Final questions Flashcards
1
Q
What is the critical leadership skill when attempting to build a cooperative and effective team?
A) Showing their true feelings
B) Empathizing with followers
C) Identifying existing emotions in themselves and others
D) Manipulating the emotions of all involved to achieve stated goals
A
C) Identifying existing emotions in themselves and others
2
Q
Which principle will help increase the likelihood that followers do not mislead their leader?
A) Support the followers’ right to disagree
B) Rely only on facts and discount intuition
C) Discourage acceptance until the facts are proved
D) Identify who to rely upon and who not to listen to
A
A) Support the followers’ right to disagree
3
Q
Which statement regarding the characteristics of a good leader is true?
A) They are totally trustworthy
B) They may have character flaws
C) They are by nature good intentioned
D) Charisma is their strongest attribute
A
B) They may have character flaws
Leaders may be deceitful and trustworthy, greedy and generous, and cowardly and brave. To assume that all good leaders are good people is foolhardy and makes us blind to the human condition. It is only when we recognize and manage our failings that leaders achieve greatness.
4
Q
Which statement concerning nursing leadership functioning at its potential is true?
A) The leadership role is most important in nursing today
B) Leadership is most important in managing health-care costs
C) The most important nursing leadership role is being charismatic
D) There is a need to integrate nursing management and nursing leadership
A
D) There is a need to integrate nursing management and nursing leadership
5
Q
What is the conclusion of interactional theories regarding successful leadership?
A) Leaders, followers, and the situation were all variables that interacted
B) The situation had the most profound effect on success in leadership
C) The situation has a greater effect on outcomes than followers do
D) Good results would occur if leaders led well
A
A) Leaders, followers, and the situation were all variables that interacted
6
Q
What is an example of a positive outcome of a leader’s emotional intelligence?
A) Emotions are held in check
B) Emotions are used effectively
C) Expression of one’s emotions is expected
D) Expression of one’s emotions is encouraged
A
B) Emotions are used effectively
7
Q
What is a focus of thought leadership? A) Challenging the status quo B) Learning new technology C) Keeping up with current nursing knowledge D) Being a transformational leader
A
A) challenging the status quo
Thought leadership applies to a person who is recognized among his or her peers for innovative ideas and who demonstrates the confidence to promote those ideas.
8
Q
Which represents the management functions that are incorporated into the management process?
A) Planning, directing, organizing, staffing, and evaluating
B) Planning, organizing, staffing, directing, and controlling
C) Organizing, planning, staffing, directing, and evaluating
D) Organizing, staffing, planning, implementing, and controlling
A
B) Planning, organizing, staffing, directing, and controlling
9
Q
What does traditional management science focuses upon? A) Meeting worker satisfaction B) Delineating barriers to productivity C) Using a laissez-faire approach D) Encouraging employee participation
A
B) Delineating barriers to productivity
10
Q
Managing conflict among staff members would occur in which part of the management process? A) Planning B) Organizing C) Directing D) Evaluating
A
D) Eval
11
Q
Which statement about situational or contingency leadership theory is correct?
A) High relationship behavior is much more essential to a good manager than high
task behavior
B) This leadership model is effective in bureaucratic organizations because it is task
focused
C) Management should be consistent in different situations so workers understand
what is expected of them
D) The leadership style chosen by a manager should reflect the task/relationship
behavior of those being managed
A
D) The leadership style chosen by a manager should reflect the task/relationship
behavior of those being managed
12
Q
Which statement depicts leadership?
A) A leadership position is assigned
B) A leadership position carries a legitimate source of power
C) Members of a group will follow a person in a leadership position only by choice
D) Leadership requires meeting organizational goals
A
C) Members of a group will follow a person in a leadership position only by choice
13
Q
What type of leader is the person who is committed, has a vision, and is able to empower others with this vision?
A) Transactional
B) Transformational
C) Interactional
D) Bureaucratic
A
B) Transformational
14
Q
What is a distinguishing trait of integrated leader-managers? Select all that apply.
A) Inward thinkers
B) Long-term thinkers
C) Concerned with employee motivation
D) Possess influence beyond their own group
A
B, C, D
15
Q
What type of manager is concerned with the day-to-day operations?
A) Transactional
B) Transformational
C) Interactional
D) Bureaucratic
A
A) Transactional
16
Q
What is the typical focus of managers? Select all that apply.
A) Establishing a legitimate source of power
B) Delegating responsibilities to staff members
C) Formulate the budget to achieve the stated goals
D) Direct attention to the management of unwilling subordinates
A
A, B, C
17
Q
Which activity is associated with a leadership role? Select all that apply.
A) Mentoring two new managers
B) Establishing goals for the coming year
C) Advocating for employee regarding personal policies
D) Providing a motivational speech at the new employee orientation
A
A, B, C, D
18
Q
Which statement best describes ethics?
