Final Review Flashcards
1
Q
What is the 5 Year survival rate of all combined cancers?
A
63% for all cancers combined
2
Q
Disorder of altered cell differetiation and growth, resulting in neoplasia “new growth”
A
Cancer
3
Q
Growth that tends to be uncoordinated and relatively autonomous that lacks normal regulatory controls over cell growth and division
A
Neoplasm
4
Q
Swelling that can be caused by a number of conditions including inflammation and trauma
A
Tumor
5
Q
Contains well differentiated cells clustered together in a single mass
A
Benign
6
Q
Can break loose and enter circulator and lymph system and form secondary malignant tumors at other sites
A
Malignant
7
Q
Parenchymal tissue, type from which growth originated (functional component of organ)
A
-oma
8
Q
Benign tumor of glandular epithelial tissue
A
Adenoma
9
Q
Malignant tumor of glandular epithelial tissue
A
Adenocarcinoma
10
Q
Malignant tumor of epithelial tissue
A
Carcinoma
11
Q
Benign tumor of bone tissue
A
Osteoma
12
Q
Malignant tumor of mesenchymal origin
A
Sarcome
13
Q
Benign microscopic/macro fingerlike projection growing on surface
A
Papilloma
14
Q
Growth projects mucosal surface (intestine) and usually implies benign neoplasm/malignant tumor
A
Polpys
15
Q
Composed of well differentiated cells that resemble cells of tissue of origin
A
Benign Neoplasms
16
Q
Invade and destroy tissue near and spread to other parts of the body
A
Malignant Neoplasms
17
Q
Loss of cell differentiation in cancerous tissue
A
Anaplasia
18
Q
Development of secondary tumor in location distant from primary tumor
A
Metastasis
19
Q
Ratio dividing cells to resist cells in tissue mass
A
Growth Fraction
20
Q
Length of time it takes for total mass cells in tumor to double
A
Doubling time
21
Q
What is Metastsis?
A
Travelling tumor that is spread through lymph
- Retains many characteristics of original tumor
22
Q
Which ways can metastasis occur?
A
1) Lymph Channels
- Tumor cells lodge in lymph nodes that receive drainage
- Lymph node in cells die and grow into a mass
- Lymph empties into venous (cancer survives), and break free and enter circulation
2) Blood Vessels
- Cancer follow venous blood and drain @ neoplasm
- Venous from GI, Pancreas & Spleen go to Liver (common site metastasis spread)
23
Q
What factors affect rate of tumor growth?
A
1) Number of cells actively dividing or moving through cell cycle
2) Duration of cell cycle
3) Number of cells being lost compared to number of new cells produced
24
Q
How many times must a tumor double before its detectable?
A
35 times (Contains over 1 trillion cells)
25
What 2 genes control cell growth and replication?
1) Proto-oncogens
- Promote cell growth in absence of normal growth promoting cells
2) Tumor Suppressor Genes
- Inhibit proliferation of cells in tumor when inactivated, unregulated growth begins
26
Which factors increase a persons susceptibility to cancer?
1) Defects in DNA Repair
2) Defects in Growth Factor Signaling
3) Evasion of Apoptosis
4) Evasion of Cellular Senescence
5) Development of Sustained Angiogenesis
6) Invasion and Metastasis
27
What are the 3 stage of Carciongenesis?
1) Initiation
- Cells exposed to carcinogen agents, making susceptible to malignant transformation
2) Promotion
- Unregulated, accelerated growth in already initiated cells caused by various chemicals and growth factors
3) Progression
- Tumor cells acquire malignant phenotypic change - promote invasiveness and metastatic competence
28
What 7 Host/Environmental factors can lead to cancer?
1) Heredity
2) Hormones
3) Chemical Carcinogens
4) Radiation
5) Oncogen viruses
6) Immunologic Mechanisms
7) Angiogenesis
29
Which viruses are related to human cancers?
1) HPV (Human Pav)
2) EBV (Epstein-Barr)
3) HBV (Hep B)
4) HHV-8 (Herpe 8)
30
What role does angiogenesis play in tumor growth?
Tumors cannot enlarge without angiogenesis and supplies them with blood for survival (to grow and metastasis)
31
What are the systemic manifestations of cancer?
1) Anorexia & Cachexia
2) Fatigue & Sleep Disorders
3) Anemia
32
Describe each type of cancer treatment available?
1) Surgery
2) Radiation
3) Hormone Therapy
4) Biotherapy
5) Chemotherapy
33
What tissues can be affected by neoplasms of skeletal system?
