Final Review Flashcards
1
Q
You are comparing two molecules which share the same individual molecular formula and both have a double bond between 2 carbon atoms. You notice there is a difference in how other functional groups are arranged around those double bonds. This fact makes you suspect these two molecules are
A
geometric isomers of each other.
2
Q
Which of the following statements is true when comparing isomers?
A
They have the same molecular formulas.
3
Q
Molecules of water can hydrogen bond with other polar molecules. This ability is an example of
A
Adhesion
4
Q
Carbon is a very versatile element which can form the structure of many types of macromolecules mostly because
A
it can form 4 bonds with other atoms
5
Q
Energy ENTERS the Earth’s ecosystem in the form of
A
sunlight
6
Q
Which of the following elements is one of the 4 most comment elements in living organisms?
A
Carbon
7
Q
When a carbonyl is attached to the middle carbon atom in a chain of carbons, one can more specifically call it a
A
Ketone
8
Q
If a carbon skeleton does not have enough bonding partners (such as hydrogen atoms) for all the carbons, the carbon chain must contain
A
at least one single bond.
9
Q
The bonds WITHIN (holding oxygen and hydrogen together) a molecule of water are
A
Polar Covalent Bonds
10
Q
The major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is that prokaryotic cells
A
lack a membrane bound nucleus
11
Q
The addition of a hydroxyl group to a molecule will make it
A
Hydrophillic
12
Q
If water can NOT dissolve a particular solute, you know the solute is
A
Hydrophobic
13
Q
By definition, an acid will have ______ hydrogen ions compared to a base.
A
more
14
Q
A hydrocarbon will contain many _____ bonds therefore will be ______.
A
non-polar, hydrophobic
15
Q
Cations have more _____ than electrons and are _______ charged.
A
Protons, positively
16
Q
In an atom, ______ are found in the nucleus
A
Protons and neutrons
17
Q
Boron has an atomic number of 5 and a mass number of 11. This fact tells you that boron has ________.
A
5 protons, 6 neutrons
18
Q
If two atoms of the SAME element are involved in a covalent bond together (ex. Molecular hydrogen H2), you can be reasonably confident the bond is _________
A
non-polar covalent.
19
Q
If the hydrogen ion (H+) concentration of a solution is 10^-10M, which of the following statements is correct?
A
The pH is 10 and the solution is basic.
20
Q
Most of water’s unique properties result from the fact that water molecules
A
are capable of hydrogen bonds with each other.
21
Q
An organism in _________ would possess prokaryotic cells.
A
Domain Bacteria
22
Q
The smallest structure than can have all the requirements for life(such as reproduction, metabolism, growth, etc) is the _____.
A
Cell.
23
Q
ALL amino acids contain which two functional groups:
A
Carboxyl and Amino
24
Q
The second electron shell can hold a maximum of _____ electrons.
A
8
25
What bonds must be broken for water to evaporate?
Hydrogen bonds
26
The very simple functional group called a _______ is made of one carbon bonded to three hydrogen atoms, and can have important consequences for controlling the functions of our DNA.
methyl
27
One of the four Eukarya Kingdoms is the
Fungi
28
The only electrons in an atom that are able to interact with other atoms are the _____ electrons.
Valence
29
Ice can float in liquid water because the water molecules in ice are
spread much further apart and therefore the ice in less than the liquid water.
30
A cell’s genetic information is encoded in molecules of
DNA
31
Which of the following is NOT a member of the endomembrane system?
Mitochondria
32
A nucleotide is made up of the following:
5 carbon sugar, phosphate group, nitrogenous base
33
Adenine makes up 30% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. What % of the nucleotides in the sample will be guanine?
20%
34
The bond between monosaccharides in a polysaccharide is called
glycosidic linkage
35
A cell with an internal concentration of 10% glucose is placed in a test tube containing a 20% glucose solution. Which of the following terms describes the internal concentration of the cell relative to the test tube concentration?
Hypotonic
36
A difference between RNA and DNA is
DNA contains a thymine nitrogenous base and RNA does not.
37
A cell has at least the following organelles: nucleus, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, golgi apparatus, and chloroplast. It could be a cell from
a plant but not an animal.
38
The organelle responsible for photosynthesis is the
chloroplast
39
Which of the following is true of all cells?
They all have a plasma membrane.
40
Which of the following would have the easiest time diffusing through a cell membrane?
Small non polar ions
41
The ______ is the monomer of carbohydrates.
monosaccharide
42
If a cell needs to maintain more Na+ on the outside of the cell and fewer Na+ on the inside, this would require
active transport and a payment of energy.
43
A fat molecule is said to be unsaturated if
it has one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in its fatty acids.
44
The primary structure of a protein results from
the unique order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.
45
A molecule that contains ONLY carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio is most likely a
carbohydrate.
46
If an individual had a genetic disease that caused his ribosome to not form properly, which macromolecule production would you expect to be most affected?
Proteins
47
The organelle most similar to the digestive organ system is the
lysosome.
