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Physiology Lab Final > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Kilo

A

10^3

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2
Q

Deci

A

10^-1

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3
Q

Centi

A

10^-2

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4
Q

Milli

A

10^-3

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5
Q

Micro

A

10^-6

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6
Q

What does a buffer solution do?

A

Minimizes changes in pH when an acid or base is added

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7
Q

What is a buffer generally composed of?

A

A weak acid + the anion of a weak acid

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8
Q

A strong acid …

A

dissociates completely in water

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9
Q

The bicarbonate buffer system is represented by the following equation:

A

CO2 + H2O <–> H2CO3 <–> H^+ + HCO3^-

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10
Q

Hyperventilation causes respiratory acidosis or alkalosis?

A

respiratory alkalosis

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11
Q

If more CO2 is added to the bicarbonate system equation, in which direction will it shift?

A

to the right

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12
Q

pH is used to describe ..

A

concentration of H+ ions in s solution

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13
Q

a pH lower than 7 is …

A

Acidic

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14
Q

a Ph higher than 7 is ..

A

Basic/Alkaline

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15
Q

Law of Mass Action describes…

A

Determines which direction the bi-directional rxn will go when a solute is added or taken away

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16
Q

HCl is an example of a strong or weak acid?

A

Strong acid

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17
Q

Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is a build up of

A

CO2

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18
Q

Respiratory acidosis is AKA

A

Hypoventilation

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19
Q

Metabololic acidosis occurs when there is a loss of
(base out the butt)

A

HCO3-

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20
Q

Respiratory alkalosis is AKA

A

Hyperventilation

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21
Q

Respiratory alkalosis occurs when there is a significant loss of

A

CO2

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22
Q

Metabolic alkalosis occurs when there is a loss of

A

HCO3-

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23
Q

Enzymes lower/raise excitation energy

A

Lower excitation energy

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24
Q

Peroxisomes are most abundant in which body organ?

A

Liver

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25
Q

Catalase equation:

A

2H2O2 –(catalase)——> 2H2O + O2

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26
Q

Peroxisomes contain (?) and break down (?)

A

Contain oxidases and break down hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

Hydrogen peroxide is toxic to the cells**

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27
Q

Higher substrate concentration results in faster/slower reactions

A

FASTER reactions - More substrate for the enzyme to react with

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28
Q

A limited amount of enzyme usually results in enzyme “?” and a ‘plateau’ in substrate breakdown

A

Enzyme saturation

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29
Q

Room temperature in the catalase lab was deemed …

A

22 degrees celcius

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30
Q

The two most optimal temperatures for catalase function in the enzyme lab was found to be …

A

Room temperature (22 degrees C) and 37 degrees C

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31
Q

The most optimal pH found for catalase to function was

A

7.0

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32
Q

What is an example of an inhibitor of catalase mentioned in the lab report for the enzyme lab?

A

Hydrozylamine

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33
Q

All atoms, molecules, and ions are in “?” motion

A

constant motion

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34
Q

molecules traveling from areas of higher to lower concentrations is described by …

A

Diffusion

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35
Q

The rate of diffusion is dependent on these 2 things:

A

SIZE of molecules/ions and TEMPERATURE of soln

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36
Q

Increasing the temperature of a solution also increases the “?” energy of particles

A

KINETIC energy

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37
Q

“Ease with which a substance dissolves into a solvent” is described as…

A

Solubility

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38
Q

In the human body, the main solvent is …

A

water

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39
Q

Polar is AKA ionic or non-ionic?

A

Polar is also ionic

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40
Q

“net diffusion of solvent (WATER) through a selectively permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration” is described as …

A

Osmosis

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41
Q

The minimum pressure applied to a solution to stop the flow of solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane” is defined as…

A

Osmotic Pressure

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42
Q

Osmotic pressure is dependent on the ..

A

Difference in solute concentration between the two sides of the membrane

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43
Q

number of particles of solute / kg solvent

A

Osmolality

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44
Q

Number of particles of solute / L solution

A

Osmolarity

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45
Q

Glucose dissociates into how many ions in water?

A

1
Thus, the dissociation constant for glucose is 1

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46
Q

When adding potassium permanganate to the water/oil solution, what happened?

A

Solution turned purple and a precipitate formed at the top

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47
Q

When you mix the potassium permanganate/oil/water solution, what happened?

A

The precipitate fell and dissolved into the solution

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48
Q

When detergent was added to the potassium permanganate/water/oil solution, what happened?

A

The solution turned brown

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49
Q

Potassium permanganate is polar/nonpolar?

A

POLAR

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50
Q

Detergent is BOTH polar and nonpolar. This term is …

A

Amphitrophic

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51
Q

Is 0.1% NaCl OK as an infusion?

A

NO

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52
Q

Is 0.9% NaCl OK as an infusion?

A

YES

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53
Q

0.8 osmol/L is considered (?) and is/isn’t OK as an IV infusion

A

considered Hypertonic and NOT OK as an infusion

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54
Q

Which glucose concentration is OK for an IV infusion?

A

5% glucose

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55
Q

The function of neurons is dependent upon ?

A

Ion movement

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56
Q

Normally, the plasma membrane is permeable/impermeable to charged particles

A

impermeable to charged particles

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57
Q

In normal ion concentrations, which ion is in higher concentration outside the cell? Inside the cell?

A

Na+ more concentrated outside the cell, K+ more concentrated inside the cell

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58
Q

The charge of -70 mV describes the …

A

Resting membrane potential

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59
Q

Calcium chloride is excitatory/inhibitory

A

calcium chloride is INHIBITORY

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60
Q

Nicotine is excitatory/inhibitory

A

Nicotine is EXCITATORY

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61
Q

In the sodium/potassium pump, how many of each ion are transferred at the same time?

A

3 Na+ ions out, 2 K+ ions in

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62
Q

Glutamate is excitatory/inhibitory?

A

Glutamate is EXCITATORY

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63
Q

Nicotine can act similar to which neurotransmitter?

