FINAL PWEN ABSA PRACTICE Flashcards

1
Q

Connecting rods on a steam engine:

a. Convert reciprocating motion to rotary motion.
b. Are used to move the slide valve.
c. Are only needed on vertical engines.
d. Are used to connect the piston to the slide valve.
e. Connects the inlet valve to the discharge valve.

A

a. Convert reciprocating motion to rotary motion

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2
Q

A steam turbine’s exhaust can often supply a process with steam because:

a. Processes always require a lower steam pressure.
b. Processes never require the high steam temperatures turbines do.
c. Turbine exhaust steam is always dry and saturated.
d. It is free of oil.
e. The steam will be at a temperature above the initial temperature.

A

d. It is free of oil.

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3
Q

The exhaust steam from a condensing steam turbine _____ than the exhaust from a steam engine:

a. Is drier.
b. Has more vapour.
c. Is more contaminated.
d. Is hotter.
e. Has more moisture.

A

e. Has more moisture.

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4
Q

A gas turbine compressor is usually:

a. A centrifugal type.
b. Downstream of the turbine.
c. A dynamic axial design.
d. Downstream of the combustor.
e. Driven by a motor

A

c. A dynamic axial design.

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5
Q

You are replacing the cooling tower fan motor bearings because:

a. The motor was running single phase.
b. Windings in the motor were faulty.
c. A noise that sounded like a bad bearing was heard. d. The rotor was rubbing the stator.
e. The gear reducer pinion shaft was misaligned

A

d. The rotor was rubbing the stator.

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6
Q

Shaft sealing of steam turbines is done with:

  1. Mechanical seals.
  2. Water sealed glands.
  3. Carbon rings.
  4. Labyrinth seals when the temperature and pressure of the steam is high.

a. 2, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3, 4.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 1, 3, 4.
e. 3, 4.

A

b. 1, 2, 3, 4.

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7
Q

A gas turbine:

a. Expands the hot gases through the compressor.
b. Output increases when using air of maximum density. c. Operates the best on hot intake air.
d. Output increases at higher altitude.
e. Output increases when using an air preheater.

A

b. Output increases when using air of maximum density.

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8
Q

The process of vaporization of gasoline for use in an internal combustion engine is known as:

a. Combustion.
b. Convection.
c. Oxidation.
d. Carburetion.
e. Priming.

A

d. Carburetion.

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9
Q

Compression tests should be taken at regular intervals on diesel engines to check for possible development of:

a. Coolant leaks.
b. Low torque.
c. Fouled glow plugs.
d. Overheating.
e. Blow by.

A

e. Blow by.

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10
Q

Relative to a dry pipe fire system, an automatic air supply shall be connected so that proper pressure can be maintained in each system, is a statement of the:

a. National Fire Protection Association Code.
b. Industrial Accident Prevention Association.
c. Canadian Standards Association.
d. Occupational Health and Safety Association.
e. Society of Municipal Fire Marshall’s

A

a. National Fire Protection Association Code.

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11
Q

Rotary pumps:

  1. Are high-pressure pumps.
  2. Must be primed.
  3. Use mechanical seals.
  4. Are positive displacement pumps.

a. 1, 2.
b. 2, 3.
c. 1, 4.
d. 1, 3, 4.
e. 1, 2, 3, 4

A

c. 1, 4.

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12
Q

When lubricating equipment the operator should also check for:

  1. Unusual machine noises.
  2. Unusual consumption of lubricant.
  3. Excessive heat in the bearing housing.
  4. Excessive leakage of lubrication.

a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 1, 2, 4.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 1, 3, 4.
e. 1, 2, 3, 4.

A

e. 1, 2, 3, 4.

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13
Q

A semi-solid lubricant:

  1. Has a high viscosity.
  2. Can be used to seal out dirt and water from bearings. 3. Cannot be used for high temperature.
  3. Can be filtered.

a. 1, 2, 3, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 1, 2, 4.
e. 3, 4.

A

b. 1, 2, 3.

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14
Q

Wear rings:

  1. Are used on impellers.
  2. Are used on the casing.
  3. Give protection to the shaft.
  4. Reduce the maintenance costs of the pump.

a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 1, 2, 4.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 1, 3.
e. 1, 2.

A

b. 1, 2, 4.

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15
Q

The viscosity of oil:

  1. Is the temperature at which oil will burn.
  2. Determines the ability of the oil to support a load.
  3. Will prevent corrosion of bearings.
  4. Indicates the liquid’s ability to flow.

a. 2, 3, 4.
b. 1, 3.
c. 3, 4.
d. 1, 2, 4.
e. 2, 4.

A

e. 2, 4.

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16
Q

The _____ of a DC machine is built up of laminated steel plates mounted on a shaft. The coils are connected to a commutator mounted on one end of the rotor shaft.

a. Armature.
b. Yoke.
c. Bearings.
d. Coils.
e. Rheostat.

A

a. Armature.

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17
Q

A fire eye or flame scanner keeps the burner circuit energized as long as the burner flame is maintained. This is accomplished through the used of a:

a. Control valve.
b. Recorder.
c. Thermocouple.
d. Photoelectric transducer.
e. Controller

A

d. Photoelectric transducer.

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18
Q

Lubricating oil can act as a sealant when used in a/an:

a. Overspeed trip.
b. Antifriction bearing.
c. Compressor cylinder wall.
d. Rotary compressor.
e. Pump impeller.

A

c. Compressor cylinder wall.