A) How our lives and relationships are led in our reality
B) How people make decisions they see as legally and morally appropriate
C) The conflict, power, and interdependency associated with the way we live
D) What our conduct and actions should be regarding what is right and good
A
D
19
Q
What is an ethical dilemma?
A) A problem that can be solved using empirical data
B) A situation that has clearly delineated facts for decision making
C) A problem that when handled effectively has a mutually agreed-upon solution
D) A situation that requires choosing between two or more undesirable alternatives
A
D) A situation that requires choosing between two or more undesirable alternatives
20
Q
The practice of allocating organs for transplantation based on a person’s worth to society is an example of what ethical principle for decision making? A) Autonomy B) Beneficence C) Utility D) Justice
A
D
21
Q
The only treatment alternative left for a patient diagnosed with advanced cancer is a rare, highly experimental bone marrow transfusion with a 10% success rate. The insurance company refuses to authorize payment for the $200,000 procedure, arguing that the money could be better spent providing well-baby screening for 2,000 residents in the service area. What does this decision by the insurance company reflect?
A) Unethical conduct
B) Maleficence
C) Paternalism
D) Utility
A
D
The principle of utility states that what is best for the common good outweighs what is best for the individual. There is no indication of unethical or maleficence behavior on the part of the insurance company. Paternalism would be characterized by the insurance company making treatment decision without the patient having input.
22
Q
Which statement regarding the MORAL decision-making model is true?
A) It is a problem-solving model
B) It does not include an evaluation step
C) The identification and analysis of multiple alternatives for action is required
D) The decision is arrived upon with only the involvement of the decision maker
A
C)
MORAL is a decision-making model that is useful in clarifying ethical problems, and it requires the identification and analysis of multiple alternatives for action. The other options are not true statements regarding this decision-making model.
23
Q
What is the role of the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics and Interpretive Statements?
A) Outlines minimum levels of ethical behavior that nurses must maintain
B) Functions as a guide to the highest standards of ethical practice for nurses
C) Is a legally binding document that directs a nurse’s ethical and moral behavior
D) Mandates the ethical behavior prerequisite for maintaining a nursing licensure
A
B
24
Q
Which statement regarding ethical decision making is true?
A) Outcomes are the basic criterion for evaluating ethical decision making
B) Only desirable alternatives are identified when solving ethical dilemmas
C) Critical ethical decisions are made quickly so the situation does not worsen
D) Accepting some ambiguity and uncertainty are a part of ethical decision making
A
D
25
Which factor should be considered when assessing the quality of ethical problem solving? Select all that apply.
A) Outcomes
B) Decision-making process
C) Multiple alternatives
D) Data gathering
A, B
26
Collecting data about the ethical problem and identifying who should be involved in the decision-making process is accomplished in which phase of the MORAL decision- making model?
A) Massage the dilemma
B) Outline options
C) Review criteria and resolve
D) Affirm position and act
A
27
Which statement is correct regarding the distinction between legal and ethical obligations in decision making?
A) Ethical controls are clearer and philosophically impartial
B) Ethical controls are much clearer and individualized
C) Legal controls are clearer and philosophically impartial
D) Legal controls are much less clear and individualized
C
28
Using both a systematic approach and proven ethical tools and technology allows managers to make better decisions and increases the probability that they will feel confident about the decisions they have made. Leadership roles and management functions are involved in management ethics. What is an example of a leadership role?
A) Uses a systematic approach to problem solving and decision making when facedwith management problems with ethical ramifications
B) Identifies outcomes in ethical decision making that should always be sought oravoided
C) Uses established ethical frameworks to clarify values and beliefs
D) Role models ethical decision making, which is congruent with the AmericanNurses Association Code of Ethics and Interpretive Statements and Professional
standard
D)
29
There are many terms used to describe moral issues faced by nurses, including moral uncertainty, moral conflict, moral distress, moral outrage, and ethical dilemmas. Which statement describes how moral uncertainty occurs?
A) Occurs when an individual is unsure which moral principles or values apply and may even include uncertainty as to what the moral problem is
B) Occurs when the individual knows the right thing to do but organizational constraints make it difficult to take the right course of action
C) Occurs when an individual witnesses the immoral act of another but feels powerless to stop it
D) Occurs when being forced to choose between two or more undesirable alternatives
A
30
```
What defines the legal boundaries of nursing at the state level?
A) The state’s Attorney General
B) The Nurse Practice Act
C) The ANA standards of practice
D) The ANA Code for Nurses
```
B) NPA
31
A doctor orders a medical procedure that the staff nurse has reason to believe will harm the patient. Which statement accurately states the legal consequences of carrying out, or refusing to carry out, the procedure?
