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Final Review Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the 5 Year survival rate of all combined cancers?

A

63% for all cancers combined

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2
Q

Disorder of altered cell differetiation and growth, resulting in neoplasia “new growth”

A

Cancer

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3
Q

Growth that tends to be uncoordinated and relatively autonomous that lacks normal regulatory controls over cell growth and division

A

Neoplasm

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4
Q

Swelling that can be caused by a number of conditions including inflammation and trauma

A

Tumor

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5
Q

Contains well differentiated cells clustered together in a single mass

A

Benign

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6
Q

Can break loose and enter circulator and lymph system and form secondary malignant tumors at other sites

A

Malignant

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7
Q

Parenchymal tissue, type from which growth originated (functional component of organ)

A

-oma

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8
Q

Benign tumor of glandular epithelial tissue

A

Adenoma

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9
Q

Malignant tumor of glandular epithelial tissue

A

Adenocarcinoma

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10
Q

Malignant tumor of epithelial tissue

A

Carcinoma

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11
Q

Benign tumor of bone tissue

A

Osteoma

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12
Q

Malignant tumor of mesenchymal origin

A

Sarcome

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13
Q

Benign microscopic/macro fingerlike projection growing on surface

A

Papilloma

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14
Q

Growth projects mucosal surface (intestine) and usually implies benign neoplasm/malignant tumor

A

Polpys

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15
Q

Composed of well differentiated cells that resemble cells of tissue of origin

A

Benign Neoplasms

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16
Q

Invade and destroy tissue near and spread to other parts of the body

A

Malignant Neoplasms

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17
Q

Loss of cell differentiation in cancerous tissue

A

Anaplasia

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18
Q

Development of secondary tumor in location distant from primary tumor

A

Metastasis

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19
Q

Ratio dividing cells to resist cells in tissue mass

A

Growth Fraction

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20
Q

Length of time it takes for total mass cells in tumor to double

A

Doubling time

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21
Q

What is Metastsis?

A

Travelling tumor that is spread through lymph

- Retains many characteristics of original tumor

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22
Q

Which ways can metastasis occur?

A

1) Lymph Channels
- Tumor cells lodge in lymph nodes that receive drainage
- Lymph node in cells die and grow into a mass
- Lymph empties into venous (cancer survives), and break free and enter circulation

2) Blood Vessels
- Cancer follow venous blood and drain @ neoplasm
- Venous from GI, Pancreas & Spleen go to Liver (common site metastasis spread)

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23
Q

What factors affect rate of tumor growth?

A

1) Number of cells actively dividing or moving through cell cycle
2) Duration of cell cycle
3) Number of cells being lost compared to number of new cells produced

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24
Q

How many times must a tumor double before its detectable?

A

35 times (Contains over 1 trillion cells)

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25
Q

What 2 genes control cell growth and replication?

A

1) Proto-oncogens
- Promote cell growth in absence of normal growth promoting cells

2) Tumor Suppressor Genes
- Inhibit proliferation of cells in tumor when inactivated, unregulated growth begins

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26
Q

Which factors increase a persons susceptibility to cancer?

A

1) Defects in DNA Repair
2) Defects in Growth Factor Signaling
3) Evasion of Apoptosis
4) Evasion of Cellular Senescence
5) Development of Sustained Angiogenesis
6) Invasion and Metastasis

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27
Q

What are the 3 stage of Carciongenesis?

A

1) Initiation
- Cells exposed to carcinogen agents, making susceptible to malignant transformation

2) Promotion
- Unregulated, accelerated growth in already initiated cells caused by various chemicals and growth factors

3) Progression
- Tumor cells acquire malignant phenotypic change - promote invasiveness and metastatic competence

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28
Q

What 7 Host/Environmental factors can lead to cancer?

A

1) Heredity
2) Hormones
3) Chemical Carcinogens
4) Radiation
5) Oncogen viruses
6) Immunologic Mechanisms
7) Angiogenesis

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29
Q

Which viruses are related to human cancers?

A

1) HPV (Human Pav)
2) EBV (Epstein-Barr)
3) HBV (Hep B)
4) HHV-8 (Herpe 8)

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30
Q

What role does angiogenesis play in tumor growth?