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19
Q

If the power dissipated by a resistor is 1.2 kW when supplied with 110 volts, the amperage will be _____ amperes.

a. 91.666.
b. 1320.
c. 19.006.
d. 10.909.
e. 132

A

d. 10.909.

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20
Q

Proper priming and venting of a pump is important, especially if:

a. The medium being pumped is high temperature.
b. The medium being pumped contains suspended solids.
c. Oil or other low flash point lubricant is being pumped. d. A mechanical seal is used.
e. The pump has a stuffing box and lantern ring

A

d. A mechanical seal is used.

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21
Q

Brush gear for DC machines have brushes made from carbon because they:

  1. Are softer.
  2. Wear to a smooth finish.
  3. Are low cost.
  4. Can produce large quantities of heat.
  5. Have a low coefficient of friction.

a. 2, 3, 5.
b. 1, 3, 4.
c. 1, 2, 5.
d. 3, 4, 5.
e. 2, 4, 5.

A

c. 1, 2, 5.

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22
Q

The major difference between an AC and a DC generator is, that a DC generator has:

a. A rotor.
b. A commutator.
c. Slip rings.
d. A field.
e. A set of anti-friction bearings

A

b. A commutator.

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23
Q

There are three main types of DC generators; series, shunt, and compound wound. Each is:

a. Separately excited.
b. Capable of constant voltage regardless of load.
c. Not excited by load current.
d. Self-excited.
e. Supplied with DC from batteries.

A

d. Self-excited.

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24
Q

When inspecting a dismantled bearing, the first indication of a failing bearing is:

a. Cracked balls.
b. Roughness.
c. Discoloration.
d. Rusting or corrosion.
e. Tapered rollers

A

b. Roughness.

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25
Q

Using pressurized air to blow out a cleaned bearing:

a. Should only be done when ventilation is at the maximum.
b. Must be done only while the bearing is hot.
c. Will cause the bearing to become “pitted”.
d. Can not cause damage to or affect our skin in any way.
e. Requires high-pressure air.

A

c. Will cause the bearing to become “pitted”

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26
Q

Pumps handling cryogenic materials operate:

a. As staged units.
b. At extremely low temperatures.
c. Nearly always as dynamic units.
d. As tandem units.
e. As high speed units.

A

b. At extremely low temperatures

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27
Q

A closed electrical circuit will:

a. Not allow current to flow.
b. Contain an open switch or relay contact.
c. Be series only.
d. Be parallel only.
e. Allow current to flow.

A

e. Allow current to flow.

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28
Q

The value of the current flow in an electric circuit, where the voltage is 12 volts and the resistance is 3 ohms is:

a. 4 watts.
b. 36 amperes.
c. 0.25 amperes.
d. 4 amperes.
e. 3.6 amperes

A

d. 4 amperes.

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29
Q

In an atom the electrons:

a. Orbit around each other.
b. Are repelled by the neutrons.
c. Are attracted to the protons.
d. Are large in size when compared to the protons.
e. Orbit only the neutrons

A

c. Are attracted to the protons.

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30
Q

It is generally accurate to say that:

a. 9.8 kPa pressure results from every metre of water depth or height.
b. A water height or depth of 10.34 m results in 1 kPa.
c. Atmospheric pressure has no bearing on static water head.
d. 10.21 kPa will result from 1 m of static water head.
e. 1 kPa will result from a water head of 9.8 m.

A

a. 9.8 kPa pressure results from every metre of water depth or height

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31
Q

Compressed air machinery would most likely be used in:

a. Coal mines.
b. Residential garages.
c. Home furnace control systems.
d. Agricultural applications.
e. Tool and die shops

A

a. Coal mines.

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32
Q

Magnetic flux can be said to be:

a. Lines of force within a magnet and flowing N to S.
b. Lines of force outside a magnet and flowing N to S.
c. A zone of lines outside a magnet.
d. Lines of force flowing S to N outside a magnet.
e. Lines of force flowing in a magnet.

A

b. Lines of force outside a magnet and flowing N to S.

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33
Q

The voltmeter is placed:

a. In series with the amp meter.
b. In parallel with the circuit.
c. Across the synchroscope.
d. In series with the circuit.
e. Between the battery and the first resistance

A

b. In parallel with the circuit.

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34
Q

The electromagnetic field for a DC machine is produced by the:

a. Armature.
b. Yoke.
c. Field poles.
d. Brush gear.
e. Commutator

A

c. Field poles.

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35
Q

The authority charged with responsibility for drafting regulations to cover the use of natural gas is the:

a. American Society of Mechanical Engineers.
b. Canadian Standards Association.
c. National Fire Prevention Association.
d. Gas Conservation Board.
e. Boilers and Pressure Vessels Act.

A

d. Gas Conservation Board.

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36
Q

The connection provided on DC motors to supply the armature with power:

a. Are slip rings.
b. Are field poles.
c. Is a rheostat.
d. Is a commutator.
e. Is a rotating conductor

A

d. Is a commutator.

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37
Q

A lubricant characteristic that will indicate its ability to support a heavy load at low speed is:

a. Viscosity index.
b. Pour point.
c. Viscosity.
d. Density.
e. Relative density.

A

c. Viscosity.

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38
Q

Relative to lubrication, one place where wear is beneficial is:

a. New babbit bearing surfaces which wear smooth.
b. On pump wear rings.
c. On the oil pump sealing surfaces.
d. On the cylinder walls of internal combustion engines. e. In anti-friction bearings.

