Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pedo Spring 2017 > Final - Read Chapters > Flashcards

Final - Read Chapters Flashcards

1
Q

Congenital Defects are acquired at birth. What 3 things cause these types of defects?

A
  • Trauma, Disease and Toxins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

There are 4 kinds of Impairments/Disabilities, what are they?

A
  • Neurological
  • Developmental
  • Physical
  • Physiological
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

There are 5 kinds of Special Needs groups, what are they?

A
  • Physical
  • Cognitive/Developmental Delay
  • Mental/Psychological
  • Sensory
  • Behavior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

There are 6 manifestations of disorders (Syndromes, Disease, Birth Defects, Physiological, Traumatic, Psychological) what are examples of each?

A
  • Syndromes (Down Syndrome)
  • Diseases (Muscular Dystrophy)
  • Birth Defects (Underdevelopment)
  • Physiological (Cystic Fibrosis)
  • Traumatic Brain Injuries (Hypoxia)
  • Psychological (Anxiety/Phobias)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Individuals with impairments that significantly impact daily living, with any physical, developmental, mental, sensory, behavioral, cognitive or emotional impairment or limiting condition that requires medical management, health care, and or use of specialized services are called what type of patients?

A
  • SHCN (Special Health Care Needs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What percent of US households have a SHCN patient in their home?

A
  • 20%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During the Evaluation stage of SHCN patients, what 3 things should be done?

A
  • Diet Survey
  • Fluoride Exposure
  • Medications/Side-effects (carries risk, gingival overgrowth and diminished saliva)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Are SHCN patients at an increased risk for oral disease? With these patients what is a vital part of their well-being and general health?

A
  • Yes

- Oral Health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Abilities, Dependence on care takers, Diet, Medications, Habits and Fear should all be accounted for in what stage of SHCN patient care?

A
  • Risk Assessment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

With Mild SHCN patients/High Functioning patients what kind of appointments should be done? Severely affected SHCN patients/Low Functioning individuals?

A
  • Mild SHCN/High Functioning: Short appointments, desensitization, conservative immobilization and conscious sedation.
  • Severely affected SHCN patients/Low Functioning: General Anesthesia, or Deep sedation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is the use of stabilization indicated (3)?

A
  • For Immediate diagnosis or for Limited treatment
  • After other techniques have failed
  • For the safety of the patient, staff, parent or practitioner
  • *Documented informed consent is required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is stabilization CONTRAINDICATED (4)?

A
  • Cooperative Patient
  • Cannot be safely stabilized
  • Patients who have experienced previous physical/psychological trauma from stabilization.
  • Non-sedated patients with non-emergent treatment requiring lengthy appointments.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When should radiographs be taken with SHCN patients?

A
  • Radiographs should be taken on the second visit when they are familiar with the dental office.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How should SHCN patients in a wheel chair be treated? What about patients in the dental chair? For patients with Catatonic (inability to move normally) placement of limbs, what should be done? What should be used for trunk and limb support?

A
  • In the wheel chair if possible
  • Slightly elevated to minimize difficulty swallowing
  • Don’t force limbs into positions
  • Pillows and Towels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the best known chromosomal disorder, and includes a large tongue, open bite, fissured lips, missing/malformed teeth, high incidence of periodontal disease, 40% congenital heart disease, greater tooth wear to attrition and erosion?

A
  • Down Syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is associated with a normal appearance and life span, limited communication and learning, acclimating may take several appointments, restraint/sedation may have calming effects, and severe cases with dental defects should be done under general anesthesia?

A
  • Autism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is one of the primary handicapping conditions of childhood, includes disabling disorders caused by permanent damage to the brain in pre and peri-natal periods, is caused due to complications of labor/delivery due to decreased oxygenation, has muscle weakness/paralysis, poor balance/irregular gait and uncoordinated/involuntary movements?

A
  • Cerebral Palsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a progressive lung disease that produces a chronic productive cough, where a more UPRIGHT position is needed in a dental chair to clear secretions easier, a feeding tube can be used to prevent caries but comes with a high plaque/calculus index, nitrous oxide and sedatives are CONTRAINDICATED due to lack of lung function?

A
  • Cystic Fibrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

With patients with hearing impairment how should they be treated while talking to them?