A

Acetylcholine

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64
Q

Inhaled nicotine binds to which receptors?

A

Nicotinic

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65
Q

How is monosodium glutamate (MSG) excitatory?

A

Its ability to bind to several different kinds of receptors makes it exciteable

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66
Q

The “?” of cutaneous receptors determine the sensation’s acuteness

A

Density

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67
Q

A muscle spindle is a…

A

Stretch receptor

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68
Q

The stretch reflex arc is polysynaptic/monosynaptic?

A

Monosynaptic

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69
Q

Sensations from cutaneous receptors ascend up these 3 tracts in the spinal cord:

A

Anterior spinothalamic tract
Lateral spinothalamic tract
Dorsal column

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70
Q

This tract in the spinal cord sends stimuli for pressure and proprioceptors

A

Dorsal column

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71
Q

This tract in the spinal cord sends stimuli for hot, cold, and pain

A

Lateral spinothalamic tract

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72
Q

This tract in the spinal cord sends stimuli for touch

A

Anterior spinothalamic tract

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73
Q

A higher density of sensory receptors corresponds to a larger/smaller area of the cortex (gyrus)

A

LARGER area of the postcentral gyrus

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74
Q

The perception of pain coming from parts of the body that are not actually stimulated is called ..

A

Referred pain

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75
Q

Slow/Rapidly adapting receptors continue to transmit signals to the CNS as long as the stimulus is present

A

Slow adapting receptors

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76
Q

Slow/Rapidly adapting receptors fire when they first receive a stimulus but cease firing if the strength of the stimulus remains constant

A

Rapidly adapting fibers

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77
Q

Clarity of vision is AKA

A

Visual acuity

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78
Q

Identify this visual acuity:
The person needs to be 20 feet away from an object that a person with normal vision could discern clearly at 30 feet

A

20/30 vision

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79
Q

What are the 5 components of the reflex arc, specifically in the patellar tendon stretch reflex?

A

1) Receptor: Muscle fiber
2) Sensory neuron: Afferent neuron
3) Integration center: CNS
4) Motor neuron: Efferent neuron
5) Effector: Muscle cells of quadriceps (to contract)

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80
Q

Another example of referred pain is

A

Phantom pain - CNS has not adapted to the missing limb

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81
Q

During the sensory lab, the longer pronged forks produced a higher/lower pitch?

A

Lower pitch

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82
Q

True or False:
Higher pitches that enter the ear will travel further than lower pitches

A

FALSE:
Lower pitches have a wavelength that is able to travel further through the cochlea than a higher pitch with higher wavelengths that stop at the base.

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83
Q

Which sex is most likely to be color blind? Why?

A

Males are most likely to be color blind because this is a recessive Y-linked trait

(Women do not have a Y chromosome)

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84
Q

Where is the blind spot in each eye?

A

Just lateral to the central view

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85
Q

Why don’t we notice our blind spot when both eyes are open?

A

Both eyes are focusing forward to a ‘central view’ which creates the blind spot just lateral to this view.

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86
Q

Which lens will correct Hyperopia?

A

Convergent/Convex lens

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87
Q

Which lens will correct Myopia?

A

Concave/Divergent lens

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88
Q

In this visual disorder, the focus point is behind the retina

A

Hyperopia

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89
Q

Hyperopia is AKA

A

Farsighted vision:
Person can see further away but not up close

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90
Q

Myopia is AKA

A

Nearsighted:
Person can see up close but not things further away

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91
Q

In this visual disorder, the focus point is in front of the retina

A

Myopia

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92
Q

This is the term for ‘normal vision’ that requires no lens to correct

A

Emmetropia

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93
Q

The strength of a stimuli depends on the number of AP’s transmitted or the size of AP’s transmitted?

A

Strength of stimuli corresponds with the NUMBER of AP’s transmitted

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94
Q

The period of muscle contraction is called the …

A

Contraction time

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95
Q

The period between the peak of contraction and the relaxed state is called the….

A

Relaxation time

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96
Q

A group of muscle fibers innervated by branches of a single motor neuron are called …

A

A motor unit

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97
Q

At low frequencies of stimulation, muscle fibers contract and have enough time for the fibers to completely relax between contractions. This is called …

A

Muscle twitch

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98
Q

As the frequency of stimuli increases, new muscle contractions begin before the preceding one is finished. This results in the fusing of twitches and an increase in tension/strength of the second contraction relative to the first, with this second contraction being partially added to that first contraction.
This is called…

A

Summation

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99
Q

At an even increased frequency level, contractions are so rapid that there is no time for partial relaxation between contractions. They fuse together and the contraction appears to be smooth and continuous.
This is called..

A

Tetanic contraction

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100
Q

Tetanic contraction occurs when there is enough “?” ions in the cytoplasm between action potentials to maintain muscle contraction wihtout allowing relaxation

A

Calcium ions

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101
Q

When skeletal muscle is put through resistance training, it will increase the number of contractile filaments. What are the contractile filaments?

A

Actin and Myosin

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102
Q

The neural adaptation of muscles generally occurs within a few weeks/years, whereas contractile filaments can continue to adapt for a few weeks/years

A

Neural adaptation generally occurs within a few weeks
Contractile filaments can continue to adapt for many years

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103
Q

“Inability to maintain a given intensity of exercise” is defined as …

A

Muscle fatigue

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104
Q

Muscle fatigue may be due to the depletion of these 3 key metabolites:

A

ATP, Creatine phosphate, Glycogen
(leading to a depletion of blood glucose)

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105
Q

Creatine phosphate has a slow/quick regeneration rate

A

Quick regeneration rate (20-30 sec. half life)

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106
Q

In a maximum effort 10-15 seconds, fatigue is due to the depletion of these 2 metabolites:

A

Creatine phosphate and ATP

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107
Q

In intermediate efforts lasting from 15 seconds to 2-3 minutes, fatigue is a result of accumulation of …

A

H+ ions from lactic acid

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108
Q

Fatigue that occurs in a marathon runner (very long duration) usually occurs due to the depletion of this metabolite:

A

Glycogen in the liver and muscle stores
(resulting in the depletion of glucose for glycolysis)

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109
Q

Which bands/zones in the sarcomere change size during contraction?