1) Bone tissue
2) Cartilage
3) Bone Marrow
34
Which type of tumor do not spread to other parts of the body?
Benign tumors
35
What does "well demarcated edges" mean?
Clear sharp borders that benign tumors have
36
Which age are malignant bone tumors most common?
After 10 years of age
| Rare to see before this age
37
3 characteristics of bone tumors
1) Pain
2) Presence of a Mass
3) Impairment of Function
38
First sign/symptoms that could indicate bone tumor?
Presence of mass
39
4 types of benign tumors
1) Osteoma
- Small bony tumor found on surface of long bone, or skull
2) Chondroma
- Composed of hyaline cartilage (common on hands or feet)
3) Osteochondroma
- Grows only during skeletal growth
- Composed of cartilage and bone
4) Giant Cell Tumor
- Aggressive tumor that behaves like malignant
- Begins in metaphyseal region and growing into epiphysis (may extend to joint)
- Common in knee, wrist and shoulder
40
3 Types of malignant tumors
1) Osteosarcoma
- Aggressive and highly malignant
- Most common bone tumor in children under 20
- Common in knee, proximal humerus
2) Ewing Sarcoma
- Small, round cell undifferentiated tumors (Ewing and PPNET)
- Most common in teenage years
- Common in femur, pelvis, vertebrae, ribs, skull
3) Chondrosarcoma
- Malignant tumor of cartilage (destroys bone and soft tissues)
- Develop in medullary cavity
- Common later in life in males
- Mainly affects trunk, pelvis and proximal femur
41
Which primary tumors can frequently metastasize to bone?
1) Breast
2) Lung
3) Prostate
4) Kidney
5) Thyroid
42
Which locations are metastatic bone lesions most common?
1) Spine
2) Femur
3) Pelvis
4) Ribs
5) Sternum
6) Proximal Humerus
7) Skull
43
Symptoms of metastatic bone disease?
1) Pain
2) Increased Risk Fractures
3) Increased Disability
4) Pathologic Fracturing
44
Goals of treatment for metastatic bone disease?
1) Prevent pathologic fractures
2) Promote survival with max functioning
3) Allow person to maintain as much mobility and pain control as possible
45
Aggressive, locally invasive metastatic tumor that arise from epithelial lining of major bronchi
Bronchogenic Carcinoma
46
2 Types of Lung Cancer
1) Small Cell Lung Cancer
Distinctive cell type: small round, oval approx. size of lymphocyte
- Grow in clusters not glandular nor squamous organization
- Associated with smoking
2) Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer
47
3 Types of Non-small cell Lung Cancer?
1) Squamous cell carcinoma
- Common in men who smoke
- Originates in bronchi as intraluminal growth
- Spreads into major bronchi and hilar lymph nodes
2) Adenocarcinoma
- Most common lung cancer in North America
- Most common in women non-smokers
- Originate in bronchial or alveolar tissues
3) Large cell cancer
- Large polygonal cells
- Occur in periphery of lung, invade sub segmental bronchi and large airways
48
Etiologic agents that can lead to lung cancer?
1) Smoking
2) Industrial Hazards (Asbestos)
3) Genetic
49
Symptoms associated with Lung Cancer?
1) Insidious
2) Local Irritation and Obstruction of Airway
3) Chronic Cough, Shortness of Breath
3) Hemoptysis (Blood in sputum)
4) Dull Localized Pain
5) Pain can become Persistent
6) Paraneoplastic Disorders
50
When Lung cancer invade mediastinum, what are the symptoms?
1) Hoarseness
2) Difficulty Swallowing
3) Superior Vena Cava Syndrome
51
Treatment for lung cancer based on type (small-cell vs non-small cell)
1) SCLC
- Chemotherapy
2) NSCLC
- Surgery
- Radiation
- Chemotherapy
- Combination
52
Risk factors for colon cancer?
1) Increased Age
2) Family History of Cancer
3) Family History of Colon Cancer
4) Person with Chron or Colitis
5) Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
53
Factors that can decrease risk of developing colon cancer?
1) Diet
2) Aspirin
3) Supplements (Calcium, Folate, Hormone replacement)
54
Symptoms of colon cancer?
