

A

undergo lysis

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51
Q

You would expect to find membrane carbohydrates attached to the

A

outside of the cell membrane.

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52
Q

You would expect a transmembrane or integral protein to be?

A

Amphipathic

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53
Q

A plant cell is better able to withstand water entering the cell because of which of the following organelles or cell structures?

A

Both cell wall and central vacuole.

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54
Q

One of the functions of microtubules is to

A

provide organelle tracks.

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55
Q

The plasmodesmata in a plant cell are very similar in function to the ______in animal cells.

A

gap junctions

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56
Q

Which of the following organelles contains its own DNA and ribosomes?

A

Mitochondria

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57
Q

Every time a monomer is joined to an existing polymer chain and creates a new bond, a molecule of water is _______and the process is called ________.

A

produced, dehydration synthesis.

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58
Q

Which of the following macromolecules does not form typical polymer structures?

A

Lipids

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59
Q

Carbohydrates can come in the form of of aldoses/ketoses based on the type of ________they possess.

A

carbonyl

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60
Q

If a protein undergoes denaturation, it will lose

A

both function and conformation

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61
Q
  • An enzyme catalyzes by lowering the amount of
A

activation energy.

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62
Q

ATP ________other molecules

A

phosphorylates

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63
Q

To increase reaction rate

A

add enzyme

64
Q

Athlete energy conversion

A

chemical to kinetic energy

65
Q

A ______ inhibitor binds to the active site

A

competitive

66
Q

To overcome saturation

A

add more enzyme

67
Q

Calvin cycle takes place in the

A

Stroma

68
Q

Light reactions

A

ATP/NADH

69
Q

Allosteric reaction:

A

find answer?

70
Q

________uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide

A

Mitochondria

71
Q

Oxidized

A

lost/reducing

72
Q

Cell respiration

A

glucose is oxidized, oxygen is reduced.

73
Q

ATP comes from ETC

A

oxidative phosphorylation.

74
Q

Photosynthesis stores energy while

A

Cell respiration releases energy

75
Q

ATP is made by

A

both glycolysis/Citric Acid Cycle/ and ETC

76
Q

Visible light used in photosynthesis

A

purple/blue, orange/red

77
Q

CYCLIC electron flow

A

only ATP is made

78
Q

Photosynthesis occurs within

A

both autotrophs and producers

79
Q

If a cell doesn’t have any co-enzyme A

A

acetyl coA won’t be produced

80
Q

Drug that blocks function of ATP synthase cause

A

cells to not make enough ATP.

81
Q

Actual molecule produced by Calvin Cycle

A

G3P

82
Q

Photosynthesis

A

oxidation of water

83
Q

Glycolysis can take place when

A

no oxygen present.

84
Q

Reduced form of electron shuttle

A

NADPH

85
Q

Photosystem II electrons replaced by

A

splitting water

86
Q

Both mitochondria/chloroplasts

A

chemiosmosis

87
Q

Event occurring in both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation

A

glycolysis must occur first to make pyruvate and ATP.

88
Q

The _____ of an organism describes its physical appearance while its _____describes which alleles it possesses for a particular character.

A

phenotype, genotype

89
Q

Blue feather color is dominant over yellow feather color in parakeets. If you are given a random yellow parakeet, you can be certain its genotype is _______

A

homozygous recessive.

90
Q

A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross is a sign of ______.

A

incomplete dominance

91
Q

A true breeding individual could be ______ for a certain character

A

homozygous dominate or homozygous recessive

92
Q

Non-disjunction can cause which of the following?

A

Look up

93
Q

In a cross of parents that are homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive for two genes, A and B (AABB x aabb), what is the chance of producing offspring with the genotype AaBb?

A

100%

94
Q

When an individual has both I^A and I^B blood alleles, both genes are expressed and the individual has AB blood. This is an example of

A

Co-Dominance

95
Q

A pet shop owner breeds his black gerbils for many, many generations and always produces only black hamsters. The owner can be pretty certain his black gerbils are

A

True Breeders

96
Q

If an organism expressed the dominant phenotype yet you wanted to know for sure what its genotype was, you would conduct which of the following?

A

Testcross between a recessive phenotype and the unknown dominant phenotype.

97
Q

What gametes would an individual with the genotype AaBB make?

A

AB or aB

98
Q

When crossing a homozygous dominant individual with a heterozygote, what is the chance the offspring will have the heterozygous genotype?

A

50%

99
Q

One would expect a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio in what generation’s offspring?

A

F2 generation of a dihybrid cross

100
Q

A woman with Type A blood has a daughter with Type B blood. Which of the following is a possible blood type for the father?

A

Type B or Type AB

101
Q

If both parents have a dominant disease, what is the chance their children would also have the disease?

A

You need to know if the parents are homozygous or heterozygotes to be sure.

102
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive disorder which causes mental retardation, skin disorders, and pale skin and is controlled by a single gene. This is a good example of

A

pleiotrophy.

103
Q

Recombinant chromosomes are caused by what event during Meiosis?

A

Crossing over

104
Q

Two genes have a recombination frequency of 27%. This fact tells you that the genes

A

are on the same chromosome.

105
Q

An organism is described as having the “wild type” phenotype. This means that organisms with this phenotype are

A

the normally expected phenotype which non-mutant organisms should have.

106
Q

X-linked recessive diseases are more common in human males than human females because

A

males only have one copy of the X-linked gene and if it’s recessive, they will have the disease.

107
Q

Human males give all of their X-linked genes to their

A

daughters only.