A
  • Face the patient, speak slowly and directly without shouting. *(Best lip readers only understand 30-40%) Watch expressions and use hand gestures for feedback.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

On which patients should you use sunglasses on?

A
  • Blind *(Light sensitivity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SHCN patients have an increased risk for oral disease and overall health, what can be done to aid these patients?

A
  • Education of parents/caregiver for daily oral hygiene
  • Mechanical toothbrushes, sponge tips and washcloths
  • Calcium/Fluoride toothpaste
  • Sealant
  • 3 month recall
  • Chlorhexidine rise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the primary importance for behavioral management of SHCN patients?

A
  • Assessment of Parental Attitudes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

While receiving Dental Care for SHCN patients, what can the dentist do to aid the situation?

A
  • Wrap tongue blades/bite blocks while removing plaque
  • Stabilization of the head
  • Modifications to their toothbrush to help patient with poor fine motor skills
  • Electric toothbrushes
  • Floss Holders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a rare genetic connective tissue disorder where a breakdown and blistering of the outer skin and mucosa is seen along with disuse of hands, difficult eating, mouth restriction, chronic malnutrition, slow growth and frequent infections? What is it’s best known form where the anchors of the epidermis are not present?

A
  • Epidermolysis Bullosa

- Recessive Dystrophic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Despite loss of tooth structure it is difficult and often inconclusive to know the extent of the injury? (T/F)

A
  • True
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Be familiar with Clinical Evaluation sheet and taking an individual history of the injury (pg 5-6 of trauma lecture)

A
  • Pg 5-6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Facial Fractures, Lacerations, Contusions, Swelling, Abrasions, Hemorrhage/Drainage, Foreign Bodies (Asphalt, etc.), and TMJ Deviation/Asymmetry are all part of what?

A
  • The Extraoral Exam
28
Q

When should the intraoral exam be conducted? What things should be checked during the intraoral exam?

A
  • After the teeth in the area of the injury have been cleaned of debris
  • Soft tissues, pulp exposure/cracks, mobility, vitality and percussion testing, TMJ joint, and bruising under tongue (may indicate a mandible fracture) **Tooth/area may be in shock and not respond to vitality testing.
29
Q

During radiographs following trauma, what is being looked for?

A
  • Root fractures, pulpal exposure, size of pulp chamber, open/closed apex, checking soft tissues for fragments of teeth/debris, TMJ deviation, bone fractures.
30
Q

There are 9 classes of fractures (Ellis & Davey’s Classification). What makes them different?

A
  • Class 1: Involves Enamel, little to no dentin.
  • Class 2: Involves considerable dentin (no pulp)
  • Class 3: Exposure of dental pulp
  • Class 4: Loss of the entire crown (tooth becomes Non-vital)
  • Class 5: Total tooth lose (Avulsion)
  • Class 6: Root Fracture
  • Class 7: Tooth Displacement without a Root Fracture
  • Class 8: Fracture of Crown en Masse and is Displaced
  • Class 9: Injury to primary teeth
31
Q

There are 9 steps during the analysis of trauma, what are they and in what order?

A
  1. Soft tissues
  2. Pulp
  3. Reposition
  4. Stabilize
  5. Restore
  6. Extract
  7. Medication
  8. Referral
  9. Record Treatment
32
Q

Usually children also have accompanying soft tissue wounds with trauma that are dirty. What should be checked before preceding?

A
  • Check that Tetanus Inoculation is current, if they don’t know, check with physician if uncertain.
  • *Tdap and DPT (Diptheria-Pertussis-Tetanus) specifically
33
Q

With a class 1 and some class 2 fractures, what can be done? In these situations, what should be placed on the Dentin before etching?

A
  • Usually just needs smoothing/resin treatment (perform a thorough examination for hidden problems)
  • Calcium Hydroxide (CaOH)
34
Q

How long should etch and bond be applied for?

A
  • 20 to 30 seconds
35
Q

The tooth reacts differently to different types of trauma. What is when there is a congestion of blood in the pulp chamber and the color is often reddish? What is caused by increased pressure which causes the rupture of capillaries and the escape of red blood cells and a breakdown in pigmentation which usually does not have a color change but can go dark? What is when crowns turn yellow, where primary teeth will usually have root resorption (fall out) and permanent teeth may become infected (but retained), where the pulp is obliterated and will be extremely fine?