A

a. New babbit bearing surfaces which wear smooth.

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39
Q

When AC action causes a counter current in a coil, it is termed:

a. Self inductance.
b. Capacitance.
c. Hysteresis.
d. Current generation.
e. Electromagnetic induction.

A

a. Self inductance.

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40
Q

Transformers should be inspected at least:

a. Quarterly.
b. Bi-annually.
c. Semi-annually.
d. Annually.
e. Tri-annually.

A

d. Annually.

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41
Q

Before working on any electrical equipment would be to:

a. Connect a grounding strap.
b. Make sure the supply is energized.
c. Tell someone.
d. Have the switches closed.
e. Be sure the supply is disconnected.

A

a. Connect a grounding strap.

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42
Q

_____ are required to prevent oil from spreading beyond the confines of a heater in the event of a ruptured tube.

a. Moats.
b. Dikes.
c. Tunnels.
d. Rails.
e. By-pass pipes

A

b. Dikes.

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43
Q

A process variable which is adjusted in order to maintain or achieve some desired value of another variable is termed the:

a. Process variable.
b. Final variable.
c. Manipulated variable.
d. Controlled variable.
e. Transmitting variable.

A

c. Manipulated variable

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44
Q

The electrical output from a thermocouple is measured by a:

a. Milliamp meter.
b. Watt meter.
c. Milliwatt meter.
d. Millivolt meter.
e. Power meter.

A

d. Millivolt meter.

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45
Q

When a diaphragm device is used for boiler water level measurement, the boiler pressure is compensated for or off-set by:

a. Using a bellows on the HP side.
b. A spring which balances the differential pressure.
c. Applying the pressure to both sides of the diaphragm. d. Joining the reference and variable legs upstream of the device.
e. Reversing the reference and variable legs.

A

c. Applying the pressure to both sides of the diaphragm.

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46
Q

Modulating pressure controller output:

a. Will shut down and start up the burner.
b. Will control the fuel and air flow to the furnace.
c. Will control the temperature of the furnace.
d. Can be used on small boilers only.
e. Will control the pressure of the boiler.

A

b. Will control the fuel and air flow to the furnace.

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47
Q

A flapper-nozzle assembly is basic to all:

a. Controllers.
b. Transmitters.
c. Recorders.
d. Pneumatic devices.
e. Actuators.

A

d. Pneumatic devices.

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48
Q

Modulating combustion controls:

a. Regulate the steam and feed water supply.
b. Regulate the fuel and air supplies.
c. Control the oil atomizer.
d. Control the back draft damper.
e. Control the draft and feed water temperature

A

b. Regulate the fuel and air supplies.

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49
Q

A thermo hydraulic feed water regulator uses _____ as mediums.

a. Oil and nitrogen.
b. CO2 and water.
c. Water and steam.
d. Mercury and zinc.
e. Air and water.

A

c. Water and steam.

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50
Q

The coefficient of expansion of mercury is nearly linear for temperatures between:

a. -35 and 400°C.
b. -39 and 450°C.
c. -45 and 485°C.
d. -30 and 425°C.
e. 75 and 450°C

A

b. -39 and 450°C.

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51
Q

Overheating of boiler heating surfaces due to low water:

a. Is the main cause of boiler failures.
b. Will cause a furnace explosion.
c. Can be eliminated with a low water fuel cut off.
d. Cannot occur if the boiler is a hot water unit.
e. Can be prevented with proper water treatment.

A

a. Is the main cause of boiler failures.

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52
Q

To check the pilot flame system on an automatically fired boiler:

a. Close fuel valves while boiler is operating.
b. Close fuel valves prior to start up.
c. Remove and cover scanner during operation.
d. Simulate a low water condition.
e. Observe pilot during purge period

A

b. Close fuel valves prior to start up.

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53
Q

With automatic fuel fired boiler programmed control the normal firing period begins approximately:

a. 44 seconds after FD fan starts.
b. 75 seconds after FD fan starts.
c. 60 seconds after FD fan starts.
d. 10 seconds after pilot extinguishes.
e. 47 seconds after pre-purge.

A

c. 60 seconds after FD fan starts.

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54
Q
  1. The main function of a mainframe computer system is to:
    a. Evaluate systems by comparison.
    b. Rapidly process large amounts of data.
    c. Perform only a specific dedicated task.
    d. Produce hypothetical solutions to problems.
    e. Act as a networking switch.
A

b. Rapidly process large amounts of data.

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55
Q

The application of computers in power plants includes:

  1. Storage of operating information for graphic display. 2. Safe start up and shutdown of turbine and generators.
  2. Control of fuel, air and feed water.
  3. Supervision of plant operators.
  4. Inventory control of parts and supplies.
  5. Issuance of certificate of competency.

a. 1, 2, 3, 4.
b. 1, 2, 3, 6.
c. 2, 3, 4, 5.
d. 3, 4, 5, 6.
e. 1, 2, 3, 5.

A

e. 1, 2, 3, 5.

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56
Q

One of the reasons that industrial type watertube boilers are seldom selected for low pressure heating plants.

a. High fuel consumption.
b. Low overall efficiency.
c. Poor water circulation.
d. High cost.
e. Poor steam production.

A

d. High cost.

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57
Q

The steam and water spaces of a cast iron sectional boiler are held together by:

a. Cast iron pipes.
b. Push nipples.
c. Steel studs.
d. Tie rods.
e. Push studs.

A

d. Tie rods.

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58
Q

The chief advantage of a packaged boiler is that it can be:

a. Operated without supervision.
b. Operated without any water treatment.
c. Mass produced.
d. Operated without any pumps.
e. Assembled on location at the plant site

A

c. Mass produced.

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59
Q

Gas burners for heating boilers can be divided into two general classes:

a. Pre and post turbulence burners.
b. Before and after burners.
c. Pre and post purge burners.
d. Pre and after mix burners.
e. Pre and post combustion burners.

A

d. Pre and after mix burners.

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60
Q

The two basic varieties of mechanical atomizing oil burners are the:

  1. Variable capacity burner.
  2. Constant capacity burner.
  3. Modulating burner.
  4. Stationary burner.

a. 1, 3.
b. 2, 3.
c. 3, 4.
d. 1, 5.
e. 4, 5.

A

b. 2, 3.

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61
Q

Oil burners can be divided into three classes:

  1. Air and steam atomizing burners.
  2. Mechanical or pressure atomizing burners.
  3. Centrifugal or rotary cup burners.
  4. Atmospheric pressure burners.
  5. Gravitational pressure burners.

a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 1, 2, 4.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 3, 4, 5.
e. 2, 3, 5.

A

a. 1, 2, 3.

62
Q

The pilot burner for gas fired heating equipment can be:

  1. Manual.
  2. Continuous.
  3. Intermittent.
  4. Interrupted.
  5. Automatic.

a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 2, 3, 5.
c. 2, 3, 4.
d. 3, 4, 5.
e. 1, 2, 5.

A

c. 2, 3, 4.

63
Q

The lowest visible part of the water gauge glass shall be at least _____ mm above the lowest permissible water level recommended by the manufacturer.

a. 25.
b. 50.
c. 75.
d. 100.
e. 125

A

a. 25.

64
Q

All boiler fittings not properly or clearly identified should
be:

a. Rejected.
b. Used for low-pressure services only.
c. Used for low temperature services only.
d. Used for supplying low-pressure water to softeners. e. Accepted for a lower pressure or temperature rating

A

a. Rejected.

65
Q

The purpose of the test connection on a boiler pressure gauge is to:

a. Unplug the siphon tube.
b. Test a sample of steam for purity.
c. Install boiler inspector’s pressure gauge.
d. Install live steam to the gauge.
e. Vent air from the pressure gauge.

A

c. Install boiler inspector’s pressure gauge.

66
Q

The prime importance of boiler fittings is:

a. Economics.
b. Efficiency.
c. Safety.
d. Convenience.
e. Ease of operations.

A

c. Safety.

67
Q

A disadvantage of a gauge glass safety shutoff valve is:

a. The glass cannot be blown down.
b. It requires more maintenance.
c. It cannot withstand high pressure.
d. Loss of water is not prevented.
e. It makes gauge glass replacement more difficult

A

b. It requires more maintenance.

68
Q

A pressure or altitude gage for a hot water boiler:

a. Must be equipped with a siphon.
b. Shall have a dial scale at least three times the maximum allowable working pressure.
c. Does not require a siphon.
d. Must have a temperature dial.
e. Must be of 51 mm pipe size

A

c. Does not require a siphon.

69
Q

A hot water boiler pressure relief valve:

a. Shall be installed on the boiler.
b. Can be installed anywhere in the system but preferably close to the expansion tank.
c. Must be at least 51 mm pipe size.
d. Does not require annual checking or testing.
e. Can be installed with an isolation valve.

A

d. Does not require annual checking or testing.

70
Q

The most important rule in safe operation of boilers is to:

a. Watch the steam pressure.
b. Not overheat the boiler.
c. Ensure an adequate air supply.
d. Ensure a fuel supply.
e. Keep the correct water level.

A

e. Keep the correct water level.

71
Q

It is very important that boilers should be:

a. Warmed up quickly to prevent condensation.
b. Warmed up quickly to prevent scale build-up.
c. Warmed up at a rate of one degree every five minutes.
d. Warmed up slowly to prevent thermal shock.
e. Lit only when cool.

A

d. Warmed up slowly to prevent thermal shock.

72
Q

A frequent means of heating large facilities such as factories, warehouse and garages, is to use a:

a. Fin fan.
b. Unit heater.
c. Convector.
d. Radiator.
e. Space heater.

A

b. Unit heater.

73
Q

A radiator valve is used to control the amount of:

a. Air leaving the radiator.
b. Condensate leaving the radiator.
c. Steam leaving the radiator.
d. Air entering the radiator.
e. Steam entering the radiator.

A

e. Steam entering the radiator.

74
Q

In radiant heating system, changes are:

a. Difficult to make.
b. Easy to make.
c. As easy to make as in any other heating system.
d. Dependent on availability of materials.
e. Dependent on location.

A

a. Difficult to make.

75
Q

In all systems, the horizontal steam supply pipes between boiler and heating units are called the:

a. Mains.
b. Risers.
c. Banks.
d. Racks.
e. Downcomers

A

a. Mains.

76
Q

In a hot water system compared to a steam heating system, if there is a leak, damage will:

a. Be greater in the steam system.
b. Be greater in the hot water system.
c. Be about the same in either system.
d. Depend on where the boiler is located in the system. e. Be minimal due to the automatic drain system

A

b. Be greater in the hot water system.

77
Q

The piping and heating units of a steam heating system must be so arranged that the:

a. Condensate can be circulated back to the heating units.
b. Steam can flow freely from the heating units and returned to the boiler.
c. Air can be expelled from the heating units and piping. d. Air can be kept on top of the heating units.
e. Condensate can flow freely to the heating units

A

c. Air can be expelled from the heating units and piping.

78
Q

In multi-story buildings, where there would be excessive head on a hot water boiler placed in the basement. To overcome this:

a. Additional hot water boilers are used.
b. Combination of steam and hot water boilers are used. c. Larger hot water boilers are used.
d. Condensate pumps are used.
e. Steam to hot water converters are used.

A

e. Steam to hot water converters are used.

79
Q

When comparing antifreeze to water which of the following are true:

  1. It is heavier than water.
  2. It carries more heat than water.
  3. It will expand more than water when heated.
  4. Higher cost than water.

a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 2, 3, 4.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. 1, 2, 4.
e. 1, 2, 3, 4.

A

c. 1, 3, 4.

80
Q

Special diverter fittings are required in the one-pipe hot water systems to:

a. Divert air from each convector.
b. Ensure condensate flow to the boiler.
c. Divert water from the condensate tank to the boiler.
d. Ensure an adequate flow of water through each convector.
e. Divert airflow from the boiler to the expansion tank.

A

d. Ensure an adequate flow of water through each convector.

81
Q

In the _____ warm air heating systems, the furnace is a self enclosed appliance that circulates air by a blower through a heat exchanger where it receives heat produced by the combustion of oil and gas. However, the circulating air is not in direct contact with the product of combustion.

a. Indirectly-fired.
b. Directly-fired.
c. Electric resistance coil.
d. High voltage coil.
e. Fin-coil heat exchanger.

A

b. Directly-fired.

82
Q

Single serpentine water coil circuiting are used:

a. Where the water velocity in the tubes is less than 0.3 m/s.
b. Where the water velocity in the tubes is more than 2.4 m/s.
c. For any water velocity in the tubes.
d. Where the water velocity in the tubes is between 0.3 and 2.4 m/s.
e. In applications requiring high water velocities and low water pressure drops

A

d. Where the water velocity in the tubes is between 0.3 and 2.4 m/s.

83
Q

Which of the following are the most common type of fuels used in the furnace for the warm air heating systems?

  1. Coal.
  2. Gas.
  3. Oil.
  4. Hog fuel.

a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 2, 4.
d. 2, 3.
e. 1, 4

A

d. 2, 3.

84
Q

Which of the following are the contaminants suspended in the air?

  1. Dust.
  2. Smoke.
  3. Fumes.
  4. Insects.
  5. Moisture.

a. 1, 2, 5.
b. 1, 3, 5.
c. 2, 3, 5.
d. 3, 4, 5.
e. 1, 2, 3, 4

A

e. 1, 2, 3, 4

85
Q

Proper ventilation in a building is required to:

a. Give proper lighting.
b. Prevent air circulation.
c. Increase the humidity.
d. Reduce air flow.
e. Prevent condensation on walls.

A

e. Prevent condensation on walls.

86
Q

A modulating control steam heating boiler:

a. Is always fully automatic.
b. Will have a wide operating pressure range.
c. Has very efficient operation.
d. Will have a constant combustion air, flow rate.
e. Cannot operate in a multi-boiler system.

A

c. Has very efficient operation.

87
Q

Infrared heaters send out _____ energy in the form of invisible infrared waves that travel in straight lines through the air.

a. Convection.
b. Conduction.
c. Radiant.
d. Geothermal.
e. Electrical.

A

c. Radiant.

88
Q

When designing a lighting system which of the following should be considered:

a. Initial cost.
b. Operating cost.
c. Maintenance cost.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

89
Q

Heating plants with multiple boilers often have:

a. Independent boiler feedwater controls from a header. b. Individual feedwater systems.
c. Feedwater pressure regulating valves for each boiler. d. Separate condensate receivers.
e. A common feedwater control valve

A

a. Independent boiler feedwater controls from a header.

90
Q

An ON-OFF steam boiler:

a. Will maintain a fairly constant steam pressure.
b. Operates most efficiently at continuous firing.
c. Will cycle on and off based on temperature.
d. Must have a low capacity.
e. Cannot operate in a multi-boiler system.

A

b. Operates most efficiently at continuous firing.

91
Q

A centrifugal blower driven by a/an _____ is the most common method used to draw fresh and/or return air via the filter and to force it through the heat exchange passageways and supply ducts in a typical warm air heating system.

a. Electric motor.
b. Internal combustion engine.
c. Steam turbine.
d. Gas turbine.
e. Steam engine.

A

a. Electric motor.

92
Q

The back flow prevention method which consists of two independently acting check valves with an automatic operating pressure differential relief valve located between the two check valves is called:

a. Air gap back flow prevention.
b. Double check valve.
c. Reduced pressure principle device.
d. Atmosphere vacuum breaker.
e. PVB

A

c. Reduced pressure principle device.

93
Q

Drain traps serve which of the following purposes:

  1. To seal the outlet fixture.
  2. To prevent back flow of sewer gas.
  3. To deflect grease and oil for separate disposal.

a. 2.
b. 1.
c. 1, 3.
d. 1, 2.
e. 1, 2, 3

A

d. 1, 2.

94
Q

A device used to position dampers and control valves is, termed:

a. A controller.
b. A relay.
c. A transformer.
d. An actuator.
e. A temperature controller.

A

d. An actuator.

95
Q

An electronic control system is comprised of a:

a. Meter, sensor, and valve.
b. Sensor, controller, and final control element.
c. Sensor, transmitter, and thermostat.
d. Controller, thermostat, and sensor.
e. Thermostat, electronic controls, and furnace.

A

b. Sensor, controller, and final control element.

96
Q

An example of a final control device for a heating system is a:

a. Slide-gate.
b. Pump.
c. Fan.
d. Set of louvers.
e. All of the above.

A

e. All of the above.

97
Q

A flame failure device:

a. Must be installed on every high-pressure boiler.
b. Will shut off the steam leaving the boiler.
c. Will control the pressure of the boiler.
d. Will shut off the fuel to the burner.
e. Will shut down the flame in the boiler.

A

d. Will shut off the fuel to the burner.

98
Q

One of the advantages of gas-fired infrared heating over other types of heating systems is:

a. It can heat a large area entirely.
b. No fuel handling equipment.
c. No ventilation is required.
d. It can provide efficient spot heating.
e. It can be used efficiently as the main heating source for a household.

A

d. It can provide efficient spot heating.

99
Q

The function of the condenser is to:

a. Vaporise the liquid refrigerant.
b. Change high, pressure refrigerant vapour to liquid.
c. Pressurise low, pressure refrigerant vapour.
d. Vent off vaporised refrigerant.
e. Lower the liquid refrigerant pressure.

A

b. Change high, pressure refrigerant vapour to liquid.

100
Q

In rotating mechanical seals the sealing ring is held in position by:

a. A nut bolt and washer.
b. Centrifugal force.
c. Oil suction.
d. High pressure refrigerant vapour.
e. A spring.

A

e. A spring.

101
Q

The refrigerating effect of a refrigerant is:

a. Equal to its latent heat of vaporization.
b. Greater than its latent heat of vaporization.
c. Less than its latent heat of vaporization.
d. Equal to its specific heat capacity.
e. Equal to its specific volume.

A

a. Equal to its latent heat of vaporization.

102
Q

Which of the following are principal parts in a closed cycle compression refrigeration system?

  1. Absorber.
  2. Evaporator.
  3. Compressor.
  4. Condenser.

a. 1, 2. b. 3. c. 1, 2, 4. d. 2, 3, 4. e. 1, 2, 3.

A

d. 2, 3, 4

103
Q

Which of the following characteristics is common in all of the group B refrigerants?

a. High toxicity.
b. High flammability.
c. Average Flammability.
d. Low Toxicity.
e. Low flammability.

A

a. High toxicity.

104
Q

Ammonia leaks may be traced with a wetted test paper treated with:

a. Caustic soda.
b. Potassium chromate indicating liquid.
c. Potassium iodide-iodate.
d. Litmus solution.
e. Sulphuric acid

A

d. Litmus solution.

105
Q

The convection tubes of a typical up-draft model fired heater are located in the:

a. Stack.
b. Burner windbox.
c. Breaching.
d. Superheater.
e. Water walls

A

c. Breaching.

106
Q

Starting, stopping or unloading of the compressor is usually done by all of the following operating controls except:

a. Temperature actuated control.
b. A viscosity activated control.
c. A pressure activated control.
d. A humidity activated control.
e. All of the above can control the starting, stopping or unloading of the compressor.

A

b. A viscosity activated control.

107
Q

A simple trap located in the suction line before the compressor that collects liquid, where it evaporates and returns to the compressor as a gas, is called:

a. An oil separator.
b. A strainer-drier.
c. A distributor.
d. An accumulator.
e. A stop valve.

A

d. An accumulator.

108
Q

The amount of water used in an evaporative condenser is only a small percentage of that used in a water condenser of the same capacity. This is due primarily to what?

a. Evaporating condensers also use air to cool the refrigerant.
b. The evaporating condensers spray refrigerated water onto condensing coil.
c. Water evaporating requires a large amount of latent heat.
d. Water being recirculated.
e. None of the above

A

c. Water evaporating requires a large amount of latent heat.

109
Q

Sectional evaporators control the capacity of the evaporator by which of the following means?

a. By varying the quantity of air being cooled passing over the evaporator coils.
b. By intermittent operation of the compressor.
c. By divided multi-part evaporators that have refrigerant control valves that can be shut off independently as the load decreases.
d. By switching gear in the compressor.
e. By decreasing suction in the compressor.

A

c. By divided multi-part evaporators that have refrigerant control valves that can be shut off independently as the load decreases.

110
Q

Which of the following is not a step in the seasonal pre-start service?

a. Clean all cooling and chilled water strainers.
b. Add water treatment chemicals.
c. Turn on energy sources.
d. Check the purge pump.
e. Check the magnetic strainers.

A

c. Turn on energy sources.

111
Q

In an Ammonia Absorption System what is used as the absorbent?

a. Ammonia.
b. Air.
c. Lithium Bromide.
d. Water.
e. Freon

A

d. Water.

112
Q

A system of regularly scheduled inspections and lubrications along with the adjustments, minor parts replacement and minor repairs necessary to keep the refrigerating plant and equipment in good operating condition is defined as what:

a. Preventative maintenance.
b. Safety controls.
c. Routing operation.
d. Regular maintenance.
e. None of the above.

A

a. Preventative maintenance.

113
Q

Air is approximately what composition by volume:

a. 79% N2 and 21% CO2.
b. 79% O2 and 21% N2.
c. 79% N2 and 21% O2.
d. 79% CO2 and 21% O2.
e. 79% H2 and 21% Water vapour

A

c. 79% N2 and 21% O2.

114
Q

To find various properties of air _____ chart is used.

a. A Psychrometric.
b. A Ringleman.
c. A Mollier.
d. A Dew point.
e. An Enthalpy.

A

a. A Psychrometric.

115
Q

An increase in air, flow increases heat loss of the body by which of the following methods:

  1. Convection.
  2. Conduction.
  3. Evaporation.
  4. Radiation.

a. 1, 4. b. 2. c. 1, 3, 4. d. 1, 3. e. 1, 2, 3.

A

e. 1, 2, 3.

116
Q

Using the psychrometric chart find the specific volume if the dry bulb temperature is 20°C and the wet bulb temperature is 15°C.

a. 0.859 m3/kg.
b. 0.842 m3/kg.
c. 0.90 m3/kg.
d. 0.80 m3/kg.
e. 0.87 m3/kg.

A

b. 0.842 m3/kg.

117
Q

The intersection between the line running vertically from the point on the dry bulb scale and the downward diagonally running line from the wet bulb scale is defined as the:

a. Dew point temperature.
b. Partial pressure.
c. Reference point.
d. Specific volume.
e. Relative humidity

A

c. Reference point.

118
Q

The heat content of air is called the _____ of the air.

a. Temperature.
b. Humidity.
c. Enthalpy.
d. Psychrometry.
e. Entropy

A

c. Enthalpy.

119
Q

The propeller axial flow fan:

a. Is the least economical fan used to produce high capacity low, pressure air movement.
b. Is used in ducted air distribution systems.
c. Is used in commercial air conditioning ducting.
d. Requires the least power at minimum air delivery.
e. Finds application in unit heaters, air-cooled condensers, and as an exhaust fan for ventilation purposes

A

e. Finds application in unit heaters, air-cooled condensers, and as an exhaust fan for ventilation purposes

120
Q

Which of the following statements about fan performance curves is false:

a. They are plotted from theoretical calculations.
b. The curve is a plot of static pressure against air volume delivery.
c. The curve is a plot of horse, power against air volume delivery.
d. The curve is a plot of static efficiency against air volume delivery.
e. The curve range is from shutoff to free delivery.

A

a. They are plotted from theoretical calculations.

121
Q

A ventilation system leading from a fume hood in a chemistry lab would have which duct material used for its ductwork?

a. Galvanised steel sheet metal.
b. Aluminium sheet metal.
c. Cement asbestos.
d. Black steel sheet metal.
e. Fiberglas

A

c. Cement asbestos.

122
Q

Conduction heat gains are calculated on the assumption that:

a. Solar heat varies from hour to hour as sun changes position.
b. Solar heat gains are not included.
c. Construction details are unimportant.
d. The “U” value is not used.
e. Solar heat gains are included

A

b. Solar heat gains are not included.

123
Q

To ensure effective heat transfer which of the following is the most vital element?

a. The fin must be crimped.
b. Highly conductive material used in fins.
c. A good bond must exist between the tube and fin.
d. High fin spacing.
e. Low fin spacing

A

c. A good bond must exist between the tube and fin.

124
Q

Steam Coils must be designed to:

  1. Constantly eliminate air.
  2. Constantly eliminate condensate.
  3. Constantly eliminate non-condensable gases.
  4. Constantly maintain face velocity.
  5. Constantly eliminate air venting.
    In order to provide uniform steam distribution to the individual tubes, which of the above design parameters is/are true?

a. 2, 3, 5. b. 3. c. 2, 4. d. 1, 3, 4, 5. e. 1, 2, 3.

A

e. 1, 2, 3.

125
Q

To prevent freezing of downstream equipment in a coil handling a large amount of out door air, which of the following is required?

a. A long coil length.
b. A vacuum breaker.
c. A preheat coil.
d. An oversized coil.
e. Two-Position damper motor.

A

c. A preheat coil.

126
Q

Which of the following is not a result of very low humidity?

a. Throat and nose membranes drying up.
b. Static electricity build-up.
c. Evaporation of moisture on the skin decreases.
d. At sufficiently high room temperatures people still feel cool.
e. Wood furniture and floor squeaks and cracks

A

c. Evaporation of moisture on the skin decreases.

127
Q

The use of ethylene glycol solution will result in which of the following:

  1. Lower heat transfer rate.
  2. Better protection against freezing.
  3. Increased friction losses in the coil and piping.
  4. The requirement of a larger pump with more horsepower.

a. 1, 4. b. 1, 3. c. 2, 4. d. 3. e. 1, 2, 3, 4.

A

e. 1, 2, 3, 4.

128
Q

The outside temperature at -25°C is saturated (air at -25°C holds a maximum of 0.0005 kg of moisture/kg of water). This air is drawn into the building and heated to 21°C (air at 21°C holds a maximum of 0.015 kg of moisture/kg of water). What is the relative humidity of the air inside?

a. 3.3%.
b. 0.015%.
c. 0.5%.
d. 10.6%.
e. 4.5%.

A

a. 3.3%.

129
Q

In order to check the trueness of a flat surface, one would use a:

a. Vernier calliper.
b. Hermaphrodite divider.
c. Surface plate.
d. Layout bench.
e. Machinist’s square

A

c. Surface plate.

130
Q

In a constant air volume system with perimeter heating which of the following elements are found in the air handling unit?

  1. Heating coils.
  2. Cooling coils.
  3. An air mixing section.
  4. Filters.
  5. A humidifier.
  6. A dehumidifier.

a. 1, 2, 3, 4. b. 1, 2, 5, 6. c. 2, 3, 4, 5. d. 1, 3, 5. e. 3.

A

c. 2, 3, 4, 5.

131
Q

When is the capacity of a heat pipe at a maximum?

a. When the evaporator is lowered below the horizontal.
b. When the evaporator is raised above the horizontal. c. When the system is placed vertically with the evaporator on top.
d. When the system is placed vertically with the condenser on top.
e. When the system is level.

A

a. When the evaporator is lowered below the horizontal.

132
Q

Air conditioning with respect to heating coils is achieved in which of the following ways?

a. A combination of tempering control functions.
b. The selected mixing of warm return air and cooler outside air.
c. Selective heating by passing air through the heating coils.
d. Proportioning the amount of air, flow through the face damper for heat addition, or through the bypass dampers for no heat addition.
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

133
Q

When all supply air duct is outside the conditioned space there is a certain leakage. This leakage must be calculated how?

a. It must be added to the calculated room sensible heat load.
b. It need not be considered in loss calculation.
c. It must be subtracted from the return air duct leakage.
d. It must be added to the return air duct leakage.
e. It must be added to the calculated room specific latent humidity load.

A

a. It must be added to the calculated room sensible heat load.

134
Q

A boiler inspection:

a. Must be done after every shut down of the boiler.
b. Must be done when the boiler inspector requests it. c. Must be done before the boiler is ready for start up. d. Is done with the owners permission only.
e. Must be done every two years.

A

b. Must be done when the boiler inspector requests it.

135
Q

The category of air conditioning that is responsible for getting outside air into the building to replenish the oxygen supply for the occupants is:

a. Heating.
b. Cooling.
c. Ventilation.
d. Humidification.
e. Air circulation.

A

c. Ventilation.

136
Q

Platforms should have a _____ edge going around them to prevent objects from rolling off.

a. Square.
b. Wire.
c. Metal.
d. Raised.
e. Magnetic.

A

d. Raised.

137
Q

For lifting the most common method of getting a reasonable idea of an objects _____ is by estimating it.

a. Size.
b. Shape.
c. Density.
d. Mass.
e. Specific gravity

A

d. Mass.

138
Q

What factor of safety should be used, to determine the safe load for a new fibre rope?

a. 10.
b. 5.
c. 7.
d. 4.
e. 3

A

b. 5.

139
Q

Which kinds of systems do not require licensed operators?

a. Hot oil systems.
b. High pressure steam systems.
c. Low pressure steam heating plants.
d. Low pressure hot water heating plants.
e. High temperature hot water systems

A

a. Hot oil systems.

140
Q

A steam heating boiler that is to be shut down for six months during the summer, should be:

a. Drained, thoroughly dried out, quick lime placed inside and left open.
b. Drained, thoroughly dried out, quick lime placed inside and closed up.
c. Left with the water at normal working level but opened up to atmosphere.
d. Left with the water at normal working level and pressurised with air to 50 kPa.
e. Filled completely with water and the vent left open to atmosphere.

A

b. Drained, thoroughly dried out, quick lime placed inside and closed up

141
Q

The cooking of wood chips in a pulp mill is done with:

a. Black liquor in the digester.
b. Grey liquor in the digester.
c. Green liquor in the digester.
d. Sodium hydroxide in the digester.
e. White liquor in the digester

A

e. White liquor in the digester

142
Q

Gear lubricating oil used for enclosed gears has a:

a. Low viscosity.
b. High pour point.
c. High viscosity.
d. High fire point.
e. Low fire point

A

a. Low viscosity.

143
Q

Relative to plant maintenance, a power engineer should have easy access to:

a. All ASME codes.
b. The Chief Inspector.
c. The Workers’ Compensation Board Accident Prevention Regulations.
d. All plant maintenance records and schedules.
e. Equipment supplier

A

c. The Workers’ Compensation Board Accident Prevention Regulations.

144
Q

The basic unit of electrical power is the watt, which is the result of:

a. Volts plus amperes.
b. Volts times ohms.
c. Volts times amperes.
d. Ohms times amperes.
e. Ohms plus amperes.

A

c. Volts times amperes.

145
Q

A sulphur candle is a test for what:

a. Freon leaks.
b. Ammonia leaks.
c. Air leaks.
d. Vacuum seal.
e. CFC leaks

A

b. Ammonia leaks.

146
Q

A non-metallic part of a mechanical seal might be made from:

a. Asbestos.
b. Teflon.
c. Fibre glass.
d. Cardboard.
e. Carbon.

A

b. Teflon.

147
Q

A _____ system uses a thermal fluid in place of steam or water, to conduct heat from a central source to other vessels and heating coils in a plant.

a. Vapour.
b. Condensing.
c. Cooling.
d. Hot oil.
e. Gas turbine

A

d. Hot oil.

148
Q

Starting, stopping or unloading of the compressor is usually done by all of the following operating controls except:

a. Temperature actuated control.
b. A viscosity activated control.
c. A pressure activated control.
d. A humidity activated control.
e. All of the above can control the starting, stopping or unloading of the compressor

A

d. A humidity activated control.

149
Q

After a hot oil system has been shut down, what is the recommended circulation time for the hot oil?

a. 60 minutes.
b. 45 minutes.
c. 30 minutes.
d. 15 minutes.
e. 5 minutes.

A

c. 30 minutes.

150
Q

The flow through an oil heater is controlled:

a. Automatically.
b. Manually.
c. Proportionally.
d. Generally.
e. By pressure changes

A

a. Automatically.