108
Q

Red-green color blindness is caused by a recessive gene on the X chromosome. A woman who has red-green color blindness has children with a man who has normal vision. What is the expected phenotypes of their children?

A

All of their sons will be colorblind, and the daughters will be the carriers.

109
Q

You would find a Barr body in which type of cell?

A

Somatic cells of adult females

110
Q

A somatic cell that has 2n-1 chromosomes is called

A

monosomic

111
Q

Which of the following is true about extranuclear genes?

A

Humans inherit them only from their mothers through mitochondria

112
Q

Genomic imprinting is controlled by the addition of which functional group?

A

Methyl

113
Q

A human male with two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome (XXY) has

A

Kleinfelter Syndrome

114
Q

Individuals with down syndrome are

A

trisomic for chromosome #21

115
Q

Alterations in chromosome structure such as deletion or inversion most likely occurs when

A

non-sister chromatids do not exchange gene sequences properly during crossing over.

116
Q

Crossing over involves the exchange of genetic material between

A

non-sister chromatids of a homologous pair.

117
Q

Tetrads form during

A

prophase I of meiosis I

118
Q

In animals, somatic cells are produced by mitosis and _____ are produced by meiosis.

A

gametes

119
Q

The function of non-kinetochore microtubules is to

A

aid in cytokinesis by elongating the cell shape.

120
Q

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

A

Crossing over

121
Q

If a somatic cell in a certain organism has 24 chromosomes, you can be certain of which of the following statements?

A

The diploid number is 24.

122
Q

During Anaphase I of Meiosis I, which of the following events occurs?

A

Homologous chromosomes are separated and pulled to opposite ends of the cells

123
Q

A cell with 12 chromosomes (2n=12) would have how many TOTAL sister chromatids during the Metaphase I phase of Meiosis I?

A

24

124
Q

A cell that undergoes the S phase but not the mitotic phase will have

A

twice the amount of DNA it should possess.

125
Q

Which of the following cell types would reproduce by binary fission?

A

Bacterial

126
Q

Which of the following is NOT a trait of normal cells?

A

Can metastasize by spreading to other parts of the body.

127
Q

The centromere is

A

the centralized (waist) region where the sister chromatids are joined.

128
Q

The viral capsid is composed of individual proteins called

A

capsomeres

129
Q

What kind of molecule makes up the primer used to initiate synthesis of a new DNA strand?

A

RNA

130
Q

One difference in protein synthesis in prokaryotes versus eukaryotes is that

A

prokaryotes do not need any modification or editing of the mRNA transcript and eukaryotes do.

131
Q

Which of the following are removed from the pre-mRNA transcript during RNA processing?

A

Introns

132
Q

Which of the following make up nucleotides?

A

A nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a five-carbon sugar.

133
Q

The end of eukaryotic chromosomes become shorter because

A

it is impossible for DNA polymerase to extend the lagging strand after removing the RNA primer because there is no free 3’ end.

134
Q

A _______ is a small circular DNA molecule possessed by bacteria and yeast and is thought to be a possible candidate for how viruses evolved.

A

plasmid

135
Q

Adenine makes up 35% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. What percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?

A

35%

136
Q

Many scientists do not believe viruses are living organisms because

A

they have no active metabolism of their own.

137
Q

The complementary nitrogenous bases in the double helix of DNA are held together by _____

A

hydrogen bonds.

138
Q

The _____ of a virus describes which species or cell type within a species a virus can infect and replicate.

A

host range

139
Q

A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA in AGT. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is _____

A

UCA.

140
Q

Which of the following correctly ranks the structures in the order of size from smallest to largest?

A

Nucleotide, codon, gene, chromosome

141
Q

On the ribosome, the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain is held at the

A

P Site

142
Q

Which of the following DNA mutation is the MOST LIKELY to be damaging to the protein it specifies?

A

A base pair deletion

143
Q

During the lytic cycle of a phage infection, which of the following will occur?

A

New viral particles will be released from the host cell, killing the cell.

144
Q

DNA polymerase is limited because it

A

can only add nucleotides to the 3’ end of a new daughter strand of DNA.

145
Q

During translation, the polypeptide chain elongation continues until what happens?

A

A stop codon is encountered.

146
Q

Alternative gene splicing means

A

which exons are removed from a pre-mRNA transcript can vary.

147
Q

A nucleosome is a

A

bead like structure along the chromosome caused by the wrapping of DNA around histone molecules.

148
Q

An example of a Class VI retrovirus is a very important human health threat is

A

HIV

149
Q

The conversion of RNA into amino acids is called

A

translation.

150
Q

Which of the following statements about protein synthesis is FALSE?

A

Codons can code for more than one amino acid.

151
Q

The leading strand in DNA replication requires

A

only one primer.

152
Q

The type of virus that infects bacteria is a

A

bacteriophage.

153
Q

In a certain cell, a mutation has occurred in the gene that codes for DNA ligase making the enzyme nonfunctional. This cell will not be able to properly

A

join Okazaki fragments together.

154
Q

In a double helix of DNA

A

the 5’ end of one strand is opposite to the 3’ end of the other strand.

155
Q

Which of the following discoveries was one of Chargaff’s Rules?

A

That in any species, the number of adenine nucleotides equal the number of thymine nucleotides.

156
Q

The DNA sequence on the template strand where RNA polymerase attaches and initiates transcription is called the

A

Promoter

157
Q

The genetic material of a virus can be

A

no idea.

Biology Final Review (5 decks)

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