A

Tumors cannot enlarge without angiogenesis and supplies them with blood for survival (to grow and metastasis)

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31
Q

What are the systemic manifestations of cancer?

A

1) Anorexia & Cachexia
2) Fatigue & Sleep Disorders
3) Anemia

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32
Q

Describe each type of cancer treatment available?

A

1) Surgery
2) Radiation
3) Hormone Therapy
4) Biotherapy
5) Chemotherapy

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33
Q

What tissues can be affected by neoplasms of skeletal system?

A

1) Bone tissue
2) Cartilage
3) Bone Marrow

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34
Q

Which type of tumor do not spread to other parts of the body?

A

Benign tumors

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35
Q

What does “well demarcated edges” mean?

A

Clear sharp borders that benign tumors have

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36
Q

Which age are malignant bone tumors most common?

A

After 10 years of age

Rare to see before this age

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37
Q

3 characteristics of bone tumors

A

1) Pain
2) Presence of a Mass
3) Impairment of Function

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38
Q

First sign/symptoms that could indicate bone tumor?

A

Presence of mass

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39
Q

4 types of benign tumors

A

1) Osteoma
- Small bony tumor found on surface of long bone, or skull

2) Chondroma
- Composed of hyaline cartilage (common on hands or feet)

3) Osteochondroma
- Grows only during skeletal growth
- Composed of cartilage and bone

4) Giant Cell Tumor
- Aggressive tumor that behaves like malignant
- Begins in metaphyseal region and growing into epiphysis (may extend to joint)
- Common in knee, wrist and shoulder

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40
Q

3 Types of malignant tumors

A

1) Osteosarcoma
- Aggressive and highly malignant
- Most common bone tumor in children under 20
- Common in knee, proximal humerus

2) Ewing Sarcoma
- Small, round cell undifferentiated tumors (Ewing and PPNET)
- Most common in teenage years
- Common in femur, pelvis, vertebrae, ribs, skull

3) Chondrosarcoma
- Malignant tumor of cartilage (destroys bone and soft tissues)
- Develop in medullary cavity
- Common later in life in males
- Mainly affects trunk, pelvis and proximal femur

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41
Q

Which primary tumors can frequently metastasize to bone?

A

1) Breast
2) Lung
3) Prostate
4) Kidney
5) Thyroid

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42
Q

Which locations are metastatic bone lesions most common?

A

1) Spine
2) Femur
3) Pelvis
4) Ribs
5) Sternum
6) Proximal Humerus
7) Skull

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43
Q

Symptoms of metastatic bone disease?

A

1) Pain
2) Increased Risk Fractures
3) Increased Disability
4) Pathologic Fracturing

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44
Q

Goals of treatment for metastatic bone disease?

A

1) Prevent pathologic fractures
2) Promote survival with max functioning
3) Allow person to maintain as much mobility and pain control as possible

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45
Q

Aggressive, locally invasive metastatic tumor that arise from epithelial lining of major bronchi

A

Bronchogenic Carcinoma

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46
Q

2 Types of Lung Cancer

A

1) Small Cell Lung Cancer
Distinctive cell type: small round, oval approx. size of lymphocyte
- Grow in clusters not glandular nor squamous organization
- Associated with smoking

2) Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer

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47
Q

3 Types of Non-small cell Lung Cancer?

A

1) Squamous cell carcinoma
- Common in men who smoke
- Originates in bronchi as intraluminal growth
- Spreads into major bronchi and hilar lymph nodes

2) Adenocarcinoma
- Most common lung cancer in North America
- Most common in women non-smokers
- Originate in bronchial or alveolar tissues

3) Large cell cancer
- Large polygonal cells
- Occur in periphery of lung, invade sub segmental bronchi and large airways

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48
Q

Etiologic agents that can lead to lung cancer?

A

1) Smoking
2) Industrial Hazards (Asbestos)
3) Genetic

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49
Q

Symptoms associated with Lung Cancer?