A
  • Pulpal Hyperemia
  • Internal Hemorrhage
  • Calcific Metamorphosis of the Dental Pulp
36
Q

What does a Dark-Grey discoloration mean? What does a Light Grey or Yellow mean?

A
  • Non-vital pulp and possibly necrotic.

- Vital pulp with canal obliteration

37
Q

If there is a small vital pulp exposure that is treated within 1-2 hours after injury, what should be done? What is a good Base/Liner to use?

A
  • Direct Pulp Cap with a Base/Liner

- Activa

38
Q

If there is a small pulp exposure but the patient isn’t seen for several hours, or a large pulp exposure what should be done?

A
  • Shallow Pulpotomy, deeper pulpotomy may be done if health is questionable.
39
Q

If there is a permanent tooth with an open apex, what should be done?

A
  • Pulpectomy with Endodontic Treatment
40
Q

What is the therapy to stimulate root growth and apical repair in immature teeth with pulpal necrosis?

A
  • Apexification (Root canal treatment without surgery)
41
Q

What is a destructive process thought to be caused by odontoblasts that is initiated by an injury and can be observed radiographically in the pulp chamber/canal?

A
  • Internal Resorption
42
Q

What is associated with severe trauma that causes damage to periodontal structures that begins on the outside of the tooth and causes resorption that continues until the root structure is gone?

A
  • External Root Resorption
43
Q

Is there a Large or Little relationship between the type of injury and the reaction of the pulp and tissues? What has a better pulpal prognosis, coronal fracture or tooth displacement?

A
  • Little Relationship

- Coronal Fracture (doesn’t destroy the nerves/blood supply)

44
Q

What is observed after trauma to Anterior Primary and Permanent teeth, caused by injury to the PDL, causes irregular resorption on PDL surface that causes a fusion between the alveolar bone and root surface and therefor can no longer erupt?

A
  • Ankylosis
45
Q

What occurs in 40% of teeth when injury occurs on the primary tooth and causes a pigmented hypoplastic area on the permanent tooth?

A
  • Turners Tooth (Turners Hypoplasia)
46
Q

In the case of Primary teeth that are Intruded, what should be done? What about permanent teeth?

A
  • Leave them where they are to avoid damaging adjacent teeth/structures.
  • Watch them and see if they can be treated by orthodontics.
47
Q

With permanent teeth that have been intruded or extruded more than 7 mm, and have a closed apex, what should be done?

A
  • Reposition, stabilized for 4-8 weeks with a flexible splint, eventually will need a root canal treatment 2-3 weeks after stabilization. (fill with Ca(OH))
48
Q

With permanent teeth that are intruded less than 7 mm and have an open apex, what should be done?

A
  • Allow time to erupt spontaneously for 2-4 weeks, if nothing occurs, use orthodontic treatment.
49
Q

What often occurs with Replantation of permanent teeth? What are some advantages to Replantation?

A
  • Root resorption, can last only months (3X more frequent in boys and common in ages 7-9)
  • Tooth can be retained naturally, can serve as a space maintainer, psychologically more appealing, can last 5-10 years
50
Q

___% of teeth replanted with 30 minutes showed NO resorption. ___% replanted more than 2 hours after showed resorption. Should primary teeth be replanted? How should you pick up an avulsed tooth? If tooth cannot be replanted immediately, what should be done? What should not be used but can be if nothing else is available? How long should the avulsed tooth be splinted?

A
  • 90%
  • 95%
  • NO
  • By the crown (don’t touch the tooth as music as possible)
  • Placed in moist environment using a Saline (Hank’s or Isotonic), milk.
  • Water
  • At least 1 week *(Know criteria on slide 52 and duration on slide 53)
51
Q

What is a common cause of oral burns? What should be done in these situations?

A
  • Electrical Trauma *(These can cause Microstomia - small mouths)
  • Antibiotics and a Prosthetic appliance to prevent contractive healing of tissues.
52
Q

Know the different types of fractures (slides 59-68)

A
  • Slides 59-68
53
Q

Know eruption and evulsion times for permanent and primary teeth (slide 4)

A
  • Slide 4
54
Q

Variations of eruption/avulsion of up to ___ months can be considered normal. (However this is much more stable than other physical developments in children) Is early eruption or delays more common with teeth?