A) The staff nurse cannot be held legally liable for any harm to the patient if the
procedure is carried out with due care
B) The nurse may lose his or her license by refusing to carry out the procedure
C) The nurse can be held legally liable for any harm if the procedure is carried out
without question
D) The nurse can be held accountable for practicing medicine without a license
C)
32
How is the legal expansion of nursing roles accomplished?
A) The expansion of job descriptions in an agency
B) Written contracts between the nurse and the client
C) A written agreement between the nurse and the physician
D) Revision of the Nurse Practice Act
Ans: D
D)
33
What is the responsibility of a charge nurse who discovers that a medication error was made on the previous shift?
A) Share that information with the charge nurse on the previous shift
B) Document the incident as per hospital policy
C) Write a memo to the nurse who made the error requesting incident report be
written
D) Write a note in the client’s chart that an incident report will be completed
D)
34
Which characteristics are required of a reasonable and prudent nurse?
A) Years of clinically focused nursing experience
B) Specialized nursing skills
C) Average nursing judgment and skills
D) Earned advanced nursing degree
C
35
A lawsuit pertaining to professional negligence must include duty, breach of duty, injury, and a causal relationship between breach of duty and injury. What else must be included? Which element is necessary to prove professional negligence? Select all that apply.
A) Breach of duty
B) Presence of injury
C) Ability to foresee harm
D) Causal relationship
A, B, C, D
36
What component of professional negligence is represented when a patient experiences a seizure resulting from a medication error?
A) Duty to use due care
B) Failure to meet standard of care
C) Foreseeability of harm
D) A causal relationship
D)
37
```
What document permits a registered nurse to offer special skills and knowledge to the public in a particular jurisdiction when such practice would otherwise be unlawful?
A) A state nursing license
B) Institutional licensure
C) ANA certificate
D) ANA practice standards
```
A)
38
```
What is an example of an unintentional tort?
A) Professional negligence
B) Assault
C) Battery
D) False imprisonment
```
A)
39
Which behavior will best minimize a nurse’s risk for a malpractice claim?
A) Always carry a personal liability insurance policy
B) Always function with the state’s nursing practice act
C) Ask for assistance when engaged in complicated procedures
D) Devote time to establishing an effective nurse and patient relationship
B)
40
Which statement regarding the responsibility of a manager in advocacy is accurate?
A) Advocacy is a management function and not a leadership role
B) Managers advocate only as needed to meet organizational goals
C) Managers should advocate for patients as well as subordinates
D) Professional advocacy is not a primary concern for most managers
C)
41
How is the action of advocacy described?
A) Informing others of their rights and making certain they have sufficient
information to make decisions
B) Learning about the need for a decision and then making a good decision for other
people
C) Supporting an individual’s right to make a decision even when they do not have
accurate information
D) Protecting the rights of patients in accordance with the law
A)
42
Which situation is a reality for whistle-blowers?
A) Retaliation against them is illegal
B) Fellow workers are supportive of them
C) Federal and State law protects them
D) They are often afraid to speak out
D)
43
What statement is true concerning nurses as a political body?
A) They are very committed to both their profession and the political process
B) Many are active members of the American Nurses Association (ANA)
C) Their primary focus is to speak out on consumer health-related issues
D) They have not yet recognized the full potential of political activity
D)
44
Which leadership role is associated with advocacy?
A) Create a climate where advocacy and its associated risk-taking are valued
B) Give subordinates and patients adequate information to make informed decisions
C) Ensure that rights and values of patients supersede those of the health-care
providers
D) Seek appropriate consultation when advocacy results in intrapersonal or
interpersonal conflict
A)
45
How can nurses act as advocates? Select all that apply.
A) Helping others make informed decisions
B) Directly intervening on behalf of others
C) Providing consent to treat for the cognitively impaired patients
D) Making health-care decisions for those who are not able to do so
A, C, D
46
Which characteristic associated with being a patient increases the need for advocacy? Select all that apply.
A) Loss of physical freedom as a result of extended hospitalizations
B) Decreased independence due to physical or psychosocial limitations
C) Physical or psychosocial limitations negatively impacted autonomy
D) Illness tends to make an individual more vulnerable to unethical activities
A, B, C, D
47
Which are common areas requiring nurse and patient advocacy? Select all that apply.
A) Securing patient consents
B) Preventing medication errors
C) Facilitating access to health-care services
D) Respect for patient dignity and cultural values
A, B, C, D
48
Which intervention demonstrates that the nurse-manager is to advocate for patients in common areas of concern? Select all that apply.
A) Staffing a unit with sufficient care providers
B) Orienting staff to safely use a new patient lift
C) Providing an in-service on culturally meeting end-of-life needs
D) Arranging for patient consultations with members of the financial office
A, B, C, D
49
Whose rights do the legislative controls of nursing practice primarily protect?