48
The movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane is called osmosis and it is a specialized form of
facilitated diffusion
49
Which of the following is true about diffusion/equilibrium?
At equilibrium, molecules continue to more but there is no more diffusion.
50
An animal cell placed in a hypotonic environment will
undergo lysis
51
You would expect to find membrane carbohydrates attached to the
outside of the cell membrane.
52
You would expect a transmembrane or integral protein to be?
Amphipathic
53
A plant cell is better able to withstand water entering the cell because of which of the following organelles or cell structures?
Both cell wall and central vacuole.
54
One of the functions of microtubules is to
provide organelle tracks.
55
The plasmodesmata in a plant cell are very similar in function to the ______in animal cells.
gap junctions
56
Which of the following organelles contains its own DNA and ribosomes?
Mitochondria
57
Every time a monomer is joined to an existing polymer chain and creates a new bond, a molecule of water is _______and the process is called ________.
produced, dehydration synthesis.
58
Which of the following macromolecules does not form typical polymer structures?
Lipids
59
Carbohydrates can come in the form of of aldoses/ketoses based on the type of ________they possess.
carbonyl
60
If a protein undergoes denaturation, it will lose
both function and conformation
61
- An enzyme catalyzes by lowering the amount of
activation energy.
62
ATP ________other molecules
phosphorylates
63
To increase reaction rate
add enzyme
64
Athlete energy conversion
chemical to kinetic energy
65
A ______ inhibitor binds to the active site
competitive
66
To overcome saturation
add more enzyme
67
Calvin cycle takes place in the
Stroma
68
Light reactions
ATP/NADH
69
Allosteric reaction:
find answer?
70
________uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide
Mitochondria
71
Oxidized
lost/reducing
72
Cell respiration
glucose is oxidized, oxygen is reduced.
73
ATP comes from ETC
oxidative phosphorylation.
74
Photosynthesis stores energy while
Cell respiration releases energy
75
ATP is made by
both glycolysis/Citric Acid Cycle/ and ETC
76
Visible light used in photosynthesis
purple/blue, orange/red
77
CYCLIC electron flow
only ATP is made
78
Photosynthesis occurs within
both autotrophs and producers
79
If a cell doesn’t have any co-enzyme A
acetyl coA won’t be produced
80
Drug that blocks function of ATP synthase cause
cells to not make enough ATP.
81
Actual molecule produced by Calvin Cycle
G3P
82
Photosynthesis
oxidation of water
83
Glycolysis can take place when
no oxygen present.
84
Reduced form of electron shuttle
NADPH
85
Photosystem II electrons replaced by
splitting water
86
Both mitochondria/chloroplasts
chemiosmosis
87
Event occurring in both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation
glycolysis must occur first to make pyruvate and ATP.
88
The _____ of an organism describes its physical appearance while its _____describes which alleles it possesses for a particular character.
phenotype, genotype
89
Blue feather color is dominant over yellow feather color in parakeets. If you are given a random yellow parakeet, you can be certain its genotype is _______
homozygous recessive.
90
A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross is a sign of ______.
incomplete dominance
91
A true breeding individual could be ______ for a certain character
homozygous dominate or homozygous recessive
92
Non-disjunction can cause which of the following?
Look up
93
In a cross of parents that are homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive for two genes, A and B (AABB x aabb), what is the chance of producing offspring with the genotype AaBb?
100%
94
When an individual has both I^A and I^B blood alleles, both genes are expressed and the individual has AB blood. This is an example of
Co-Dominance
95
A pet shop owner breeds his black gerbils for many, many generations and always produces only black hamsters. The owner can be pretty certain his black gerbils are
True Breeders
96
If an organism expressed the dominant phenotype yet you wanted to know for sure what its genotype was, you would conduct which of the following?
Testcross between a recessive phenotype and the unknown dominant phenotype.
97
What gametes would an individual with the genotype AaBB make?
AB or aB
98
When crossing a homozygous dominant individual with a heterozygote, what is the chance the offspring will have the heterozygous genotype?
50%
99
One would expect a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio in what generation’s offspring?
F2 generation of a dihybrid cross
100
A woman with Type A blood has a daughter with Type B blood. Which of the following is a possible blood type for the father?
Type B or Type AB
101
If both parents have a dominant disease, what is the chance their children would also have the disease?
You need to know if the parents are homozygous or heterozygotes to be sure.
102
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive disorder which causes mental retardation, skin disorders, and pale skin and is controlled by a single gene. This is a good example of
pleiotrophy.
103
Recombinant chromosomes are caused by what event during Meiosis?
Crossing over
104
Two genes have a recombination frequency of 27%. This fact tells you that the genes
are on the same chromosome.
105
An organism is described as having the “wild type” phenotype. This means that organisms with this phenotype are
the normally expected phenotype which non-mutant organisms should have.
106
X-linked recessive diseases are more common in human males than human females because
males only have one copy of the X-linked gene and if it’s recessive, they will have the disease.