1) Bleeding
2) Change in Bowel Habits
3) Diarrhea/Constipation
4) Urgency or Incomplete Emptying of Bowel
5) Pain
55
"Mole"
| - Common congenital tumor of skin that are benign
Nevi
56
3 Types of Nevi's?
1) Nevocellular
- Caused by proliferation of melanocytes in epidermis
- Formed by melanocytes that normally interspersed among basal keratinocytes
2) Compound
- Contain epidermal and dermal components
3) Dysplastic
- Capacity to turn in malignant
- Large that other nevi, slightly raised and brown to red color
57
Changes that should be observed with nevi's?
1) Size
2) Thickness
3) Color
4) Itching
5) Bleeding
58
Risks of developing malignant melanoma?
1) Sun exposure
2) Fair Skin
3) Blonde/ Red Hair
4) Sunburn/Freckle Easy
5) Server, Blistering sunburn as child
6) Atypical mole, UV tanning salon
59
4 Types of malignant melanomas
1) Superficial Spreading Melanoma
2) Nodular Melanoma
3) Lentigo Maligna Melanoma
4) Acral Lentiginous Melanoma
60
Does Melanoma have good prognosis?
Ulceration and invasion of tumor into deeper tissue result in poor prognosis
- Early detection in important
61
What factors affect survival rate of melanoma?
```
Stage 0 : 97%
Stage 1: 90-95%
Stage 2: 65-75%
Stage 3: 45%
Stage 4: 10%
```
62
Most common type of skin cancer in white-skinned people?
Basal Cell Carcinoma
63
2 Types of basal cell carcinoma?
1) Nodular Ulcerative Basal Cell Carcinoma
- Starts small, pink flesh color, translucent nodule that enlarges over time
- Gradually forms, progress to ulcer with waxy border
2) Superficial Basal Cell Carcinoma
- Most often on chest/back
- Starts flat and becomes red scaly and enlarges with nodular border
- Difficult to diagnose
64
Describe the appearance of squamous cell carcinoma?
- Red & Scaling, Slightly elevated
- Irregular border
- Later: Grow outward, large ulceration, crusts
- Usually on sun exposed areas
65
Risk factors associated with breast cancer?
1) Sex
2) Increase Age
3) Family History
4) Hormonal Influence
5) Most women have no identifiable risk factors
66
Signs that could indicate breast cancer?
1) Mass
2) Puckering
3) Nipple Retraction
4) Unusual Discharge
5) Thickening/ Change of Breast Contour
67
What age should breast exams begin?
Clinical exam every 3 years between 20-40
| Yearly after 40
68
What age should regulate mammograms be performed?
Annually after 40
69
What are treatment options for breast cancer?
1) Surgery
2) Chemotherapy
3) Radiation
4) Hormone Manipulation
5) Combination
70
Viral infection of the upper respiratory tract
The Common Cold
71
Clinical manifestations Common Cold?
- Begins with feeling of dryness and stuffiness (affecting nasopharynx)
- Excessive production of nasal secretions & lacrimation (tearing eyes)
- Usually nasal secretions remain clear and watery
- Mucous membranes of the upper respiratory tract become reddened, swollen, bathed in secretions
- Sore throat/hoarseness (involvement of the pharynx and larynx)
- Fever (in children, not common in adults)
- Usually self-limiting, approximately 7 days
72
What is the greatest source of spread for the common cold?
Fingers
73
Which treatment options are available for the common cold?
Symptomatic treatment with rest and antipyretic drugs is all that’s needed
74
2 Types of Influenza
1) Type A
- Most common
- Cause most severe disease
- Infects multiple species
2) Type B
- Not divided into further subtypes
75
How does influenza spread?
1) Aerosol
2) Direct Contact
3) Children most likely to be 1st infected
4) Most dvlp symptoms, increasing contagion
76
When are people infectious with influenza?
1 day before symptoms start until 5 days post onset
77
What are the manifestations of influenza?
- Early stages (similar to other viral infections)
- Abrupt onset of fever/chills, malaise, muscle aching, headache, watery nasal discharge, nonproductive cough, sore throat
- Onset of malaise is more rapid than other infections sometimes as fast as 1 to 2 mins.
78
Inflammation of the lung structures, such as alveoli and bronchioles
Pneumonia
79
What are the manifestations of pneumonia?
Typical
1) Chills, fever, malaise
2) Purulent sputum
3) Increase WBC count
4) Patchy infiltrates on chest radiograph
Atypical
1) Less striking symptoms and physical findings
2) Lack of alveolar infiltration
80
When comparing influenza to common cold
Fatigue and general malaise is flu
81
Compression of the heart due to accumulating fluid in the pericardial space (Right heart failure)
Cor Pulmonade
82
Main sites for developing an embolism.