A

1) Insidious
2) Local Irritation and Obstruction of Airway
3) Chronic Cough, Shortness of Breath
3) Hemoptysis (Blood in sputum)
4) Dull Localized Pain
5) Pain can become Persistent
6) Paraneoplastic Disorders

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50
Q

When Lung cancer invade mediastinum, what are the symptoms?

A

1) Hoarseness
2) Difficulty Swallowing
3) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome

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51
Q

Treatment for lung cancer based on type (small-cell vs non-small cell)

A

1) SCLC
- Chemotherapy

2) NSCLC
- Surgery
- Radiation
- Chemotherapy
- Combination

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52
Q

Risk factors for colon cancer?

A

1) Increased Age
2) Family History of Cancer
3) Family History of Colon Cancer
4) Person with Chron or Colitis
5) Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

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53
Q

Factors that can decrease risk of developing colon cancer?

A

1) Diet
2) Aspirin
3) Supplements (Calcium, Folate, Hormone replacement)

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54
Q

Symptoms of colon cancer?

A

1) Bleeding
2) Change in Bowel Habits
3) Diarrhea/Constipation
4) Urgency or Incomplete Emptying of Bowel
5) Pain

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55
Q

“Mole”

- Common congenital tumor of skin that are benign

A

Nevi

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56
Q

3 Types of Nevi’s?

A

1) Nevocellular
- Caused by proliferation of melanocytes in epidermis
- Formed by melanocytes that normally interspersed among basal keratinocytes

2) Compound
- Contain epidermal and dermal components

3) Dysplastic
- Capacity to turn in malignant
- Large that other nevi, slightly raised and brown to red color

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57
Q

Changes that should be observed with nevi’s?

A

1) Size
2) Thickness
3) Color
4) Itching
5) Bleeding

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58
Q

Risks of developing malignant melanoma?

A

1) Sun exposure
2) Fair Skin
3) Blonde/ Red Hair
4) Sunburn/Freckle Easy
5) Server, Blistering sunburn as child
6) Atypical mole, UV tanning salon

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59
Q

4 Types of malignant melanomas

A

1) Superficial Spreading Melanoma
2) Nodular Melanoma
3) Lentigo Maligna Melanoma
4) Acral Lentiginous Melanoma

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60
Q

Does Melanoma have good prognosis?

A

Ulceration and invasion of tumor into deeper tissue result in poor prognosis
- Early detection in important

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61
Q

What factors affect survival rate of melanoma?

A 
Stage 0 : 97%
Stage 1: 90-95%
Stage 2: 65-75%
Stage 3: 45%
Stage 4: 10%
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62
Q

Most common type of skin cancer in white-skinned people?

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

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63
Q

2 Types of basal cell carcinoma?

A

1) Nodular Ulcerative Basal Cell Carcinoma
- Starts small, pink flesh color, translucent nodule that enlarges over time
- Gradually forms, progress to ulcer with waxy border

2) Superficial Basal Cell Carcinoma
- Most often on chest/back
- Starts flat and becomes red scaly and enlarges with nodular border
- Difficult to diagnose

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64
Q

Describe the appearance of squamous cell carcinoma?

A
  • Red & Scaling, Slightly elevated
  • Irregular border
  • Later: Grow outward, large ulceration, crusts
  • Usually on sun exposed areas
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65
Q

Risk factors associated with breast cancer?

A

1) Sex
2) Increase Age
3) Family History
4) Hormonal Influence
5) Most women have no identifiable risk factors

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66
Q

Signs that could indicate breast cancer?

A

1) Mass
2) Puckering
3) Nipple Retraction
4) Unusual Discharge
5) Thickening/ Change of Breast Contour

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67
Q

What age should breast exams begin?

A

Clinical exam every 3 years between 20-40

Yearly after 40

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68
Q

What age should regulate mammograms be performed?

A

Annually after 40

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69
Q

What are treatment options for breast cancer?

A

1) Surgery
2) Chemotherapy
3) Radiation
4) Hormone Manipulation
5) Combination

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70
Q

Viral infection of the upper respiratory tract

A

The Common Cold

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71
Q

Clinical manifestations Common Cold?