A

H-zone and I-band

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110
Q

What main types of filaments are included in the A-band, I-band, and H-zone?

A

A-band: Myosin and actin
I-band: Actin
H-zone: Myosin

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111
Q

In the cardiac lab, what solution was used to keep the heart tissue alive?

A

Krebs solution

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112
Q

In the cardiac lab, the “?” experimental setup was used to conduct the experiement

A

Langendorff heart experimental setup

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113
Q

Through which receptors dows adrenaline work on the heart?

A

Beta-1 adrenoreceptors

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114
Q

In the cardiac lab, Verapomil increased/decreased HR and SOC
Why?

A

Verapomil decreases HR and SOC because it is a calcium-channel blocker

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115
Q

Cardiac muscle is under involuntary control, so it is controlled by this branch of the autonomic nervous system

A

Parasympathetic control

116
Q

The % of blood volume occupied by the formed elements (RBC’s) is called the …

A

Hematocrit

117
Q

Normal hematocrit for males and females:

A

45-52% for males
37-48% for females

118
Q

Hematocrit is important because it determines the …

A

Oxygen carrying capacity of blood

119
Q

The typical concentration of Hb is …

A

14-16g / 100mL blood

120
Q

Typical leukocyte counts are between …

A

5,000-9,000 / uL blood

121
Q

Typical platelet counts are between …

A

200,000 - 500,000 / uL blood

122
Q

The protein molecule on the surface of RBC’s that determine its blood type is an …

A

antigen
(AKA agglutinogens)

123
Q

Type A blood has these antigens and antibodies:

A

Type A antigens, anti-B antibodies

124
Q

Type B blood has these antigens and antibodies:

A

Type B antigens, anti-A antibodies

125
Q

Type AB blood has these antigens and antibodies:

A

Both A and B antigens, neither anti-A or anti-B antibodies

126
Q

Type O blood has these antigens and antibodies:

A

No antigens, both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

127
Q

These blood type antibodies are found in the…

A

Plasma

128
Q

In the blood lab, if agglutination occurred with the anti-A serum, the blood type was …

A

Type A or AB

129
Q

In the blood lab, if no agglutination occurred, the blood type was …

A

Type O

130
Q

A. test for incompatibility between donor and recipient blood that’s carried out before a blood transfusion

A

Crossmatching

131
Q

This condition of grave hemolytic anemia occurrs when the mother is Rh- and the fetus is Rh-. The mother’s antibodies will pass through the placenta and lyse the RBC’s of the fetus.

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

132
Q

Each pair of electrodes is called a …

A

a Lead

133
Q

How many leads are typically used to accurately evaluate heart function>

A

12 leads

134
Q

On the ECG paper, the vertical component is a measurement of AP voltage/time?

A

voltage of AP

135
Q

On the ECG paper, the horizontal component is a measurement of AP voltage/time?

A

Measurement of time

136
Q

On an ECG, this portion shows atrial depolarization preceding atrial systole

A

P wave

137
Q

On an ECG, this represents ventricular depolarization

A

QRS Complex

138
Q

On an ECG, when does atrial repolarization occur?

A

QRS Complex - this is hidden

139
Q

On an ECG, this portion represents ventricular repolarization just at the end of ventricular systole

A

T wave

140
Q

On an ECG, this portion represents atrial depolarization and the time delay caused by the AV node for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles

A

P-R interval

141
Q

On an ECG, this portion represents the timespan of ventricular contraction

A

Q-T interval

142
Q

When is the first heart sound heard? What causes this sound?

A

Immediately after the QRS wave and is caused by the closing of AV valves

143
Q

When is the second heart sound heard? What causes this sound?

A

Soon after the T wave begins and is caused by the closing of the semilunar valves

144
Q

Is ther a time when all the valves in the heart are closed?

A

YES

145
Q

True or False:
When using a cuff to take BP, the cuff is inflated until it exceeds the pressure of the arteries in the arm

A

True

146
Q

The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure is …

A

Pulse pressure

147
Q

Hypertension causes the heart to work harder/not as hard

A

Harder

148
Q

Diastolic pressure + 1/3PP = ?

A

Arterial pressure

149
Q

What causes a drop in BP between supine and standing HR? How does the body compensate?

A

Gravity acting on the blood vessels forces blood to pool in the legs and trunk. The body will compensate by increasing HR

150
Q

What is the purpose for internodal delay?

A

This delay allows for the atria to complete a full contraction in order for the ventricles to fill completely with blood

151
Q

What are the 2 factors of cardiac function that determine cardiac output?

A

Heart rate
Stroke volume

152
Q

The amount of air inhaled and exhaled in a single, normal breath
(which is much greater during exercise)

A

Tidal volume

153
Q

The amount of air that can be inhaled in excess of normal inspiration:

A

Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)

154
Q

The amount of air that can be forcefully expelled in excess of normal exhalation:

A

Expiration Reserve Volume (ERV)

155
Q

The amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximal forced expiration

A

Residual Volume (RV)

156
Q

? = TV+IRV+ERV+RV
OR
? = VC+RV

A

Total Lung Capacity (TLC)

157
Q

? = TV+IRV+ERV

A

Vital Capacity (VC)

158
Q

? = TV+IRV

A

Inspiratory Capacity (IC)

159
Q

? = ERV+RV

A

Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)

160
Q

The amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled in a given time after maximum expiration

A

Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)

161
Q

The volume of air moved in an dout of the lungs per minute

A

Minute ventilation (VE)

162
Q

The amount of air that can be forcefully expired in one second

A

Forced Expired Volume (FEV1)

163
Q

The amount of air that can e exhaled in a given period of time after maximum inspiration

A

Slow Vital Capacity (SVC)

164
Q

Spontaneous puncture to the pleural membrane which allows external air to enter the pleural cavity and compress the lung

A

Pneumothorax

165
Q

When the FEV1/FVC% is below what percentage that shows an obstructed airway?