107
Human males give all of their X-linked genes to their
daughters only.
108
Red-green color blindness is caused by a recessive gene on the X chromosome. A woman who has red-green color blindness has children with a man who has normal vision. What is the expected phenotypes of their children?
All of their sons will be colorblind, and the daughters will be the carriers.
109
You would find a Barr body in which type of cell?
Somatic cells of adult females
110
A somatic cell that has 2n-1 chromosomes is called
monosomic
111
Which of the following is true about extranuclear genes?
Humans inherit them only from their mothers through mitochondria
112
Genomic imprinting is controlled by the addition of which functional group?
Methyl
113
A human male with two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome (XXY) has
Kleinfelter Syndrome
114
Individuals with down syndrome are
trisomic for chromosome #21
115
Alterations in chromosome structure such as deletion or inversion most likely occurs when
non-sister chromatids do not exchange gene sequences properly during crossing over.
116
Crossing over involves the exchange of genetic material between
non-sister chromatids of a homologous pair.
117
Tetrads form during
prophase I of meiosis I
118
In animals, somatic cells are produced by mitosis and _____ are produced by meiosis.
gametes
119
The function of non-kinetochore microtubules is to
aid in cytokinesis by elongating the cell shape.
120
Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
Crossing over
121
If a somatic cell in a certain organism has 24 chromosomes, you can be certain of which of the following statements?
The diploid number is 24.
122
During Anaphase I of Meiosis I, which of the following events occurs?
Homologous chromosomes are separated and pulled to opposite ends of the cells
123
A cell with 12 chromosomes (2n=12) would have how many TOTAL sister chromatids during the Metaphase I phase of Meiosis I?
24
124
A cell that undergoes the S phase but not the mitotic phase will have
twice the amount of DNA it should possess.
125
Which of the following cell types would reproduce by binary fission?
Bacterial
126
Which of the following is NOT a trait of normal cells?
Can metastasize by spreading to other parts of the body.
127
The centromere is
the centralized (waist) region where the sister chromatids are joined.
128
The viral capsid is composed of individual proteins called
capsomeres
129
What kind of molecule makes up the primer used to initiate synthesis of a new DNA strand?
RNA
130
One difference in protein synthesis in prokaryotes versus eukaryotes is that
prokaryotes do not need any modification or editing of the mRNA transcript and eukaryotes do.
131
Which of the following are removed from the pre-mRNA transcript during RNA processing?
Introns
132
Which of the following make up nucleotides?
A nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a five-carbon sugar.
133
The end of eukaryotic chromosomes become shorter because
it is impossible for DNA polymerase to extend the lagging strand after removing the RNA primer because there is no free 3’ end.
134
A _______ is a small circular DNA molecule possessed by bacteria and yeast and is thought to be a possible candidate for how viruses evolved.
plasmid
135
Adenine makes up 35% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. What percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?
35%
136
Many scientists do not believe viruses are living organisms because
they have no active metabolism of their own.
137
The complementary nitrogenous bases in the double helix of DNA are held together by _____
hydrogen bonds.
138
The _____ of a virus describes which species or cell type within a species a virus can infect and replicate.
host range
139
A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA in AGT. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is _____
UCA.
140
Which of the following correctly ranks the structures in the order of size from smallest to largest?
Nucleotide, codon, gene, chromosome
141
On the ribosome, the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain is held at the
P Site
142
Which of the following DNA mutation is the MOST LIKELY to be damaging to the protein it specifies?
A base pair deletion
143
During the lytic cycle of a phage infection, which of the following will occur?
New viral particles will be released from the host cell, killing the cell.
144
DNA polymerase is limited because it
can only add nucleotides to the 3’ end of a new daughter strand of DNA.
145
During translation, the polypeptide chain elongation continues until what happens?
A stop codon is encountered.
146
Alternative gene splicing means
which exons are removed from a pre-mRNA transcript can vary.
147
A nucleosome is a
bead like structure along the chromosome caused by the wrapping of DNA around histone molecules.
148
An example of a Class VI retrovirus is a very important human health threat is
HIV
149
The conversion of RNA into amino acids is called
translation.
150
Which of the following statements about protein synthesis is FALSE?
Codons can code for more than one amino acid.
151
The leading strand in DNA replication requires
only one primer.
152
The type of virus that infects bacteria is a
bacteriophage.
153
In a certain cell, a mutation has occurred in the gene that codes for DNA ligase making the enzyme nonfunctional. This cell will not be able to properly
join Okazaki fragments together.
154
In a double helix of DNA
the 5’ end of one strand is opposite to the 3’ end of the other strand.
155
Which of the following discoveries was one of Chargaff’s Rules?
That in any species, the number of adenine nucleotides equal the number of thymine nucleotides.
156
The DNA sequence on the template strand where RNA polymerase attaches and initiates transcription is called the
Promoter
157
The genetic material of a virus can be
no idea.