A
  • Begins with feeling of dryness and stuffiness (affecting nasopharynx)
  • Excessive production of nasal secretions & lacrimation (tearing eyes)
  • Usually nasal secretions remain clear and watery
  • Mucous membranes of the upper respiratory tract become reddened, swollen, bathed in secretions
  • Sore throat/hoarseness (involvement of the pharynx and larynx)
  • Fever (in children, not common in adults)
  • Usually self-limiting, approximately 7 days
72
Q

What is the greatest source of spread for the common cold?

A

Fingers

73
Q

Which treatment options are available for the common cold?

A

Symptomatic treatment with rest and antipyretic drugs is all that’s needed

74
Q

2 Types of Influenza

A

1) Type A
- Most common
- Cause most severe disease
- Infects multiple species

2) Type B
- Not divided into further subtypes

75
Q

How does influenza spread?

A

1) Aerosol
2) Direct Contact
3) Children most likely to be 1st infected
4) Most dvlp symptoms, increasing contagion

76
Q

When are people infectious with influenza?

A

1 day before symptoms start until 5 days post onset

77
Q

What are the manifestations of influenza?

A
  • Early stages (similar to other viral infections)
  • Abrupt onset of fever/chills, malaise, muscle aching, headache, watery nasal discharge, nonproductive cough, sore throat
  • Onset of malaise is more rapid than other infections sometimes as fast as 1 to 2 mins.
78
Q

Inflammation of the lung structures, such as alveoli and bronchioles

A

Pneumonia

79
Q

What are the manifestations of pneumonia?

A

Typical

1) Chills, fever, malaise
2) Purulent sputum
3) Increase WBC count
4) Patchy infiltrates on chest radiograph

Atypical

1) Less striking symptoms and physical findings
2) Lack of alveolar infiltration

80
Q

When comparing influenza to common cold

A

Fatigue and general malaise is flu

81
Q

Compression of the heart due to accumulating fluid in the pericardial space (Right heart failure)

A

Cor Pulmonade

82
Q

Main sites for developing an embolism.

A

Deep vein thrombosis is likely to form in the legs travel to lungs and cause problems, then known as a pulmonary embolism

83
Q

Cor pulmonale causes?

A

Right heart failure resulting from primary lung disease and long-standing pulmonary hypertension. Leads to hypertrophy and eventual failure of the right heart.

84
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder involving fluid secretion in the exocrine glands in the epithelial lining of the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and reproductive tracts.

A

Cystic fibrosis

85
Q

Partial or incomplete expansion of the lung

A

Atelectasis

86
Q

Cause of Atelectasis

A

airway obstruction, lung compression, loss of recoil

87
Q

Describe the two triggers of asthma

A

1) Bronchospastic

2) Inflammatory

88
Q

blue bloater (unable to compensate by increasing ventilation)

A

bronchitis

89
Q

Pink puffer (due to face turning pink while gasping for air)

A

emphysema

90
Q

A group of respiratory disorders characterized by chronic and recurrent obstruction of airflow in the pulmonary airways.

A

COPD (Emphysema and Bronchitis)

91
Q

Characterized by a loss of lung elasticity and abnormal enlargement of the air spaces (with destruction of the alveolar walls and capillary beds) “Barrel Chest”

A

Emphysema

92
Q

Airway obstruction is caused by inflammation of the major and small airways (edema and hyperplasia of submucosal glands and excess excretion into the bronchial tree)

A

Chronic bronchitis

93
Q

Which bacteria causes Tuberculosis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

94
Q

How is primary TB spread?

A

inhalation of droplet nuclei that contain the

bacteria

95
Q

What are the symptoms of respiratory failure?

A

▪ Multiple signs of respiratory distress (within first 24 hours of birth)
▪ Central cyanosis
▪ Difficult breathing, grunting during expiration
▪ Increased respiration rate
▪ Fatigue (increased work of breathing)
▪ Stiff lungs cause resistance of blood flow in the pulmonary circulation (can develop patent ductus arteriosus)

96
Q

What causes respiratory distress syndrome?

A
  • Infants do not have a mature
    pulmonary system, or sufficient surfactant, leading to alveolar collapse
  • Cortisol can accelerate maturation of type 2 cells and formation of surfactant; therefore corticosteroids are administered to mothers with infants at high risk for RDS
97
Q

Infants transition from the placental dependency to air breathing during the neonatal period

A

RDS

98
Q

Who is at highest risk of RDS?