A

If the ratio falls below 80%

166
Q

What are examples of physiological conditions associated with a low FEV1/FVC% ?

A

Asthma, cystic fibrosis

167
Q

In lungs with no obstructive disease, the FEV1/FVC should be at least …

A

90%

168
Q

What are the 3 parameters that affect the respiratory center of the brain to breathe?

A

1) Blood H+ concentration
2) PaO2
3) H+ concentration in the CSF

169
Q

Proteins are generally +/- charged?

A

Negatively (-) charged

170
Q

This indicates that the permeability of the renal glomerulus has been altered or that a kidney infection/damage is present

A

Proteinuria

171
Q

Is glucose normally found in urine?

A

No

172
Q

True or False:
Glucose is easily filtered through the glomerulus but doesn’t make it to the urine because it is reabsorbed through the proximal renal tubule

A

True

173
Q

Through which kind of transport is glucose reabsorbed into the blood from the proximal renal tubule?

A

Secondary Active Transport

174
Q

What is the chief cause of Gycosuria?

A

Diabetes mellitus

175
Q

This is a cause of carbohydrate deprivation

A

Ketonuria

176
Q

This can be observed if hemolysis has occurred, possibly due to toxins, high amounts of physical activity, or bruising/bleeding in the kidneys

A

Hemoglobiuria

177
Q

This indicates a UTI

A

Leukocytes in the urine

178
Q

This bacteria is the common culprit of UTI’s

A

E. coli

179
Q

What is the normal pH of urine?

A

5.7
Or between 5.0 and 7.5

180
Q

These are cylindrical structures formed by the precipitation of protein into the renal tubules

A

Casts

181
Q

Although a small number of casts are found in normal urine, larger amounts may indicate

A

Renal disease
ex: glomerulonephritis or nephrosis

182
Q

A few crystals are normal in urine, but a large number of crystals may be a precursor of

A

Kidney stones

183
Q

Large numbers of uric acid crystals in the urine suggest large amount of (?) in the blood that is associated with conditions such as (?)

A

Large amounts of URIC ACID in the blood that is associated with conditions such as GOUT

184
Q

Osmoregulators in the “?” are stimulated by an increase in osmotic pressure?
(Increase in solutes through dehydration/salt intake)

A

Hypothalamus

185
Q

When stimulated by an increase in osmotic pressure, osmoregulators stimulate which gland to release which hormone?

A

Stimulate the Posterior Pituitary Gland to release ADH

186
Q

ADH promotes the resorption of H2O/Na+ from the collecting duct?

A

H2O from the collecting duct

187
Q

Increases in which ion directly stimulate the secretion of which hormone from the adrenal cortex?

A

An increase in K+ directly stimulates the release of Aldosterone from the adrenal cortex

188
Q

Decreases in this ion OR decreased blood flow to the kidneys indirectly stimulate the release of this hormone through RAAS

A

Decrease in Na+ can indirectly stimulate the release of Aldosterone through the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone-System

189
Q

Aldosterone promotes the reabsorption of H2O/Na+ from the proximal tubules?

A

Reabsorption of Na+ from the proximal tubules

190
Q

When Na+ is beging reabsorbed from the proximal tubules due to Aldosterone, these 2 additional things travel with it back into the blood

A

Water and Cl-

191
Q

This is measured as the density of urine

A

Specific Gravity

192
Q

Specific gravity of urine will be mostly affected by the action of this hormone

A

ADH on the collecting ducts

193
Q

Water has a specific gravity of

A

1.000g/mL

194
Q

What is the minimal blood glucose level that will cause glycosuria?

A

150 mg/dL

195
Q

Glucose is reabsorbed through the ….

A

Proximal renal tubule

196
Q

Which of the following may NOT act as a buffer?
- Phosphates
- Proteins
- HCO3^- (bicarbonates)
- ALL of these can act as buffers
- NONE of these can act as buffers

A

ALL of these can act as buffers

197
Q

If the H+ concentration is 1 x 10 ^-9 moles/L, what is the pH?

A

9

198
Q

A falling pH and rising PaCO2 due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates:
- Respiratory acidosis
- Metabolic acidosis
- Respiratory alkalosis
- Metabolic alkalosis

A

Respiratory Acidosis

199
Q

Using the bicarbonate buffer formula:
CO2 + H20 ↔ H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3-
When CO2 is added, what will be the result?

-The increased CO2 will increase the pH
-The formula will shift to the left to produce more CO2
-The formula will shift to the right to produce more H+ and HCO3-
-The CO2 will disappear because of the buffer and nothing else will change

A

The formula will shift to the right to produce more H+ and HCO3-

200
Q

A patient comes in with a pH of 7.25 and tests show that they have low HCO3- levels and low PaCO2 levels. Which description (diagnosis) describes these circumstances?

  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis
A

Metabolic Acidosis

201
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

  • A buffer requires a strong acid and its base to function.
  • pH is used to describe the concentration of H+ in a solution
  • H+ ions combine with bicarbonate ions to form carbonic acid
  • Carbonic anhydrase is the enzyme that facilitates the bicarbonate buffer system.
A

A buffer requires a strong acid and its base to function.

202
Q

Catalase is an active enzyme found most abundantly in cells of the …

A

Liver

203
Q

Enzymes lower the activation energy required for a reaction without altering the cellular _______________, which would harm the cell.

  • Oxidants
  • Temperature
  • CO2
  • Triglycerides
A

Temperature

204
Q

A solution containing an enzyme is mildly heated but does not boil. Then, quickly substrate was added to the enzyme solution. What would most likely happen to the reaction rate?

  • The rate should decrease because of the increased amount of enzyme.
  • The rate should decrease because the enzyme is more efficient.
  • The rate should stay the same because the enzyme is denatured.
  • The rate should increase because of the increased temperature.
A

The rate should increase because of the increased temperature.