Deep vein thrombosis is likely to form in the legs travel to lungs and cause problems, then known as a pulmonary embolism
83
Cor pulmonale causes?
Right heart failure resulting from primary lung disease and long-standing pulmonary hypertension. Leads to hypertrophy and eventual failure of the right heart.
84
Autosomal recessive disorder involving fluid secretion in the exocrine glands in the epithelial lining of the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and reproductive tracts.
Cystic fibrosis
85
Partial or incomplete expansion of the lung
Atelectasis
86
Cause of Atelectasis
airway obstruction, lung compression, loss of recoil
87
Describe the two triggers of asthma
1) Bronchospastic
| 2) Inflammatory
88
blue bloater (unable to compensate by increasing ventilation)
bronchitis
89
Pink puffer (due to face turning pink while gasping for air)
emphysema
90
A group of respiratory disorders characterized by chronic and recurrent obstruction of airflow in the pulmonary airways.
COPD (Emphysema and Bronchitis)
91
Characterized by a loss of lung elasticity and abnormal enlargement of the air spaces (with destruction of the alveolar walls and capillary beds) "Barrel Chest"
Emphysema
92
Airway obstruction is caused by inflammation of the major and small airways (edema and hyperplasia of submucosal glands and excess excretion into the bronchial tree)
Chronic bronchitis
93
Which bacteria causes Tuberculosis?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
94
How is primary TB spread?
inhalation of droplet nuclei that contain the
| bacteria
95
What are the symptoms of respiratory failure?
▪ Multiple signs of respiratory distress (within first 24 hours of birth)
▪ Central cyanosis
▪ Difficult breathing, grunting during expiration
▪ Increased respiration rate
▪ Fatigue (increased work of breathing)
▪ Stiff lungs cause resistance of blood flow in the pulmonary circulation (can develop patent ductus arteriosus)
96
What causes respiratory distress syndrome?
- Infants do not have a mature
pulmonary system, or sufficient surfactant, leading to alveolar collapse
- Cortisol can accelerate maturation of type 2 cells and formation of surfactant; therefore corticosteroids are administered to mothers with infants at high risk for RDS
97
Infants transition from the placental dependency to air breathing during the neonatal period
RDS
98
Who is at highest risk of RDS?
Premature Babies
99
What are the causes of lung inflation disorders?
▪ Lung compression (ie: by accumulation of fluid in the intrapleural space)
▪ Collapse of the lung (ie: pneumothorax)
▪ Collapse of a segment of a lung (ie: atelectasis)
100
What is the term used to describe inflammation of the pleura?
Pleuritis
101
Where can the pain associated with pleuritis be felt?
▪ Musculoskeletal pain
▪ Bronchial irritation
▪ Myocardial disease
102
What are the two types of a pneumothorax? Describe each.
1) Traumatic
- Result of direct injury to chest/airways
2) Spontaneous
- Without obvious cause/injury
103
What is the layman’s term for pneumothorax?
Collapsed Lung
104
Incomplete expansion of a lung/lung portion
Atelectasis
105
What can cause atelectasis?
▪ airway obstruction
▪ lung compression
▪ loss of recoil
106
List the manifestations of atelectasis:
```
▪ Tachypnea
▪ Tachycardia
▪ Dyspnea
▪ Cyanosis
▪ Signs of hypoxemia
▪ Decreased chest expansion (on affected side)
▪ Absence of breath sounds (on affected side)
▪ Intercostal retractions
▪ Fever/other signs of infection
```
107
What does the term “airway patency” mean?
ability of a person to breathe
108
What happens during an asthma attack?
• Airways narrow because of bronchospasm, edema of bronchial
mucosa, mucus plugging
• Expiration becomes prolonged because of progressive airway
obstruction
• Use of accessory muscles cause dyspnea and fatigue
109
Feeling of chest tightness, slight increase in respiratory rate with prolonged expiration, mild wheezing (possible cough)
Mid Attack (Asthma)
110
Use of accessory mms, distant air sounds (air
| trapping), loud wheezing
Severe Attack (Asthma)
111
What is the most common cause of COPD?
Smoking
112
What is the benefit of people with emphysema doing “pursed lip breathing”?
Increases the resistance to the outflow of air, therefore prevents airway collapse by increasing
113
What can be heard with auscultation when listening to the exhalation of a patient with chronic bronchitis?
Wheeze and Crackles
114
Increased red blood cell production
Polycythemia
115
What can cause polycythemia?
Hypoxemia
116
What type of genetic disorder is cystic fibrosis?