A

Premature Babies

99
Q

What are the causes of lung inflation disorders?

A

▪ Lung compression (ie: by accumulation of fluid in the intrapleural space)
▪ Collapse of the lung (ie: pneumothorax)
▪ Collapse of a segment of a lung (ie: atelectasis)

100
Q

What is the term used to describe inflammation of the pleura?

A

Pleuritis

101
Q

Where can the pain associated with pleuritis be felt?

A

▪ Musculoskeletal pain
▪ Bronchial irritation
▪ Myocardial disease

102
Q

What are the two types of a pneumothorax? Describe each.

A

1) Traumatic
- Result of direct injury to chest/airways

2) Spontaneous
- Without obvious cause/injury

103
Q

What is the layman’s term for pneumothorax?

A

Collapsed Lung

104
Q

Incomplete expansion of a lung/lung portion

A

Atelectasis

105
Q

What can cause atelectasis?

A

▪ airway obstruction
▪ lung compression
▪ loss of recoil

106
Q

List the manifestations of atelectasis:

A 
▪ Tachypnea 
▪ Tachycardia 
▪ Dyspnea 
▪ Cyanosis 
▪ Signs of hypoxemia 
▪ Decreased chest expansion (on affected side) 
▪ Absence of breath sounds (on affected side) 
▪ Intercostal retractions 
▪ Fever/other signs of infection
107
Q

What does the term “airway patency” mean?

A

ability of a person to breathe

108
Q

What happens during an asthma attack?

A

• Airways narrow because of bronchospasm, edema of bronchial
mucosa, mucus plugging
• Expiration becomes prolonged because of progressive airway
obstruction
• Use of accessory muscles cause dyspnea and fatigue

109
Q

Feeling of chest tightness, slight increase in respiratory rate with prolonged expiration, mild wheezing (possible cough)

A

Mid Attack (Asthma)

110
Q

Use of accessory mms, distant air sounds (air

trapping), loud wheezing

A

Severe Attack (Asthma)

111
Q

What is the most common cause of COPD?

A

Smoking

112
Q

What is the benefit of people with emphysema doing “pursed lip breathing”?

A

Increases the resistance to the outflow of air, therefore prevents airway collapse by increasing

113
Q

What can be heard with auscultation when listening to the exhalation of a patient with chronic bronchitis?

A

Wheeze and Crackles

114
Q

Increased red blood cell production

A

Polycythemia

115
Q

What can cause polycythemia?

A

Hypoxemia

116
Q

What type of genetic disorder is cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder

117
Q

What happens with cystic fibrosis? Which tissues can be affected?

A

Involving fluid secretion in the exocrine glands in the epithelial lining of the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and reproductive tracts

Mucous in Bronchi, contribute to Lung Disease

118
Q

What is the layman’s term for Pneumoconiosis?

A

Occupational Lung Disease (black lung)

119
Q

What causes pneumoconiosis?

A

Inhalation of inorganic dust and particulate material.

120
Q

Which particles can cause pneumoconiosis?

A 
▪ Silicosis 
▪ Coal miners pneumoconiosis 
▪ Asbestos 
▪ Talcosis 
▪ Berylliosis
121
Q

What are the manifestations of pulmonary embolism?

A 
▪ Chest pain 
▪ Dyspnea 
▪ Increased respiratory rate 
▪ Pulmonary infarction 
▪ Hypoxemia
122
Q

What can cause pulmonary hypertension?

A

▪ Elevation in left atrial pressure
▪ Increased pulmonary blood flow
▪ Increased pulmonary vascular resistance

123
Q

What is the result of increased surface tension in the alveoli? What effect will this have on breathing?

A

Inactivation of surfactant

124
Q

What is the result of increased surface tension in the alveoli? What effect will this have on breathing?

A

Inactivation of surfactant - making breathing difficult

125
Q

Failure of the lungs to adequately oxygenate the blood and prevent CO2 retention

A

Respiratory Failure

126
Q

What are the major causes of respiratory failure?