205
Q

Increasing the concentration of enzyme in a solution will cause a reaction rate to do what?

  • Increase the amount of product produced
  • Increase the energy required for the reaction to occur
  • Decrease the temperature of the solution
  • Decrease the reaction rate
A

Increase the amount of product produced

206
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

  • A peroxisome in the liver would produce more water at a pH 7 than pH 4.
  • A peroxisome in the liver would produce more oxygen at pH 7 than at pH 10.
  • A peroxisome in the liver would produce more oxygen at 37° C than at 22°C.
  • A peroxisome in the liver would produce more oxygen at room temperature than at 37°C.
A

A peroxisome in the liver would produce more oxygen at room temperature than at 37°C.

207
Q

Diffusion _______________.

  • is the movement of molecules from low concentrations to higher concentrations.
  • is not affected by temperature or size of the molecules
  • is the movement of molecules from high concentrations to lower concentrations.
  • always requires energy
A

is the movement of molecules from high concentrations to lower concentrations.

208
Q

You have two experiments. Experiment A has a rate of 3.72 mm/sec and experiment B has a rate of 5.14 mm/sec. What might you have done in experiment B to cause the reaction rate to be faster than experiment A?

  • You increased the amount of enzyme in experiment A.
  • Increased the amount of substrate in experiment A.
  • Decreased the temperature in experiment B.
  • Increased the amount of substrate in experiment B.
A

Increased the amount of substrate in experiment B

209
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about osmosis?

  • All of the above are true statements about osmosis.
  • Osmosis is the movement of solvent from regions of low solute concentration to regions of higher solute concentration.
  • The movement of water is restricted.
  • Osmosis refers to the net movement of solute through a selectively permeable membrane.
A

Osmosis is the movement of solvent from regions of low solute concentration to regions of higher solute concentration.

210
Q

Enzyme______________ describes a condition where all enzymes present are bound by substrate and are working at maximum rate.

  • saturation
  • denaturing
  • activation
  • degradation
A

Saturation

211
Q

The substrate in lab 3 was__________ and the enzyme was ______ .

  • hydrogen peroxide …… oxygen
  • oxygen …….. water
  • hydrogen peroxide …… catalase
  • water …… catalase
A

hydrogen peroxide …… catalase

212
Q

Which of the following statements about enzymes is true?

  • Enzymes function as biological catalysts.
  • Enzymes increase the rate of a chemical reaction.
  • None of the answers are true except this one!
  • Enzymes are proteins.
  • All of the answers are true.
A

All of the answers are true

213
Q

Which of the following would decrease or slow the rate of a chemical reaction?

  • Moderately increasing the temperature of the solution
  • Adding a catalyst
  • Removing any enzyme inhibitors.
  • Increasing the energy of activation .
  • Increasing the concentration of reactants.
A

Increasing the energy of activation

214
Q

The term used to describe the type of solution in which cells will gain water from their environment is ______________________ .

  • hypotonic
  • hypertonic
  • catatonic
  • isotonic
A

Hypotonic

215
Q

Osmotic pressure is defined as the amount of pressure that must be applied to prevent net flow of solvent through a semipermeable membrane from a solution with a __________________ solute concentration to a _______ solute concentration

  • higher …….. lower
  • lower ……. higher
A

lower ……. higher

216
Q

Which of the following statements about osmosis is FALSE:

  • It involves a selectively permeable membrane
  • It requires active transport
  • It requires a difference in solvent concentration on either side of a membrane.
  • It involves diffusion
A

It requires active transport

217
Q

Which of the following statements about diffusion is FALSE:
- Above zero Kelvin (absolute zero), all atoms, molecules, and ions are in constant motion
- Molecules have higher kinetic energy at higher temperatures and therefore diffuse more rapidly
- Larger molecules diffuse at the same rate as smaller particles
- If all of these statements are TRUE, choose this response.
- Diffusion is the process by which molecules move from one location to another spontaneously down their concentration gradients.

A

Larger molecules diffuse at the same rate as smaller particles

218
Q

If 1 drop of 0.1% NaCl is mixed with a drop of blood, what would happen to the red blood cells after a few minutes?
- The cells would appear unchanged.
- The cells would crenate
- The cells would lyse

A

The cells would lyse

219
Q

The average resting membrane potential of a neuron is normally…

  • 70mV
  • 0mV
  • -70mV
  • 10mV
  • -10mV
A

70 mV

220
Q

Which of the following is a TRUE statement about a neuron at rest:

  • There is more potassium on the inside of a neuron and more sodium on the outside of a neuron.
  • There is more sodium on the inside of a neuron and more potassium on the outside of a neuron.
  • There is no difference in potassium and sodium concentrations between the inside and outside neuronal environments when a neuron is at rest.
A

There is more potassium on the inside of a neuron and more sodium on the outside of a neuron.

221
Q

The membrane potential of a neuron at rest is a result of ion imbalances across the plasma membrane. Which of the follow statements is true about resting membrane potential?

  • a higher concentration of Na+ ions on the inside of the cell when compared to the outside
  • a higher concentration of K+ ions on the inside of the cell when compared to the outside
  • a higher concentration of K+ ions on the outside of the cell when compared to the inside
  • a higher concentration of anions on the outside of the cell when compared to the inside
A

a higher concentration of K+ ions on the inside of the cell when compared to the outside

222
Q

The period during and immediately following an action potential in which a second action potential cannot be generated in response to stimulus, regardless of the strength of that stimulus, is called a/an ________________ refractory period.

  • absolute
  • partial
  • relative
  • unconditional
A

Absolute

223
Q

What portion of a motor neuron is responsible for the start of an action potential?

  • axon terminal
  • node of Ranvier
  • axon hillock
  • dendrites
A

Axon Hillock

224
Q

Which gated channels are primarily responsible for depolarization phase of an action potential in a neuron?

  • Ligand or chemical-gated sodium channels
  • Voltage-gated sodium channels
  • Voltage-gated potassium channels
  • Voltage-gated calcium channels
A

Voltage-gated sodium channels

225
Q

Which gated channels are primarily responsible for repolarization of an action potential and resting membrane potential?