Autosomal recessive disorder
117
What happens with cystic fibrosis? Which tissues can be affected?
Involving fluid secretion in the exocrine glands in the epithelial lining of the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and reproductive tracts
Mucous in Bronchi, contribute to Lung Disease
118
What is the layman’s term for Pneumoconiosis?
Occupational Lung Disease (black lung)
119
What causes pneumoconiosis?
Inhalation of inorganic dust and particulate material.
120
Which particles can cause pneumoconiosis?
```
▪ Silicosis
▪ Coal miners pneumoconiosis
▪ Asbestos
▪ Talcosis
▪ Berylliosis
```
121
What are the manifestations of pulmonary embolism?
```
▪ Chest pain
▪ Dyspnea
▪ Increased respiratory rate
▪ Pulmonary infarction
▪ Hypoxemia
```
122
What can cause pulmonary hypertension?
▪ Elevation in left atrial pressure
▪ Increased pulmonary blood flow
▪ Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
123
What is the result of increased surface tension in the alveoli? What effect will this have on breathing?
Inactivation of surfactant
124
What is the result of increased surface tension in the alveoli? What effect will this have on breathing?
Inactivation of surfactant - making breathing difficult
125
Failure of the lungs to adequately oxygenate the blood and prevent CO2 retention
Respiratory Failure
126
What are the major causes of respiratory failure?
o Impaired ventilation
o Impaired matching of ventilation and perfusion
o Impaired blood flow in the lung
127
Increase in the carbon dioxide content in the arterial blood (pCO2 levels)
Hypercapnia
128
What can cause a genetic disorder?
Alteration in DNA sequences
| Chromosome rearrangements
129
‘birth defects’ develop during prenatal life
Congenital
130
```
biochemical event (such as nucleotide change, deletion, or
insertion) that produces a new allele.
```
Gene mutation
131
The chance a person who inherits a gene will express the
| disorder
Gene Penetrance
132
Possession of a gene leads to the appearance of the
| corresponding character
Gene Expression
133
A single mutant allele from an affected parent is transmitted regardless of sex (Affected parent has 50% chance of passing on disorder to each offspring)
Autosomal Dominant Disorders
134
Manifested only when both members of the gene pair are affected (Both parents may be unaffected but are carriers of the defective gene)
Autosomal Recessive Disorders
135
A trait where a gene is located on the X chromosome (from mother or father
X-Linked
136
If a parent has an autosomal dominant disorder, what are the chances of passing on the disorder to their child?
50%
137
If a parent has an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of the child being affected by the disorder (meaning they will express the disorder)?
1 of 4: Affected Child
2 of 4: Carrier Child
1 of 4: Unaffected Child
138
If a parent has an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of the child being a carrier of the disorder (meaning they will not express the disorder)?
50% - 2 of 4
139
What does it mean if somebody is “affected” by a disorder?
They are the disorder
140
What does it mean if somebody is a “carrier” of a disorder?
They don't have the disorder but carry it to potential pass to their child
141
When considering an autosomal recessive disorder, what needs to happen for the child to EXPRESS the gene? (Meaning the child will be affected by the disorder.)
2 copies of abnormal gene must be present in mother and father
142
Rare metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency in the liver enzyme ‘phenylalanine hydroxylase”
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
143
What is the average life span of somebody diagnosed with Tay-Sachs?
Death usually occurs before 4 years of age
144
What are the manifestations of Marfan’s Syndrome?
1) Skeletal Deformities
2) Eye Disorders
3) Cardiovascular Defects
145
Down Syndrome is most often caused by an extra copy of which chromosome?
chromosome 21
146
What is the medical term for down syndrome?
Trisomy 21
147
Result of complete or partial X-chromosome monosomy (only has 1 X chromosome)
Turner’s syndrome
148
Manifestations of Turner’s Syndrome
1) Short in stature
2) Normal body proportions
3) Ovarian dysgenesis
4) Characteristics range from none to webbing of the neck with redundant skin folds and low hairline
5) When mosaic cell line is present manifestations tend to be less severe
149
Presence of one or more extra X chromosome (polysomy) in excess of the normal male XY complement (XXY, XXXY)
Klinefelter’s syndrome
150
Manifestations of Klinefelter’s syndrome
1) Enlarged breasts
2) Sparse facial/body hair
3) Infant: normal genitalia
4) Puberty: intrinsically abnormal testes do not respond to hormonal stimulation, and undergo degeneration
5) Tall stature with abnormal body proportions (lower part of the body is longer than the upper part)
6) Later in life: heavy build, female distribution of fat and breast enlargement
7) Deficient secondary sex characteristics: voice that is feminine in pitch, sparse beard and pubic hair
8) Sexual dysfunction along with infertility
9) Intellect is usually normal
151
The embryo’s development is most likely to be disturbed during the period when differentiation and development of the organs take place (organogenesis- day 15 to 60 after conception)
Period of Vulnerability
152
Environmental agent that causes abnormalities during embryonic or fetal development
Teratogenic Agents
153
What are the 3 categories of teratogenic agents?