A

o Impaired ventilation
o Impaired matching of ventilation and perfusion
o Impaired blood flow in the lung

127
Q

Increase in the carbon dioxide content in the arterial blood (pCO2 levels)

A

Hypercapnia

128
Q

What can cause a genetic disorder?

A

Alteration in DNA sequences

Chromosome rearrangements

129
Q

‘birth defects’ develop during prenatal life

A

Congenital

130
Q 
biochemical event (such as nucleotide change, deletion, or 
insertion) that produces a new allele.
A

Gene mutation

131
Q

The chance a person who inherits a gene will express the

disorder

A

Gene Penetrance

132
Q

Possession of a gene leads to the appearance of the

corresponding character

A

Gene Expression

133
Q

A single mutant allele from an affected parent is transmitted regardless of sex (Affected parent has 50% chance of passing on disorder to each offspring)

A

Autosomal Dominant Disorders

134
Q

Manifested only when both members of the gene pair are affected (Both parents may be unaffected but are carriers of the defective gene)

A

Autosomal Recessive Disorders

135
Q

A trait where a gene is located on the X chromosome (from mother or father

A

X-Linked

136
Q

If a parent has an autosomal dominant disorder, what are the chances of passing on the disorder to their child?

A

50%

137
Q

If a parent has an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of the child being affected by the disorder (meaning they will express the disorder)?

A

1 of 4: Affected Child
2 of 4: Carrier Child
1 of 4: Unaffected Child

138
Q

If a parent has an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of the child being a carrier of the disorder (meaning they will not express the disorder)?

A

50% - 2 of 4

139
Q

What does it mean if somebody is “affected” by a disorder?

A

They are the disorder

140
Q

What does it mean if somebody is a “carrier” of a disorder?

A

They don’t have the disorder but carry it to potential pass to their child

141
Q

When considering an autosomal recessive disorder, what needs to happen for the child to EXPRESS the gene? (Meaning the child will be affected by the disorder.)

A

2 copies of abnormal gene must be present in mother and father

142
Q

Rare metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency in the liver enzyme ‘phenylalanine hydroxylase”

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

143
Q

What is the average life span of somebody diagnosed with Tay-Sachs?

A

Death usually occurs before 4 years of age

144
Q

What are the manifestations of Marfan’s Syndrome?

A

1) Skeletal Deformities
2) Eye Disorders
3) Cardiovascular Defects

145
Q

Down Syndrome is most often caused by an extra copy of which chromosome?

A

chromosome 21

146
Q

What is the medical term for down syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21

147
Q

Result of complete or partial X-chromosome monosomy (only has 1 X chromosome)

A

Turner’s syndrome

148
Q

Manifestations of Turner’s Syndrome

A

1) Short in stature
2) Normal body proportions
3) Ovarian dysgenesis
4) Characteristics range from none to webbing of the neck with redundant skin folds and low hairline
5) When mosaic cell line is present manifestations tend to be less severe

149
Q

Presence of one or more extra X chromosome (polysomy) in excess of the normal male XY complement (XXY, XXXY)

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

150
Q

Manifestations of Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

1) Enlarged breasts
2) Sparse facial/body hair
3) Infant: normal genitalia
4) Puberty: intrinsically abnormal testes do not respond to hormonal stimulation, and undergo degeneration
5) Tall stature with abnormal body proportions (lower part of the body is longer than the upper part)
6) Later in life: heavy build, female distribution of fat and breast enlargement
7) Deficient secondary sex characteristics: voice that is feminine in pitch, sparse beard and pubic hair
8) Sexual dysfunction along with infertility
9) Intellect is usually normal

151
Q

The embryo’s development is most likely to be disturbed during the period when differentiation and development of the organs take place (organogenesis- day 15 to 60 after conception)

A

Period of Vulnerability

152
Q

Environmental agent that causes abnormalities during embryonic or fetal development

A

Teratogenic Agents

153
Q

What are the 3 categories of teratogenic agents?

A

1) Radiation
2) Drugs
3) Infectious Agents

154
Q

List the characteristics of a person with FASD

A

1) Prenatal growth retardation
2) Weight below 10th%
3) CNS involvement
4) Neurologic abnormalities
5) Dlvpt delays
6) Skull/Brain malformation
7) Thin upper lip
8) Elongated midface
9) Short eye openings

155
Q

What does TORCH stand for?

A 
Toxoplasmosis
Other
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes
156
Q

What are the impacts of TORCH on a developing fetus?

A

1) Microcephaly
2) Hydrocephalus
3) Eye defects,
4) Hearing problems

157
Q

What is a free radical and how may it affect aging?

A

Free radicals produce oxidative damage in lipids, proteins, or nucleic acids by ‘stealing’ an electron to accompany their unpaired electrons
Ex: wrinkled skin, stiff joints, hardened arteries

158
Q

What is telomerase and how does it affect aging?

A

Believed to govern chromosomal aging through its actions on telomeres (outermost extremities of the chromosomal arms
Telomeres shave off a little piece everytime it undergos cell division which results in short arms or absence of the arms. With age and wear amd tear of so many divisions it is unable to reolicate anymore

159
Q

Which fibers in the skin become less abundant, stiffen, & break apart with age?

A

Collagen

160
Q

What causes the skin to become dry and break more easily with aging?

A

Decreased size of sebaceous glands

161
Q

What are the two effects aging has on bone tissue? Describe each

A

1) Loss of Bone Mass
- Result of demineralization (loss of calcium)
- Prone to breaks, fractures

2) Brittleness
- Decreased rate of protein synthesis, loss of tensile strength cause bones to become brittle
- Slowing collagen synthesis due to decrease in HGH

162
Q

How do joints change with age?

A
  • Decrease production of synovial fluid
  • Become thinner, loss flexibility
  • OA is common
163
Q

What does muscle tissue become replaced with as we age?

A

Fibrous connective tissue and adipose tissue

164
Q

How do the special senses change as we age?

A
  • Taste and smell change at 50
  • Hearing loss (high pitched sounds)
  • Tinnitus
  • Eye Changes
165
Q

Does heartrate increase or decrease with age?

A

Decrease

166
Q

Does blood pressure increase or decrease with age?

A

Increase in Systolic

167
Q

Does cardiac output increase or decrease with age?

A

Decrease

168
Q

How do antibody levels change as we age?

A

Do not increase as fast in response

169
Q

How do the airways change with age?

A

Become less elastic and more rigid

- Decreased lung capacity and blood oxygen levels

170
Q

Which gastrointestinal pathologies increase with age?

A
  • Ulcers
  • Appendicitis
  • Gallbladder problems
  • Jaundice
  • Gastritis
  • Periodontal Disease
171
Q

How does the urinary bladder change with age?

A
  • Kidney shrink in size
  • Decrease blood flow
  • Kidney disease more common
  • Thirst diminishes
  • UTI more common
172
Q

How does a woman’s reproductive system change with age?

A
  • Fertility Declines
  • 40-50 years, ovaries produce less hormone
  • Estrogen Decreases
173
Q

How does a man’s reproductive system change with age?

A
  • Age 55 decrease in testosterone (less sperm, less sex drive)
  • Enlargement of prostate over 60 years
174
Q

What are the symptoms of menopause?

A

• Hot flashes/heavy sweating
• Headache
• Hair loss
• Muscular pains
• Vaginal dryness
• Insomnia
• Depression
• Weight gain
• Mood swings
• Atrophy of the: ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, external
genitalia, and breasts in postmenopausal women
• Due to loss of estrogen: decline in bone mineral density (sexual
desire not commonly effected- maintained by adrenal sex steroids)
• Risk of uterine cancer peaks at 65 years

175
Q

What are the risk factors for falls in the elderly?

A

o Gait/stability changes
o Alterations in vision/hearing
o Medications
o Environmental factors

176
Q

What are the symptoms of depression in the elderly?

A

Present with 5 of these in 2 weeks

1) Loss of appetite or weight loss
2) Sleep disturbance
3) Psychomotor Irritability
4) Fatigue
5) Suicidal thoughts or attempts
6) Can concentrate
7) Feeling worthless

Path 4 (2 decks)

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