  • Ligand-gated sodium channels
  • Voltage-gated sodium channels
  • Voltage-gated potassium channels
  • Ligand-gated potassium channels
A

Voltage-gated potassium channels

226
Q

Nicotine mimics the effects of acetylcholine cholinergic receptors, especially nicotinic receptors. What effect would injecting nicotine near a cholinergic axon terminal have on the spontaneous action potentials?

  • Nicotine tends to decrease spontaneous action potential generation
  • Nicotine tends to increase spontaneous action potential generation
  • Nicotine will usually have no effect on spontaneous action potential generation
A

Nicotine tends to increase spontaneous action potential generation

227
Q

Ouabain is a poison that blocks the activity of Na+/ K+ ATPase pumps. If the Na+/ K+ ATPase pumps are blocked, then the concentration of Na+ inside the cell will ___________________ .

  • decrease
  • increase
  • remain unchanged
A

Increase

228
Q

The unequal distribution of positively and negatively charged particles around the cell membrane creates the ______________ . At rest, it is normally about_________________________ .

  • membrane potential —— +30mV
  • equilibrium potential —- -30mV
  • membrane potential —– -70mV
  • equilibrium potential —– +70mV
A

membrane potential —– -70mV

229
Q

__________ receptors respond when they first receive a stimulus but cease to respond if the strength of the stimulus remains constant.

  • Slowly adapting receptors
  • Rapidly adapting receptors
  • both a and b
  • none of the above
A

Rapidly adapting receptors

230
Q

Proprioceptors provide a sense of ______________.

  • warmth/cold
  • pain
  • body position
  • momentum
A

Body position

231
Q

In the two-point threshold experiment, you should have seen that there are differing distances between receptors in certain body areas. This would lead you to infer that…

  • There is no difference in the area of the sensory cortex of the brain associated with different body regions.
  • There is more area in the sensory cortex of the brain associated with the area with the largest distance between receptors.
  • There is more area in the sensory cortex of the brain associated with the area with the smallest distance between receptors.
  • There is no dedicated area in the brain for each specific body region.
A

There is more area in the sensory cortex of the brain associated with the area with the smallest distance between receptors.

232
Q

When a violinist plays a _____________ note on the violin, the wavelength of the sound is shorter and the frequency greater than when a ____________ note is played.

  • softer ——- louder
  • louder ——- softer
  • lower ——- higher
  • higher ——– lower
A

higher ——– lower

233
Q

A _______________ whose _ ____ is color-blind is more likely to also be color-blind.

  • female —— mother
  • female —– father
  • male ——- father
  • male —— mother
A

female —– father

234
Q

An optometrist examining a patient, finds that the light entering her eye is coming to a focal point in front of the retina. What is your diagnosis and what shape of lens would you prescribe?

  • Presbyopia —– concave
  • Emmetropia —– convex
  • Hyperopia —— covex
  • Myopia ——- concave
A

Myopia ——- concave

235
Q

________ is the capacity of an excited neuron to reduce the activity of its neighbors, and can be helpful in locating somatosensory stimuli.

  • Referred sensation
  • Stimulus coding
  • Lateral inhibition
  • Adaptation
A

Lateral inhibition

236
Q

How is the intensity of a stimulus encoded during information transmission to the central nervous system?

  • The neurotransmitter released from the afferent neuron is different based on stimulus intensity.
  • The amplitude of action potentials transmitted to the CNS is greater for a stronger stimulus.
  • Second order neuron is dedicated to a certain stimulus intensity. One transmits a signal for a strong stimulus and another transmits a signal for a weak stimulus.
  • The frequency of action potentials transmitted to the CNS is greater for a stronger stimulus.
A

The frequency of action potentials transmitted to the CNS is greater for a stronger stimulus.

237
Q

The receptor which initiates the stretch reflex, demonstrated in the lab, is a ____________________________ .

  • muscle spindle fibers
  • joint receptors
  • Golgi tendon organ
  • monosynaptic receptor
A

Muscle spindle fibers

238
Q

What kind of stimulus causes the basilar membrane close to the base or oval window of the cochlea to vibrate?

  • High pitch with varying amplitude
  • Low amplitude with varying pitch
  • Low pitch with varying amplitude
  • High amplitude with varying pitch
A

High pitch with varying amplitude

239
Q

The intensity of muscle contraction is regulated by…

  • accumulation of hydrogen ions from lactic acid
  • multiple motor unit recruitment
  • A and B are correct
  • changing the frequency of muscle stimulation
A

A and B are correct

240
Q

A motor unit consists of _____________.

  • a single muscle cell innervated by multiple motor neurons.
  • a group of muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron.
  • groups of muscle fibers innervated by groups of motor neurons.
  • none of the above
A

a group of muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron.

241
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in excitation- contraction coupling?

  • motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, Ca2+ release from SR, ADP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
  • neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, ADP-driven power stroke, Ca2+ release from SR, sliding of myofilaments
  • muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, Ca2+ release from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ADP-driven power stroke
  • motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, sliding of myofilaments , Ca2+ release from SR, ADP-driven power stroke
A

motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, Ca2+ release from SR, ADP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments

242
Q

To increase muscle strength (as occurs with a strength training regime), the ___________
component changes over months or years, and the ______
component changes within days or weeks.

Answer 1: Actin/muscular/neural
Answer 2: Actin/muscular/neural

A

Answer 1: Muscular
Answer 2: Neural

243
Q

Increasing the stimulus_________________ causes temporal summation.

  • duration
  • frequency
  • voltage
  • current
A

Frequency

244
Q

During maximum effort of 10-15 seconds, fatigue is due to _________________ .

  • none of the above
  • depletion of ATP, and creatine phosphate
  • accumulation of H+ ions from lactic acid
  • depletion of ATP, creatine phosphate, and glycogen
A

depletion of ATP, and creatine phosphate

245
Q

A drug is administered to an isolated motor unit. You determine that an action potential is occurring on the motor neuron and an action potential is occurring on the muscle, but the muscle is not generating tension. What is the drug doing?