A) Patients
B) Subordinates
C) Managers
D) Administrators
A)
50
Which nursing intervention demonstrates attention to the nursing values central to patient advocacy? Select all that apply.
A) Assuring the patient that their wishes will be respected regarding the care they
receive
B) Identifying the patient’s religious dietary practices when discussing a prescribed
diet
C) Answering the patient’s questions regarding the alternatives to a proposed
procedure
D) Suggesting to a patient that a social services consult would help with discharge
needs
A, B, C, D
51
What determines the functions and priorities of an organization?
A) The organization’s mission statement
B) The organization’s budget
C) Consumer satisfaction surveys
D) The organization’s policy and procedure statements
A)
52
What is the best definition for the process of planning?
A) Problem oriented
B) Short-term goal setting
C) Continuous with cyclic evaluation checkpoints
D) A long-range needs assessment
C)
53
Which is a true statement about planning?
A) All plans should be defined well so that changes aren’t necessary
B) Long- and short-range plans should be kept separate so priorities do not become
confused
C) Objectives and goals must be established before the philosophy is written
D) All plans should include reasonable time limits
D)
54
What is required in a health-care organization philosophy statement?
A) Should be evident in a nursing department’s decisions, priorities, and behavior
B) Has value, even if not implemented, because it provides a picture of what the
organization would like to accomplish
C) Should reflect the values and priorities of each specific unit manager
D) Should be consistent with that of other health care agencies in the area to avoid
competition
A)
55
A good plan incorporates which characteristic?
A) A midterm evaluation
B) Built-in evaluation checkpoints
C) The rejection of plans that originally failed
D) Over-planning to arrange required details
B)
56
One of the most commonly used tools in health-care organizations is SWOT analysis. What is the definition for S?
A) Internal attributes that help an organization achieve its objectives
B) Internal attributes that challenge an organization in achieving its objectives
C) External conditions that promote achievement of organizational objectives
D) External conditions that challenge or threaten the achievement of organizational
objectives
A)
57
One of the most commonly used tools in health-care organizations is SWOT analysis. What is the definition for opportunities?
A) Internal attributes that help an organization achieve its objectives
B) Internal attributes that challenge an organization in achieving its objectives
C) External conditions that promote achievement of organizational objectives
D) External conditions that challenge or threaten the achievement of organizational
objectives
C)
58
Which statement regarding nursing policies and procedures is most important to their successful role in achieving goals?
A) The policies and procedures are created by staff representatives
B) All policies and practices are based on current evidence related to practice
C) Policy or procedure adoption is dependent upon effective utilization of resources
D) 100% of the staff adheres to established policies and procedures 100% of the time
B)
59
Which statement regarding rules is true? Select all that apply.
A) Rules should be flexible
B) There should be as few rules as possible
C) Rules should be changed on a regular basis
D) Enforcement of the rules supports staff morale
A, B, D
60
Which statement concerning the role of the leader-manager in organizational planning is true? Select all that apply.
A) They need to be future oriented
B) They must be willing to take risks
C) They must possess human resource management skills
D) They need to be prepared to appraise the social climate that affects the
organization
A, B, C, D
61
What is fiscal planning?
A) A learned skill that improves with practice
B) A job role of the facility business manager
C) Part of the organizing phase of the management process
D) Reactive based on political, social, and economic forces
Ans: A
A)
62
Which activity is a responsibility of the unit manager regarding fiscal planning?
A) To assume responsibility for achieving budgetary planning goals
B) To monitor and evaluate all aspects of the unit’s budget control
C) To streamline the number of subordinates involved in the budgetary process
D) To control unpredictable census variations that may undermine the personnel
budget
B)
63
Which is a leadership role in fiscal planning?
A) Coordinating the monitoring aspects of budget control
B) Accurately assessing personnel needs using agreed-on standards or an established
patient classification system
C) Assessing the internal and external environment of the organization in forecasting
to identify driving forces and barriers to fiscal planning
D) Being visionary in identifying short- and long-term unit fiscal needs
D)
64
Equipment depreciation, the number and type of supplies needed by patients, and overtime that occurs in response to an emergency are all examples of what type of expenses?
A) Controllable
B) Fixed
C) Capital budget
D) Noncontrollable
D)
65
What is inferred if an item is cost-effective?
A) It is the least expensive product available
B) It is worth the cost
C) It is reimbursable
D) Its cost was anticipated
B)
66
```
What is the largest budget expenditure for health-care organizations?