1) Radiation
2) Drugs
3) Infectious Agents
154
List the characteristics of a person with FASD
1) Prenatal growth retardation
2) Weight below 10th%
3) CNS involvement
4) Neurologic abnormalities
5) Dlvpt delays
6) Skull/Brain malformation
7) Thin upper lip
8) Elongated midface
9) Short eye openings
155
What does TORCH stand for?
```
Toxoplasmosis
Other
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes
```
156
What are the impacts of TORCH on a developing fetus?
1) Microcephaly
2) Hydrocephalus
3) Eye defects,
4) Hearing problems
157
What is a free radical and how may it affect aging?
Free radicals produce oxidative damage in lipids, proteins, or nucleic acids by ‘stealing’ an electron to accompany their unpaired electrons
Ex: wrinkled skin, stiff joints, hardened arteries
158
What is telomerase and how does it affect aging?
Believed to govern chromosomal aging through its actions on telomeres (outermost extremities of the chromosomal arms
Telomeres shave off a little piece everytime it undergos cell division which results in short arms or absence of the arms. With age and wear amd tear of so many divisions it is unable to reolicate anymore
159
Which fibers in the skin become less abundant, stiffen, & break apart with age?
Collagen
160
What causes the skin to become dry and break more easily with aging?
Decreased size of sebaceous glands
161
What are the two effects aging has on bone tissue? Describe each
1) Loss of Bone Mass
- Result of demineralization (loss of calcium)
- Prone to breaks, fractures
2) Brittleness
- Decreased rate of protein synthesis, loss of tensile strength cause bones to become brittle
- Slowing collagen synthesis due to decrease in HGH
162
How do joints change with age?
- Decrease production of synovial fluid
- Become thinner, loss flexibility
- OA is common
163
What does muscle tissue become replaced with as we age?
Fibrous connective tissue and adipose tissue
164
How do the special senses change as we age?
- Taste and smell change at 50
- Hearing loss (high pitched sounds)
- Tinnitus
- Eye Changes
165
Does heartrate increase or decrease with age?
Decrease
166
Does blood pressure increase or decrease with age?
Increase in Systolic
167
Does cardiac output increase or decrease with age?
Decrease
168
How do antibody levels change as we age?
Do not increase as fast in response
169
How do the airways change with age?
Become less elastic and more rigid
| - Decreased lung capacity and blood oxygen levels
170
Which gastrointestinal pathologies increase with age?
- Ulcers
- Appendicitis
- Gallbladder problems
- Jaundice
- Gastritis
- Periodontal Disease
171
How does the urinary bladder change with age?
- Kidney shrink in size
- Decrease blood flow
- Kidney disease more common
- Thirst diminishes
- UTI more common
172
How does a woman’s reproductive system change with age?
- Fertility Declines
- 40-50 years, ovaries produce less hormone
- Estrogen Decreases
173
How does a man’s reproductive system change with age?
- Age 55 decrease in testosterone (less sperm, less sex drive)
- Enlargement of prostate over 60 years
174
What are the symptoms of menopause?
• Hot flashes/heavy sweating
• Headache
• Hair loss
• Muscular pains
• Vaginal dryness
• Insomnia
• Depression
• Weight gain
• Mood swings
• Atrophy of the: ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, external
genitalia, and breasts in postmenopausal women
• Due to loss of estrogen: decline in bone mineral density (sexual
desire not commonly effected- maintained by adrenal sex steroids)
• Risk of uterine cancer peaks at 65 years
175
What are the risk factors for falls in the elderly?
o Gait/stability changes
o Alterations in vision/hearing
o Medications
o Environmental factors
176
What are the symptoms of depression in the elderly?
Present with 5 of these in 2 weeks
1) Loss of appetite or weight loss
2) Sleep disturbance
3) Psychomotor Irritability
4) Fatigue
5) Suicidal thoughts or attempts
6) Can concentrate
7) Feeling worthless