  • Blocking acetylcholine receptors on the muscle.
  • Blocking calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. (smooth ER)
  • Blocking acetylcholine release from the neuron.
  • Blocking calcium reuptake from the sarcoplasm.
A

Blocking calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. (smooth ER)

246
Q

Which of the following bands or zones of a sarcomere change their size during a muscle contraction?

  • The A band and the H zone
  • H zone
  • A band
  • I band
  • The I band and the A band
  • The I band and the H zone
A

The I band and the H zone

247
Q

The force of a skeletal muscle contraction is affected by all of the following except…

  • the relative size of the muscle fibers
  • the frequency of stimulation
  • If all of these affect force of contraction, choose this response.
  • the number of muscle cells stimulated (recruitment)
  • length-tension relationship
A

If all of these affect force of contraction, choose this response.

248
Q

In the heart simulation that you will use during lab #8 (the one this next week), what is the purpose of the Krebs solution?

  • To provide nutrients to the heart and keep the tissue alive
  • To simulate blood flow through the atria and ventricles
  • To amplify the signal to be measured during the simulation
  • To inflate the balloon and allow measurement of contraction strength
A

To provide nutrients to the heart and keep the tissue alive

249
Q

What is the name for the experimental setup that you will be using for lab #8 (the one this next week)?

  • Lub-dub Simulator
  • Cardiac Controller
  • Benedicts
  • Langendorff
A

Langendorff

250
Q

Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is FALSE?

  • Myocardial cells have gap junctions
  • Cardiac muscle is not striated
  • Cardiac muscle has sarcomeres
  • Cardiac muscle has the Troponin-Tropomyosin system
A

Cardiac muscle is not striated

251
Q

In the heart muscle experiment, epinephrine was administered in conjunction with phentolamine (an alpha blocker) or propranolol (a beta blocker). The resulting heart rate and strength of contraction were measured. The epinephrine + phentolamine results in an isolated heart were the same as epinephrine alone. The epinephrine + propranolol results are lower than epinephrine alone. What can we infer from these results?

  • Propanolol inhibits the effect of phentolamine
  • Epinephrine binds to alpha adrenergic receptors
  • Epinephrine binds to beta adrenergic receptors
  • Phentolamine is a competitive inhibitor of beta receptors.
A

Epinephrine binds to beta adrenergic receptors

252
Q

Verapamil blocks voltage-gated calcium channels. Why did the administration of Verapamil in the lab effect the strength of heart contraction?

  • Strength of contraction depends on potassium leakage
  • Verapamil affects the level of calcium binding to troponin in the muscle fiber
  • Verapamil stops the signals from the motor nerves via pre-synaptic calcium blockade
  • Verapamil stops the action potential from travelling through the heart
A

Verapamil affects the level of calcium binding to troponin in the muscle fiber

253
Q

Implied by the results of the heart muscle experiment, what effect does sympathetic nervous system activation and increase release of epinephrine have on the heart muscle?

  • The heart rate and strength of contraction decreases
  • Only the strength of contraction increases
  • Only the heart rate increases
  • Only the heart rate decreases
  • The heart rate and strength of contraction increases
A

The heart rate and strength of contraction increases

254
Q

What result(s) does parasympathetic nervous system activation have on the heart?

  • Only the strength of contraction increases
  • The heart rate and strength of contraction increase
  • Only heart rate increases
  • Only heart rate decreases
  • The heart rate and strength of contraction decrease
A

Only heart rate decreases

255
Q

When acetylcholine and epinephrine were administered in the lab in equal amounts, which one had the stronger effect?

  • There was no effect with either
  • Both had the same strength
  • Epinephrine
  • Acetylcholine
A

Epinephrine

256
Q

A drug called digoxin hinders the calcium secondary pumps only on the sarcolemma but has no effect on the Ca++ ATPase pumps in sarcoplasmic reticulum that pump Ca++ ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (smooth ER) between contractions. Digoxin decreases the amount of calcium that is returned to the extracellular fluid. What will result from this drug application?

  • The strength of contraction will decrease
  • The heart will not be affected
  • The action potentials in the contractile cardiac myocytes will summate leading to a tetanic contraction.
  • The strength of contraction will increase
A

The strength of contraction will increase

257
Q

In blood, the hematocrit directly measures the…

  • amount of plasma in the blood
  • clotting ability of platelets
  • amount of leukocytes only
  • percent of blood volume occupied by the erythrocytes
A

percent of blood volume occupied by the erythrocytes

258
Q

Which of the following conditions would not directly contribute to a low hematocrit?

  • Iron deficiency
  • Hemorrhage
  • Hemolysis
  • An individual with a restrictive lung disease and impaired oxygen delivery
A

An individual with a restrictive lung disease and impaired oxygen delivery

259
Q

Which of the following couples could have a fetus at risk of developing erythroblastosis fetalis?

  • Father AB- Mother B+
  • Father: A+ Mother: B+
  • Father: B+ Mother: O-
  • Father O- Mother AB-
A

Father: B+ Mother: O-

260
Q

Which of the following statements is true of cross-matching blood types?

  • Clumping of the red blood cells during the test indicate incompatibility.
  • It is done to avoid leaking hemoglobin, which may lead to renal failure.
  • It is a test carried out prior to a blood transfusion to avoid a hemolytic reaction.
  • All of the above statements are true of crossmatching.
A

All of the above statements are true of crossmatching.

261
Q

If a mother has AB blood and the father also has AB blood, which is/are the possible blood type(s) of their offspring?

  • A, B, AB, O
  • A
  • A, B
  • A, B, AB
  • AB
A

A, B, AB

262
Q

What is the blood type of a person whose blood agglutinates in the Anti-A serum, does not agglutinate in the Anti-B serum, and does not agglutinate in the Anti-D (Rh) serum?

  • B positive
  • A positive
  • A negative
  • O positive
  • B negative
A

A negative

263
Q

A hemorrhaging patient arrives at the emergency department that has AB- blood. You are all out of AB- blood. Which other type could you transfuse into them?

  • AB+
  • Any blood type, it is the universal recipient.
  • A-
  • B+
  • O+
A

A-

264
Q

While measuring one’s blood pressure, the point at which the sound of turbulent blood flow ceases
is the…

  • Pulse pressure
  • Diastolic pressure
  • Mean Arterial Pressure
  • Systolic pressure
A

Diastolic pressure

265
Q

Find the correct match:

  • QRS Complex: Atrial Contraction
  • QRS Complex: Atrial Depolarization
  • T Wave: Atrial Depolarization
  • T Wave: Ventricular Repolarization
  • P Wave: Ventricular Depolarization
A

T Wave: Ventricular Repolarization

266
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a pneumothorax?

  • A pneumothorax can occur spontaneously!
  • If all of the above statements are TRUE, choose this response.
  • Results in a partially or completely collapsed lung.
  • Results in the intrapleural pressure becoming equal to and in some cases greater than the atmospheric pressure.
  • A pnuemothorax can result from physical injury to the parietal or visceral pleura.
A

If all of the above statements are TRUE, choose this response.

267
Q

Relaxation of the diaphragm __________________ (increases/decreases) the volume of the thoracic cavity. This causes a(an) (increase/decrease) in the intra-alveolar pressure and causes air to flow (into/out of) the lungs.

  • Decreases, increase, out of
  • Decreases, decrease, out of
  • Increases, decrease, out of
  • Increases, decrease, into
  • Decreases, increase, into
A

Decreases, increase, out of

268
Q

Complete the follow statement to make it a true statement! If someone hyperventilated before holding their breath the result would be. . .

c. An increase in cerebrospinal fluid pH
Both choices A and C are correct
Both choices B and C are correct
a. The need to breath sooner than usual
b. The ability to hold one’s breath longer

A

Both choices B and C are correct

269
Q

Which of the following is a formula that calculates Vital capacity?

  • TV+IRV+ERV
  • ERV+RV
  • TV+IRV
  • TV+IRV+ERV+RV
A

TV + IRV + ERV

270
Q

Which of the following best describes bilirubinuria?

  • Large amounts of ketone bodies found in the urine
  • Glycolytic enzymes found in the urine
  • Large amounts of protein found in the urine
  • An excess of converted heme groups in the urine
A

An excess of converted heme groups in the urine

271
Q

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH):

  • Is a hormone that increases loss of water through urine
  • Promotes reabsorption of water
  • Is produced more in males than in females
  • Is the only regulator of urine production
A

Promotes reabsorption of water

272
Q

Which hormone acts on collecting duct cells to directly increase the permeability of water for reabsorption?

  • Aldosterone
  • ADH- Vasopressin
  • Renin
  • Angiotensinogen
A

ADH - Vasopressin

273
Q

Which of the following might cause Ketonuria?

  • Urinary tract infection
  • High pH in the blood
  • Obstruction of the common bile duct
  • Carbohydrate deprivation
A

Carbohydrate deprivation

274
Q

Under microscopic examination of a urine sample, you find a large number of epithelial cells. What might this indicate for the patient?

  • possible renal disease
  • nothing, that is a normal occurrence in urine
  • possible gout
  • a high protein diet
A

Possible renal disease

275
Q

Two patients gave urine samples over the same amount of time. Patient A had a urine formation rate of 42 ml/minute while patient B had a urine formation rate of 3 ml/min. What might the two patients have done differently?

  • Patient B drank more water
  • Patient A sweat a higher amount
  • Patient A ingested food with a high-salt content
  • Patient B ingested food with a high-salt content
A

Patient B ingested food with a high-salt content

276
Q

Which is true about the kidney’s handling of glucose?

  • Glucose doesn’t enter the kidney
  • Glucose is easily filtered and then reabsorbed through secondary active transport
  • Glucose is easily filtered and then all stays in the kidney tubules
  • Glucose is only filtered into the tubules if the blood level is too high
A

Glucose is easily filtered and then reabsorbed through secondary active transport

277
Q

Aldosterone:

  • Causes the collecting ducts to become permeable to water, increasing urine production.
  • Causes the collecting ducts to become permeable to water, decreasing urine production.
  • Stimulates the reabsorption of sodium, increasing urine production.
  • Stimulates the reabsorption of sodium, decreasing urine production.
A

Stimulates the reabsorption of sodium, decreasing urine production.

278
Q

During the urology lab one individual drank 600 mL of pure water. Ninety minutes after ingesting the water their body…

  • produced more ADH and their urine production increased.
  • produced less ADH and their urine production decreased.
  • produced more aldosterone and their urine production decreased.
  • produced less ADH and their urine production increased.
A

produced less ADH and their urine production increased.

279
Q

Excess plasma levels of K+ would cause…

  • decreased aldosterone released
  • increased aldosterone released
  • reabsorption of potassium (K+)
  • secretion of sodium (Na+)
A

Increased aldosterone released

280
Q

Which of the following might indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI)

  • A urine pH of 5.7
  • The presence of hemoglobin in the urine
  • The presence of leukocytes in the urine
  • The presence of glucose in the urine
A

The presence of leukocytes in the urine

281
Q

Specific gravity is a measure of…

  • the amount of sodium contained in the urine
  • the amount of potassium contained in the urine
  • the volume of the urine excreted
  • the density of the urine
A

the density of the urine

282
Q

Universal donor:

A

O-

283
Q

Universal recipient:

A

AB+

284
Q

In the acid-base buffer lab, what is the name of the enzyme in the bicarbonate buffer equation?

A

Carbonic anhydrase

285
Q

What was the base used in the acid-base buffer lab?

A

NaHCO3

286
Q

Is NaCl acidic or basic?

A

NEUTRAL
*sodium chloride is a SALT

Physiology Lab Final (1 decks)

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