A
  • 6 months

- Delays

55
Q

What syndrome often has a DELAY in tooth eruption, higher periodontal disease but usually low susceptibility to caries? What other syndromes also have delayed eruption?

A
  • Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)
  • Hypothyroidism (Congenital and Juvenile), Hypopituitarism, Dwarfism *(Also includes a small maxilla with teeth crowding, an open bite and chronic gingivitis),
56
Q

During the time of clinical emergence of a tooth, how much of the root has formed? Is the root fully formed during the time of occlusion? Girls Root Stages develop at a rate of ____/year faster than boys.

A
  • 3/4
  • No
  • 0.54/year
57
Q

In children who lose their primary molars at 4-5 years old and before, what permanent tooth eruption is DELAYED? In children who prematurely lose their primary teeth at age 8-10, what tooth eruption is greatly ACCELERATED?

A
  • Premolars

- Premolars

58
Q

Order of eruption of permanent teeth in Maxilla? Mandible?

A
  • Maxilla: 1st molar, central, lateral, 1st premolar, 2nd premolar, CANINE, and 2nd Molar.
  • Mandible: 1st molar, central, lateral, CANINE, 1st premolar, 2nd premolar, 2nd molar.
59
Q

What is the difference between Natal and Neonatal teeth? Is this very common? 85% of Natal/Neonatal teeth are what? This early eruption of teeth can cause problems, what two are the most common?

A
  • Natal: Teeth present at birth
  • Neonatal: Teeth that erupt during the first 30 days of life
  • Low Prevalence
  • Mandibular Primary Incisors
  • Nursing problems and lacerating the tongue (Riga-Fede Disease)
60
Q

What form along the Midpalatine raphe, and are considered remnants of epithelial tissue? What are formed along the buccal and lingual aspects of the dental ridges and on the palate, and are considered remnants of salivary gland tissue? What are found on the crests of the maxillary and mandibular dental ridges and are remnants of the dental lamina? What is done to fix these?

A
  • Epstein Pearls
  • Bohn Nodules
  • Dental Lamina Cysts
  • No treatment (will shed a few weeks after birth)
61
Q

What are the visual signs of teething? Be careful in diagnosis, teething has been confused with croup, diarrhea, fever, concussions, herpetic lesions, and even death have been confused with it. What can you use as treatment? What is a dark bolos lesion found in the gingiva in areas of erupting teeth?

A
  • Daytime restlessness, drooling, swelling, loss of appetite
  • Teething ring, Antihistamines
  • Eruption Hematoma (Eruption Cyst)
62
Q

What are small fragments of calcified tissue overlying the crowns of erupting permanent molar teeth, especially at the time of eruption of the mandibular first molars?

A
  • Eruption Sequestrum
63
Q

When there is ectopic eruption of the 1st Permanent molars, what 4 things can usually be done? Describe a Halterman Appliance.

A
  • Orthodontic Elastics/Spacers
  • Separating Springs
  • Brass Ligature
  • Halterman Appliance (Band around primary molar usually, uses a hook that is placed in the tuberosity or retromolar pad area. A bondable button is placed on the tooth that needs labial, lingual, or distal movement- aka the erupting molar. The appliance is generally extended off of a lingual arch for anchorage. Power chain, closed coil springs or bands are generally used for the activation.)
64
Q

What is the general rule for extracting an ectopic Maxillary Cuspid (Canine)?

A
  • When 50% of the canine has over lapped the lateral incisor.
65
Q

What teeth are most commonly ankylosed? When ankylosis of the primary anterior teeth is seen, what does that mean? What is the best thing to do in these situations?

A
  • Mandibular Primary Molars
  • There has been trauma
  • Identify if there will be a caries problem or loss of arch length, watch and then decide what to do (extract, orthodontically, perio)
66
Q

What condition is genetic, absence of clavicles, large fontanels, mandibular prognathism (increased mandible lengths), short maxilla and presence of Supernumerary teeth?

A
  • Cleidocranial Dysplasia

Pedo Spring 2017 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions