Final Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Consider the principles of electrical stimulation and select the most accurate statement about electricity.

A

The electrical current will flow from the cathode to the anode.

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2
Q

What type of electrical current is identified by the fact that electron flow is interrupted by discrete periods of no electron flow?

A

Pulsed current

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3
Q

What property of electrical current identifies the maximum distance that the pulse rises above or below the isoelectric point?

A

Amplitude

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4
Q

What type of current do interferential stimulators use?

A

Alternating current

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5
Q

What parameter of interferential current identified as the distance from the peak on the positive side of the baseline to the peak on the negative side?

A

Peak-to-peak amplitude

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6
Q

When using an alternating current, how many times would a current of 100 Hz change its direction of flow in two seconds?

A

200

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7
Q

What type of current does high-voltage pulsed stimulation use?

A

Monophasic

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8
Q

Due to the lower charge per phase, which of the following waveforms tends to be the most comfortable for patients?

A

Symmetrical biphasic

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9
Q

When examining the pulse characteristics, what is the most important factor when determining what type of tissue will be stimulated?

A

Phase duration

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10
Q

What is the unit of potential difference and represents the amount of work required to move one coulomb of charge?

A

Current

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11
Q

What is used to measure a material’s resistance to the movement of electrons?

A

Ohm

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12
Q

What biological tissue is the primary resistor to therapeutic electrical flow?

A

Skin

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13
Q

What unit is used to express the relationship between voltage and amperage?

A

Wattage

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14
Q

. In a parallel circuit, the ____________ is varied, but the ____________ remains constant?

A

amperage; voltage

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15
Q

The physiological effects of electrical stimulation are related to what characteristic?

A

Current density

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16
Q

When using a monophasic current, what parameters are synonymous and refer to the same aspect of the current? Select all that apply.

A

Pulse
Waveform
Phase

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17
Q

When examining the attributes of the pulse, which of the following will lead to an increase in the total charge of the pulse? Select all that apply.

A

Increase amplitude

Increase pulse duration

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18
Q

An electrical stimulation unit uses what carrier frequencies for their heating effects? Select all that apply.

A

10,000 cycles per second
100,000 cycles per second
200,000 cycles per second

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19
Q

What two properties are collectively known as impedance? Select all that apply.

A

Inductance

Capacitance

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20
Q

Ohm’s law describes the relationship between what characteristics of electrical currents? Select all that apply.

A

Amperage
Voltage
Resistance

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21
Q

What tissue has the greatest resistance to current flow?

A

Cell membrane

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22
Q

What type of resistance does the skin present to electrical current flow?

A

Capacitive and parallel

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23
Q

What type of electrode is able to deliver the most current at the lowest skin impedance?

A

Carbon-rubber electrodes

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24
Q

Which of the following is considered a trigger point?

A

A pathological and localized area of pain that is hypersensitive to electrical current flow

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25
Q

When targeting deeper tissues, how should you place the electrodes?

A

Farther apart

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26
Q

What electrode placement technique utilizes two sets of electrodes, each with its own channel?

A

Quadripolar

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27
Q

What stimulation level has an intensity that produces a visible muscle contraction without causing pain?

A

Motor-level stimulation

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28
Q

Electrical stimulation has little to no effect on which of the following?

A

Inflammatory process

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29
Q

What best describes habituation?

A

The CNS process one experiences everyday of filtering out a continuous, nonmeaningful stimuli.

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30
Q

Due to summation, at what pulse frequency do individual muscle contractions become less distinguishable?

A

15 to 25 pps

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31
Q

What are the correct pain control parameters of an electrical stimulation treatment meant to trigger the release of enkephalins?

A

High-pulse frequency with motor-level stimulation

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32
Q

Which is an accurate statement regarding the use of motor-level stimulation to reduce swelling?

A

Motor-level stimulation has more clinical efficacy than the sensory-level stimulation.

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33
Q

What type of electrical current is primarily used for neuromuscular reeducation and strength augmentation?

A

Neuromuscular electrical stimulation

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34
Q

Which is true regarding electrically induced muscle contractions?

A

Contractions and recruitment are synchronous.

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35
Q

Which of the following represents a wound healing effect under the anode, positive pole, while using direct current or high-volt pulsed stimulation?

A

Increased pH

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36
Q

What tissues are excitable? Select all that apply.

A

Nerves
Muscle fibers
Cell membranes

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37
Q

Which of the following are accurate statements concerning the size of electrode? Select all that apply.

A

Smaller electrodes require less current to stimulate tissue.

Larger electrodes yield a more comfortable treatment when there is an adipose layer greater than 2 cm.

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38
Q

A nerve’s response to the electrical stimulation is based on what factor(s)? Select all that apply.

A

Diameter of the nerve
Depth of the nerve
Phase duration of the current

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39
Q

When attempting to achieve motor-level stimulation, what are the primary pulse characteristics that determine the quality of the muscle contraction? Select all that apply.

A

Phase duration
Intensity
Pulse frequency

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40
Q

When using electrical stimulation to address strength, which functional loads placed on the muscle have the potential to increase strength? Select all that apply.

A

30 percent of the maximum voluntary isometric contraction

40 percent of the maximum voluntary isometric contraction

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41
Q

When preparing the patient for a pain-control technique with electrical stimulation, one should ask about caffeine intake. The effectiveness of electrical stimulation on pain control is diminished after how many milligrams of caffeine have been ingested?

A

200

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42
Q

When using a monopolar technique, where is a good area to place the dispersive electrode?

A

Thigh

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43
Q

What electrotherapy agent strictly uses a monophasic current?

A

High-voltage pulsed stimulation (HVPS)

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44
Q

When applying transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS), which protocol provides relief for hours and uses two to four pulses per second?

A

Low TENS

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45
Q

What iontophoresis medication can be used on a heterotopic ossification?

A

Acetic acid

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46
Q

What output modulation of interferential stimulation is analogous to the number of cycles per second?

A

Beta frequency

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47
Q

When attempting to control pain via the gate-control mechanism, what are correct high-voltage pulsed stimulation parameter settings?

A

Pulse frequency of 60 to 100 pps

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48
Q

The primary purpose of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is to control pain by depolarizing what nerves?

A

Sensory, motor, or proprioceptive

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49
Q

What electrical current frequency will experience the least capacitive skin resistance?

A

5000 Hz

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50
Q

When applying iontophoresis with lidocaine, in concentrations up to 50 percent, what is the minimum time of application to anesthetize the skin?

A

10 min

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51
Q

What feature distinguishes microcurrent from other electrical modalities?

A

Microcurrent does not attempt to excite peripheral nerves.

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52
Q

What type of electrical interference occurs when two electrical currents are in perfect phase, meaning the wavelengths are equal and the phases cross the baseline at the same point?

A

Constructive interference

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53
Q

“Russian” stimulation is an excellent method for what purpose?

A

Decreasing muscular atrophy

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54
Q

What is a proper indication for use of neuromuscular electrical stimulation?

A

Prevention of joint contractures

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55
Q

What is an indication for the use of iontophoresis?

A

Reduction of muscle spasm

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56
Q

Most effects of electrical stimulation are the direct result of stimulation to what? Select all that apply.

A

Sensory nerves
Motor nerves
Muscle fibers

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57
Q

Which electrotherapy agents are indicated for muscle disuse atrophy? Select all that apply.

A

High-voltage pulsed stimulation (HVPS)

Neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES)

58
Q

What are indications for the use of microcurrent electrical stimulation? Select all that apply.

A

Sprain
Neuropathies
Superficial wound healing

59
Q

Why is neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) able to provide stronger neuromuscular stimulation? Select all that apply.

A

Large amplitude

Long phase duration

60
Q

Which of the following are indications for the use of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation? Select all that apply.

A

Acute pain

Postsurgical pain

61
Q

According to the practical evidence, in comparison to intermittent compression, constant compression units are primarily used for what two purposes?

A

Preventing swelling and assisting in venous return

62
Q

Which statement is true concerning the pressure gradient created by the application of external compression?

A

Spreading solid edematous matter over a larger area with external compression allows more lymphatic ducts to absorb the wastes.

63
Q

When using external compression to treat lower leg edema, pressures of _______ have been shown to increase venous flow by 175 percent.

A

35 to 55 mm Hg

64
Q

Where on the foot does external compression need to be applied to successfully reduce foot edema?

A

Plantar aspect

65
Q

Excess fluids that build up within a joint can lead to what inhibitory reflex?

A

Arthrogenic muscle inhibition

66
Q

When treating lymphedema, what is the typical treatment time of intermittent compression?

A

Several hours

67
Q

What is the normal pressure range when using intermittent compression to treat the upper extremity?

A

30 to 60 mm Hg

68
Q

Which statement is true concerning the evidence of intermittent compression?

A

Research on the optimal treatment duration and duty cycle for reducing lymphedema is inconclusive.

69
Q

When using intermittent compression to treat lymphedema, what is the common duration of treatment?

A

Several hours

70
Q

When applying intermittent compression for long periods of time, which of the following should be checked regularly?

A

Capillary refill and unexpected pitting edema

71
Q

T/F: Protein-rich matter is more responsive to intermittent compression than fluids

A

False

72
Q

T/F: Intermittent compression is substantially more effective at treating lymphedema than post-traumatic edema.

A

False

73
Q

T/F: Circumferential compression applies an equal amount of pressure to all parts of the extremity simultaneously.

A

True

74
Q

T/F: There is an increase in venous blood flow from the leg when sequential compression is applied to the foot and leg when compared to intermittent compression of the calf alone.

A

True

75
Q

T/F: The primary contraindications to intermittent compression are associated with the significant increase in flow through the venous system.

A

False

76
Q

Compression units should not be used until what pathologies have been ruled out? Select all that apply.

A

Fracture

Compartment syndrome

77
Q

When subacute or chronic conditions exist, what is an intermittent or sequential compression unit best used for? Select all that apply.

A

Reducing edema

Decreasing ecchymosis

78
Q

Through what mechanism(s) does external compression reduce pain? Select all that apply.

A

Decreasing mechanical pressure
Restoring normal joint ROM
Restoring normal joint function

79
Q

Which are contraindications to the application of intermittent compression? Select all that apply.

A

PVD
Arteriosclerosis
Thrombophlebitis

80
Q

Which are indications for the use of intermittent compression as a treatment? Select all that apply.

A

Post-traumatic edema
Postsurgical edema
Prevention of DVT

81
Q

While continuous passive motion can be used on many different joints, what joint is it predominantly used with?

A

Knee

82
Q

The design of what continuous passive motion device is similar to manually moving the patient’s limb through a range of motion?

A

Free linkage design

83
Q

What continuous passive motion design is most suitable for use with the knee?

A

Anatomic design

84
Q

Which form of continuous passive motion device allows for compensatory motion between the patient’s extremity and the carriage of the device?

A

Non-anatomic design

85
Q

Which option below best represents the philosophy regarding the effects of continuous passive motion?

A

Motion that is never lost need never be regained. It is the regaining of movement that is painful.

86
Q

Throughout a range of motion, when is joint volume normally at its greatest?

A

Full extension

87
Q

According to the practical evidence, knee flexion and knee extension motion is increased only _________ when continuous passive motion is used following knee arthroplasty?

A

2 to 3 degrees

88
Q

Which of the following is not a benefit realized through the use of continuous passive motion?

A

Increased strength

89
Q

The application of continuous passive motion is thought to stimulate the circulation of synovial fluid, which enhances the uptake of nutrients by what tissue in the knee?

A

Meniscal cartilage and articular cartilage

90
Q

The passive movements and elevation of the body part are components of continuous passive motion that increase which factors?

A

Venous and lymphatic return

91
Q

Continuous passive motion can possibly provide pain reduction via the gate mechanism, which occurs from the stimulation of afferent nerves located in what tissues?

A

Skin, joint, and muscle

92
Q

After surgery, continuous passive motion is typically used for _______ hours a day.

A

6 to 8

93
Q

T/F: The decision to use continuous passive motion should be based on the specific pathology to be treated.

A

False

94
Q

T/F: Continuous passive motion is more effective than static stretching when increasing range of motion due to soft tissue restriction.

A

True

95
Q

T/F: When compared to faster speeds, slower speeds of continuous passive motion are theorized to produce better tensile properties of healing tendons.

A

False

96
Q

Robert Salter originally proposed the use of continuous passive motion and hypothesized that its application would be beneficial in which ways? Select all that apply.

A

Enhancing the nutrition and metabolic activity of articular cartilage

Stimulating tissue remodeling and regrowth of articular cartilage

Accelerating the healing of articular cartilage, tendons, and ligaments

97
Q

Which of the following is reduced during the realignment of collagen that occurs with the use of continuous passive motion? Select all that apply.

A

Functional shortening of collagen
Cross-linking of collagen
Capsular adhesions

98
Q

The pumping action created by continuous passive motion circulates synovial fluid and assists in the removal of what? Select all that apply.

A

Joint hemarthrosis
Periarticular edema
Blood from tissue surrounding the joint

99
Q

Which are considered contraindications to the use of continual passive motion? Select all that apply.

A

Unstable fracture

Uncontrolled infection

100
Q

Which of the following are indications to treat with continuous passive motion? Select all that apply.

A

After joint arthroplasty
Joint contracture
Thrombophlebitis
After meniscectomy

101
Q

Which modality is considered one of the oldest healing techniques?

A

Massage

102
Q

Due to the possibility of misuse, many states require what type of regulation for massage therapists?

A

Licensure

103
Q

Which form of massage is described as a stroking of the skin?

A

Effleurage

104
Q

What type of effleurage stroke encourages blood flow and stimulates the tissues?

A

Rapid strokes

105
Q

What type of massage uses the thumbs or fingertips to stroke the tissue from opposite directions while targeting the underlying tissue structure to treat trigger points, tendinitis, or postsurgical scars?

A

Transverse friction massage

106
Q

When performing ischemic compression, the amount of pressure applied should be determined by the patient’s tolerance. On a scale of 1 to 10, what level should not be exceeded?

A

7 or 8

107
Q

“Sports massage” is a broad term that is used to describe the combination of what massage techniques?

A

Effleurage, petrissage, and friction massage

108
Q

What describes the proper procedure when performing the active assistive technique of “sports massage”?

A

Distal to proximal and perpendicular to the muscle fibers

109
Q

Which of the following accurately describes a general form of myofascial release application?

A

Stabilize the superior with one hand while stretching with the other.

110
Q

What is the most fundamental form of myofascial release?

A

J-stroke

111
Q

Which is an accurate statement regarding self-myofascial release?

A

The athlete should roll perpendicular to the muscle fiber direction.

112
Q

The active release technique of myofascial release can be very painful and should be limited to ____ glides per treatment, with a minimum of ______ hours between treatments.

A

3; 48

113
Q

Which basic massage stroke is typically applied to increase blood flow and provide systemic invigoration of tissues?

A

Neuromuscular stroke

114
Q

Which of the following is an indication for the use of friction massage and not petrissage?

A

Realignment of scar tissue

115
Q

Which of the following is an indication for the use of therapeutic massage?

A

Pain-spasm cycle

116
Q

Which of the following are contraindications to the use of therapeutic massage? Select all that apply.

A

Varicose veins
Thrombophlebitis
Arteriosclerosis

117
Q

What are the different types of trigger points? Select all that apply.

A

Myofascial
Cutaneous
Fascial
Ligamentous

118
Q

Petrissage includes what actions? Select all that apply.

A

Lifting
Kneading
Rolling

119
Q

Which are goals of a deep stroking effleurage? Select all that apply.

A

Elongate muscle

Promote movement of fluid through veins and lymph vessels

120
Q

In general, massage is an effective treatment for what conditions? Select all that apply.

A

Reduce muscle spasm
Promote relaxation
Improve blood flow
Increase venous drainage

121
Q

According the Food and Drug Administration’s Center for Devices and Radiological Health Laser Classification System, what class of laser has an output that does not exceed 1 mW and may produce visible light?

A

Class 1

122
Q

Which type of therapeutic laser produces a wavelength of 488 nm and a blue light band?

A

Argon

123
Q

Which of the following is considered a primary effect of therapeutic laser treatment?

A

Vasodilation of microvessels

124
Q

Lasers produce highly refined, _____________ light in the ultraviolet, visible, or infrared range.

A

Monochromatic

125
Q

What laser wavelength is associated with infrared light?

A

Greater than 780 nm

126
Q

In the United States, which of the following laser wavelengths is in the range considered to be therapeutic?

A

1000 nm

127
Q

Which laser feature identifies the fact that the beam of the laser does not tend to diverge as it travels through space?

A

Collimated

128
Q

According to the practical evidence, which type of laser is considered to be the most effective for stimulating tissue healing?

A

Helium-neon

129
Q

Which statement is true concerning a gallium arsenide (GaAs) laser?

A

GaAs is produced by a semiconductor diode chip

130
Q

In general, acute conditions are commonly treated with what laser output?

A

Less than 0.5 J/cm2

131
Q

Current evidence suggests that the biophysical benefits of laser are related to what?

A

Photomechanical or photochemical effects

132
Q

T/F: In general, low-pulse frequencies are used to promote tissue healing when applying laser therapy.

A

True

133
Q

T/F: According to the practical evidence, laser with a wavelength of 670 nm has demonstrated effectiveness in the short-term relief of pain associated with lateral epicondylalgia.

A

False

134
Q

T/F: Laser is often used to assist in the healing of deep wounds, including surgical incisions and severe burns.

A

False

135
Q

T/F: Effects of laser therapy that occur from the absorption of photons are termed “indirect effects.”

A

False

136
Q

T/F: Longer laser wavelengths penetrate deeper into tissues than shorter wavelengths.

A

True

137
Q

The Food and Drug Administration has approved low-level laser therapy for treatment of what conditions? Select all that apply.

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome
Musculoskeletal shoulder pain
Musculoskeletal neck pain

138
Q

Which of the following contraindicate the use of therapeutic laser? Select all that apply.

A

Application over the thyroid

Application over DVT

139
Q

While the efficacy has not been substantiated, which of the following represent indications for the use of therapeutic laser? Select all that apply.

A

Osteoarthritis
Fibromyalgia
Fracture healing

140
Q

Laser production requires what essential components? Select all that apply.

A

Amplifying medium
Mechanism for exciting medium
Reflective mirror
Partially reflective mirror