A) The personnel budget
B) Short-term capital acquisitions
C) The operating budget
D) Supplies and equipment
```
A)
67
Determine the nursing care hours per patient day (NCH/PPD) if the following staffing existed for a 24-hour period (unit census = 10):
12 midnight to 12 noon, 1 registered nurse, 1 licensed vocational nurse
12 noon to 12 midnight, 1 registered nurse, 1 licensed vocational nurse, 1 unit clerk (8 hours only)
A) 5.6
68
The measurement of NCH/PPD will provide what information?
A) The acuity level of the patients on a particular unit in a 24-hour time span
B) The total number of hours worked by nursing personnel on a particular unit in a
24-hour time span divided by the patient census
C) The specific amount of money spent on staffing during a 24-hour period
D) The quality of nursing care that was provided on a particular unit in a 24-hour
time span
B)
69
What is the name for a provision of health care in an organized system to subscribing members in a geographical area with an agreed-on set of basic and preventive supplemental health maintenance and treatment services for a fixed, prepaid charge?
A) Preferred provider organizations (PPOs)
B) A traditional third-party payer indemnity plan
C) A health maintenance organization (HMO)
D) Diagnostic-related groupings (DRGs)
C
70
What was the primary reason for the development of the prospective payment system?
A) Skyrocketing health-care costs following the advent of Medicare and Medicaid
B) The passage of the Health Maintenance Act of 1973
C) The introduction of the Health Security Act to Congress
D) A coalition held by the three largest private insurers in 1975
A)
71
Which use of limited resources would result in increased reimbursement revenues?
A) Education on appropriate documentation on patient care records
B) Number of clinical nurse specialists
C) Educational paid days for licensed staff
D) Mix and number of clinical staff
A)
72
Which statement best describes critical pathways?
A) They determine justifiable differences among clients
B) They decrease the amount of paperwork required for reimbursement
C) They reduce administrative costs
D) They provide a means of standardizing care for clients with similar diagnoses
D
73
Using a decision package to aid in fiscal priority setting is a key feature of what type of budgeting?
A) Personnel workforce
B) Operating
C) Capital
D) Zero based
D
74
Key principles of managed care include (select all that apply)
1. Nurses as gatekeepers
2. Focus on prevention
3. Decreased emphasis on inpatient hospital care
4. Capitation
2, 3, 4
75
What are the results of managed care backlash?
(select all that apply)
1. Delay of payment for services provided
2. Denial of requests for additional treatment
3. Increased premiums to consumers
4. Lower co-pays and deductibles
1, 3,
76
hat changed the structure of Medicare payments from a retrospectively adjusted cost reimbursement system to a prospective, risk-based one?
A) Zero-based budgets
B) Diagnostic-related groupings
C) Prospective payment system
D) Incremental budgets
B
77
Which factor is primarily important when budgeting for a healthcare facility?
A) Services provided
B) Budget time frame
C) Size of organization
D) Acuity of patients being served
B)
78
Which statement regarding a budget is true? Select all that apply.
A) A budget contains an estimate of both expenses and income for a year.
B) It allows for an institution to plan for the effective use of its resources
C) The cost of supplies is an example of a variable expense
D) A mortgage is an example of a fixed expense
A, B, C, D
79
Which information is too much in flux to identify on an organizational chart?
A) Grapevine lines of communication
B) Line and staff authority
C) Span of control
D) Scalar chains
A)
80
Which statement concerning organizational culture is true?
A) It presents how employees ìperceiveî an organization
B) It defines how power is used by organizations to direct the work of others
C) It describes the predictable stages of group and organizational development
D) It is a system of symbols, beliefs, values, history, and communication patterns
D)
81
Which statement is true regarding depiction of staff positions on an organizational chart?
A) They are depicted as unbroken lines
B) They are represented by double dotted lines
C) They are shown as a solid, vertical line
D) They are identified with a dotted line.
D)
82
Which position is characteristic of a middle-level manager?
A) Primary care nurse
B) Team leader
C) Charge nurse
D) Nursing supervisor
D) Nursing supervisors are middle-level managers. All the others are first-level managers.
83
How does decentralized organizational structure promote decision making?
A) Allows problems to be solved at the level at which they occur
B) Encourages decisions to be made by top-level hierarchy
C) Limits communication to managers at various levels
D) Assigns responsibility at the highest practical level
A)
84
Which statement about organizational centrality is true?
A) It refers to the decision-making structure in an organization
B) It occurs when there is consonance of subunit cultures in the organization
C) It is a position on the organizational chart where types of communication occur
D) It occurs primarily in line relationships
C)
85
Which is a symptom of poor organizational structure?
A) Communication follows the chain of command
B) The smallest possible number of managers exists to keep units functioning
C) The chain of command is fairly short
D) There is a heavy reliance on committees to solve unit problems
D)
86
Which term is used to identify having official power to act?
A) Responsibility
B) Authority
C) Accountability
D) Leadership
B)
87
Which would suggest that flattening of the organization is occurring?
A) There is a collective spirit
B) There is reduction in the administration levels
C) There are shared work goals across units
D) There are formal and informal systems are in place to address conflicts
B
88
What occurs during implementation of a shared governance model?
A) Lines of authority are altered
B) Joint practice committees are formed
C) Participatory management is initiated
D) The roles of first-level managers are stabilized
B)
89
What is the leadership role when a unit is attempting to overcome the decentralization of patient care?
A) Determining what changes will be made to the plan of care
B) Facilitating the group’s work
C) Identifying the patient care problems
D) Selecting solutions to problems
B)
90
What should the leader remember when forming committees?
A) Committees work best when there is an adequate supply of workers, with 10
members being the minimum
B) Willingness to work hard is the most important criterion for appointment
C) Written agendas provide excessive structure and stifle committee creativity
D) There should be sufficient expertise among committee members to accomplish the
assigned task
D)
91
Which characteristics are associated with Magnet hospital status?
1. Centralized environment
2. Open, participatory management
3. Improved patient outcomes
4. Higher staff nurse satisfaction
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 4
D) 2, 3, 4
92
Which component is considered a part of an organizational structure? Select all that apply.
A) Group formation
B) Lines of communication
C) Decision-making process
D) Channels of legitimate authority
A, B, C, D
93
Which statement is true concerning a bureaucratic organization?
A) It is commonly referred to as a line organization
B) It is typically found in large health-care organizations
C) They resemble Weber’s original design of organization
D) Its authority is represented by its staff organizational chart
A, B, C, D
94
Which statement best describes functional nursing care delivery?
A) Nursing care is holistic and patient centered
B) The nurse must be a licensed person
C) Emphasis is on getting work done through tasks
D) It is also known as total patient care
C)
95
Which statement best describes case management?
A) Clinical outcomes should occur within a prescribed time frame
B) Case managers do not provide direct patient care
C) Managed care practice is a unit-based model of care
D) The goal is outcome management for every patient
A)
96
Where did critical pathways originate from?
A) Case management
B) Functional nursing
C) Team nursing
D) Primary care nursing
A)
97
What has research shown regarding interviewing reliability?
A) Interviewer reliability is high if the interview is unstructured
B) Interviewer reliability improves if the interview is structured uniformly
C) Reliability increases when there is a team approach to the interview
D) Positive information is weighed more heavily than negative information
B
98
Which area of questioning is considered an illegal interview inquiry?
A) Questions about the applicant’s marital status
B) The languages the applicant speaks or writes
C) Inquiries about educational experiences
D) Place of residence
A)
99
Which question asked during an interview is acceptable?
A) Are you married?
B) Have you ever been arrested?
C) What is your religious preference?
D) What professional organizations do you belong to?
D)
100
When do nursing shortages historically occur?
A) When the economy is beginning an upswing
B) When the economy is receding
C) When nursing salaries decline
D) When patient acuity increases
A, B
101
Which factor is considered the greatest obstacle to solving the projected nursing shortage?
A) Lack of nursing faculty
B) Expense of nursing education
C) Lack of interest in nursing as a career
D) Poor social respect of the nursing profession
A)
102
What is the most fiscally responsible method for determining staffing needs for a hospital unit?
A) Maximum patient load capacity of the unit
B) Numbers of patients present for an upcoming shift
C) An agreed-upon staffing formula currently in use
D) Total beds on the unit
C)
103
Which is an outcome of decentralized staffing?
A) Increased fairness to employees through consistent, objective, and impartial
application
B) Cost-effectiveness through better use of resources
C) Greater manager autonomy to control the staffing on the units, resulting in an
increase in self-esteem and teamwork
D) Increased availability of data for monitoring the effect of staffing size and
composition, quality of care, and costs
C)
104
What is the priority goal for a manager with regard to staffing and scheduling?
B)
105
Which statement is true regarding legislated minimum staffing ratios?
A) They are mandated by federal law
B) They are required by 28 states
C) They are proposed to improve patient care
D) They are necessary to reduce costs
C)
106
What should the manager do in completing an annual performance appraisal?
A) Consider good intentions as well as actual performance
B) Base the appraisal on a standard to which all are held accountable
C) Always make an effort to include subjective data
D) Closely observe the employee for the 2 weeks preceding the appraisal conference
B)
107
What increases the likelihood that the performance appraisal will have a positive outcome?
A) The manager refrains from making any comments about the worker’s performance
B) The employee is encouraged to identify three areas of satisfactory performance
C) The employee provides input into developing the performance standards
D) The manager identifies not more than three areas of deficient performance
C)
108
What is the process involved in progressive discipline?
A) A written warning precedes verbal warnings
B) Formal warnings are followed up with informal warnings
C) Written warnings are advocated only in the most serious of offenses
D) The initial step is the delivery of a verbal warning by the manager
D)
109
Which statement concerning the recognition of chemical impairment in an employee is correct?
A) It is relatively easy to identify employees who are chemically impaired
B) It is easier to recognize if the employee is impaired by alcohol than by drugs
C) Impairment should result in an immediate intervention by the manager
D) Impairment must be supported by data gathering before intervention occurs
C)
110
Which statement identifies a truth regarding the generally accepted plan for the reentry of the chemically impaired employee into the workplace?
A) It is successful in only a small number of cases despite active treatment programs
B) It is discouraged by the board of registered nursing
C) It should not occur until 3 years after the employee has completed the treatment program
D) It often includes an employer requirement that the employee agree to random urine screening on request by the employer
D)
111
Which statement represents a correct statement regarding the identification and assisting interventions provided employees with substance abuse problems?
A) It is done as an altruistic and benevolent action by the organization
B) It should not be undertaken by management or the personnel department
C) It should include screening that focuses on early detection
D) Is best handled through disciplinary action of the personnel department
C)
112
When does communication have the greatest likelihood of being accurately interpreted?
A) More than one mode is used
B) Face-to-face communication is used
C) Written communication is used
D) The sender repeats the message using the same mode
A)
113
When does communication have the greatest likelihood of being accurately interpreted?
A) More than one mode is used
B) Face-to-face communication is used
C) Written communication is used
D) The sender repeats the message using the same mode
A)
114
Which statement concerning nonverbal communication is true?
A) It is consistent across cultures
B) It is given more credence than verbal communication when the two are
incongruent
C) It should be minimized because it confuses the receiver regarding the true intent of the message
D) It is a significant part of the communication exchange only when it is not
congruent with the verbal exchange
B)
115
What portion of GRRRR (greeting, respectful listening, review, recommend or request more information, and reward) is being used when the speaker summarizes the information conveyed to make sure the message was understood correctly?
A) Greeting
B) Respectful listening
C) Review
D) Recommend or request more information
C)
116
What is the most significant barrier to effective interpersonal communication?
A) Incongruence between verbal and nonverbal messages
B) Incongruence between telephone and written messages
C) Incongruence between verbal and written messages
D) Incongruence between telephone and nonverbal messages
A)
117
```
Which method best provides a structured orderly approach to communicating accurate, relevant information, in emergent patient situations as well as routine handoffs?
A) GRRRR listening model
B) SBAR tool
C) Hospital information system
D) Wireless, local area networking
```
B)
118
Which action is an accepted tactic when engaged in a negotiation?
A) Being willing to win at any cost
B) Communicating only when asked direct questions
C) Compromising only as a last resort
D) Beginning with a high but realistic expectation
D)
119
A charge nurse assists a group of personnel to resolve their conflict, with the outcome being that the two opposing goals were discarded and new goals were adopted. What is this an example of?
A) Smoothing of conflict by the leader
B) Facilitating collaboration among personnel
C) A majority rule approach
D) A good lesson in compromising
B)
120
Which is a true statement about negotiation tactics?
A) Ridicule often takes the form of ambiguous or inappropriate questioning and is a
diversionary tactic
B) Most managers successfully resist the illness/wellness tactic because of their
nursing preparation.
C) Negotiation tactics can be manipulative; thus, managers should know how to
identify and counter destructive tactics
D) The tactic of paternalism allows both parties in the negotiation to reach a
consensus of opinion
C)
121
Which statement is true concerning perceived conflict?
A) It develops during the first stage of the conflict process
B) It is sometimes referred to as antecedent conflict
C) It occurs if the conflict is intellectualized
D) It occurs when the conflict is emotionalized
C)
122
What is a critical goal in negotiation?
A) That gains for each party are different but equal
B) That the hidden agendas of all parties be exposed
C) That each party willingly reveals their negotiated limits
D) That both parties perceive that they have won something they value
D)
123
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What occurs when there is very little conflict in an organization?
A) Stasis
B) Increased productivity
C) Decreased effectiveness
D) Employee immobilization
```
A)
124
Which statement best describes a closed shop?
A) A closed shop results in a lockout that prevents employees from working until
the union contract is signed
B) A closed shop results when the employees refuse to work because of unsettled
grievances
C) A closed shop requires that all employees join the union
D) A closed shop allows employees to decide whether or not to join a union
C)
125
A nurse executive wants to decrease the chances of unionization of a nonunionized nursing service department. To accomplish this goal where should financial and energy resources best be directed?
A) Increasing the nursing salaries and benefits
B) Increasing the quality and amount of equipment
C) Improving the quality of nursing staff supervision
D) Improving nursing and medical staff relationships
C)
126
Which level of manager has the greatest influence on preventing unionization in a nonunion organization?
A) First
B) Middle
C) Top
D) CEO
B)
127
Which role is considered a manager’s responsibility related to collective bargaining and unionization?
A) Is a role model for fairness
B) Is nondiscriminatory in all personal and professional actions
C) Actively seeks a culturally and ethnically diverse workforce
D) Understands and appropriately implements union contracts
D)
128
What is the first step in quality control?
A) To take corrective action when standards have not been met
B) To collect data to determine whether standards have been met
C) To determine criteria and standards
D) To determine who will measure the standard
C)
129
An RN is a supervisor in an organization that has total quality management (TQM) as the backbone of its organizational goals and objectives for quality control. How does the RN practice TQM on the unit?
A) Encouraging employees to think of a unit slogan
B) Developing a quota system for number of patients cared for
C) Explaining to the staff that if it’s not broke, don’t fix it
D) Promoting teamwork rather than individual accomplishments
D)
130
Which task is a management function associated with quality control?
A) Periodic evaluation of unit mission and philosophy
B) Making out the daily patient care assignments
C) Creating a yearly budget
D) Distributing holiday staffing policies
A)
131
What results from effective benchmarking?
A) Two organizations become financially integrated under a capitated model
B) Organizations compete for a best practices label from the National Committee
for Quality Assurance (NCQA)
C) An organization compares its performance with that of best-performing institutions
D) Minimum practice guidelines are established for each health-care organization
C)
132
Which is a true statement regarding TQM?
A) It is based on the premise that the organization knows what is best for the
consumer
B) Its guiding purpose is to save the organization money
C) It is based on the premise that the customer is the focal element on which
production and service depend
D) It assumes that inspection and removal of errors lead to the delivery of quality
services
C
133
Which statement is true regarding criteria for assuring that a quality control program will be effective?
A) The primary purpose of the program is to satisfy various federal and state standards
B) Developed standards should reflect minimally acceptable levels so the organization will score well on self-assessment audits
C) A belief in the importance of quality control must be integrated through all levels of the organizational hierarchy
D) The process should be reactive; in other words, quality improvement efforts should be initiated after problems are identified
C)
134
What is the definition of a standard?
A) A predetermined baseline condition or level of excellence that constitutes a model
to be followed and practiced
B) Diagnosis-based, step-by-step interventions for nurses to follow in an effort to promote evidence-based, high-quality care
C) Process of measuring products, practices, and services against those of best-performing organizations
D) Identify not only what and how an event happens but why it happens, with the end goal being to ensure that a preventable negative outcome does not recur
A)
135
What do the critics of prospective payment system argue?
A) Diagnosis-related groups have not helped to contain rising health care costs
B) The system has increased the length of hospital stay
C) Services provided under this system have only slightly increased
D) On the whole quality of care has declines since its implementation
D)
136
Which intervention is associated with the nursing leadership role?
A) Inspiring staff to establish and maintain high standards regarding patient care
B) Being aware of the changes in quality control regulations
C) Reviewing research results upon which to base changes
D) Identifying outcomes that support quality nursing care
A)
137
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What type of power does a professional nursing certification provide?
A) Legitimate
B) Expert
C) Charismatic
D) Organizational
```
B)
138
Which statement represents a powerful image of a team leader?
A) I'm in charge here so all requests need to come to me
B) Is it okay with the rest of you if I do all the charting and you do the direct patient care?
C) I'm too tired to deal with Dr. Jones - when he gets here, tell him I've gone to lunch
D) We have a great deal to accomplish today, but I am confident that, by working together we can do it and do it well
D)
139
Which power-building strategy would be appropriate for a new employee? Select all that apply
A) Maintain a sense of humor
B) Gaining additional certifications
C) Learn institution's organizational culture
D) Attend a training seminar on a new piece of unit equipment
A, B, C, D
140
What determines the size of the authority-power gap between a manager and an employee?
A) Organizational philosophy
B) Degree of rigidity in the corporate chart
C) How credible the manager is perceived to be
D) How much informal power the manager possesses
C)
141
Which strategy is most effective in empowering staff?
A) Serving as a role model of an empowered nurse
B) following a rigid but consistent rule enforcement policy
C) Providing all employees with an annual cost of living raise
D) Encouraging staff to establish a strong unit culture with turf boundaries
A)
142
```
What is coercive power based on?
A) Ability to grant rewards to others
B) Power of fear and of punishment
C) Power inherent in one's position
D) Gaining of knowledge and skills
```
B)
143
```
What is the foundation of reference power?
A) Association with others
B) Ability to grant favors
C) Personality
D) Fear
```
A)
