Final Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements most
accurately describes a system having
spare receptors?
• the number of spare receptors determines the maximum effect
• spare receptors are sequestered in the cytosol
• a single drug - receptor interaction results in many cellular response elements being activated
• spare receptors are active even in the absence of an agonist
• agonist affinity for spare receptors is less than their affinity for ‘non spare’ receptors

A

-A single drug- receptor interaction results in many cellular response elements being activated

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2
Q

In the presence of picrotoxin, diazepam is less efficacious at causing sedation, regardless of the dose. Picrotoxin by itself has no sedative effect even at the highest dose. Which of the following is correct?
• picrotoxin is a competitive antagonist
•diazepam is a full agonist and picrotoxin is a partial agonist
• diazepam is less efficacious than is picrotoxin • diazepam is less potent than is picrotoxin
• picrotoxin is a non competitive antagonist

A

-Picrotoxin is a non competitive anatoginst

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3
Q

In the presence of pentazocine, a higher concentration of morphine is required to elicit full pain relief. Pentazocine by itself has a smaller analgesic side effect than does morphine, even at the highest dose. Which of the following is correct regarding these medications?
• pentazocine is a competitive antagonist
• morphine is a full agonist and pentazocine is a partial agonist
• morphine is less efficacious than is pentazocine
• morphine is less potent than is pentazocine
• pentazocine is a non competitive antagonist

A

-Morphine is a full agonist and pentazocine is a partial agonist

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4
Q

If 10 mg of morphine produces a greater analgesic response than can be achieved by ibuprofen at any dose, which of the following statements is correct?
• morphine is less efficacious than is ibuprofen
• morphine is less potent than is ibuprofen
• morphine is a full agonist and ibuprofen is a partial agonist
• ibuprofen is a competitive antagonist
• morphine is a better drug to take for pain relief than is ibuprofen

A

-morphine is a better drug to take for pain relief than is ibuprofen

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5
Q

If 10 mg of naproxen produces the same analgesic response as 100 mg of ibuprofen, which of the following statements is correct?
• naproxen is more efficacious than is ibuprofen
• naproxen is more potent than ibuprofen
• naproxen is a full agonist and ibuprofen is a partial agonist
• naproxen is a competitive antagonist
• naproxen is a better drug to take for pain relief than is ibuprofen

A

-naproxen is more potent than ibuprofen

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6
Q

Isoproterenol produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to epinephrine. Which of the following best describes isoproterenol?
• full agonist
• partial agonist
• competitive antagonist • irreversible antagonist • inverse agonist

A

-FULL AGONIST

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7
Q

A drug with a half-life of 10 hours is administered by continuous intravenous infusion. Which of the following best approximates the time for the drug to reach steady state?
• 10 hours • 20 hours • 33 hours • 40 hours • 60 hours

A

-40 hours

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8
Q

Which of the following types of drugs will have maximum oral bioavailability?
• drugs with high first-pass metabolism
• highly hydrophilic drugs
• largely hydrophobic, yet soluble in aqueous solutions • chemically unstable drugs
• drugs that are P-glycoprotein substrates

A

-Largely hydrophobic, yet soluble in aqueous solutions

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9
Q

Chlorothiazide is a weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 6.5. If administered orally, at which of the following sites
of absorption will the drug be able to readily pass through the membrane?
• mouth (pH approximately 7.0)
• stomach (pH of 2.5)
• duodenum (pH approximately 6.1) • jejunum (pH approximately 8.0)
• ileum (pH approximately 7.0)
Chlorothiazide is a weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 6.5. If administered orally, at which of the following sites
of absorption will the drug be able to readily pass through the membrane?
• mouth (pH approximately 7.0)
• stomach (pH of 2.5)
• duodenum (pH approximately 6.1) • jejunum (pH approximately 8.0)
• ileum (pH approximately 7.0)

A

-Stomach (pH 2,5)

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10
Q

An 18-year-old female patient is brought to the emergency department due to drug overdose. Which of the following routes of administration is the most desirable for administering the antidote for the drug overdose?
• intramuscular • subcutaneous • transdermal
• oral
• intravenous

A

-intravenous

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11
Q

Select true statement(s)?
• if the efficacy of the drug is higher, the potency is higher as well
• if 10 mg of drug A produces the same response as 100 mg of drug B, drug A has a higher dose-response efficacy than drug B
• if 10 mg of drug A produces the same response as 100 mg of drug B, drug A has a higher clinical efficacy than drug B
• if 10 mg of drug A produces the same response as 100 mg of drug B, drug A has a higher potency than drug B
• variation in response to a drug among different individuals is most likely to occur with a drug showing a large therapeutic index
• a competitive antagonist increases the ED50
• in selecting a drug, potency is usually more important than efficacy

A
  • if 10 mg of drug A produces the same response as 100 mg of drug B, drug A has a higher potency than drug B
  • a competitive antagonist increases the ED 50
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12
Q

55 year old patient took diazepam daily to relieve severe anxiety. Initially, 5 mg dose produced a satisfactory response. After a few weeks his physician reported, that the same dose is not effective anymore. After an increase of the dose to 10 mg, the patient had the same relief of anxiety as taking 5 mg in the beginning of the treatment. What phenomenon has the physician reported? What are the mechanisms of this phenomenon? What happened with the potency and efficacy of diazepam?
• potency of diazepam increased
• efficacy of diazepam didn’t change
• efficacy of diazepam decreased
• the physician reported withdrawal • potency of diazepam decreased • the physician reported dependance • efficacy of diazepam increased
• the physician reported tolerance

A
  • efficacy of it don’t change
  • petency of diazepam decreases
  • the physician should report tolerance
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13
Q

Insulin acts at an extracellular domain of a membrane spanning tyrosine kinase and causes its phosphorylation. Afterwards, tyrosine kinase activates intracellular enzymes responsible for glucose catabolism. Tyrosine kinase belongs to which family of receptors?
• enzyme linked receptors
• spare receptors
• G protein coupled receptors • ligand gated ion channels
• intracellular receptors

A

-enzyme-linked receptors

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14
Q
What pharmacological antagonists form
irreversible covalent bonds on the agonist
receptor site? • allosteric modulators
• partial agonists
• non-competitive antagonist
• competitive antagonist • full agonists
• inverse agonists
A

.non-compatative antagonist

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15
Q

What receptors have only hydrophobic ligands?
• intracellular receptors
• spare receptors
• G protein coupled receptors • enzyme linked receptors
• ligand gated ion channels

A

-intracellular

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16
Q

What antagonists decrease the potency of
an agonist, but have no effect on its efficacy
even in the absence of ‘spare’ receptors?
• competitive antagonists
• full agonists
• partial agonists
• inverse agonists
• non-competitive antagonist • allosteric modulators

A

-competetive antagonist

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17
Q

What ligands do not bind to the agonist receptor site, but bind to some other region of the receptor and change the response to an agonist?
• competitive antagonists • full agonists
• allosteric modulators • partial agonists
• inverse agonists
• non-competitive antagonists

A

-allosteric modulators

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18
Q

Heparin acts on antithrombin III and inhibits the coagulation cascade. Protamine sulphate doesn’t act on antithrombin III, but it binds to heparin and inactivates it instead. What kind of interaction occurs between heparin and protamine sulphate?
• pharmacological antagonism
• allosteric modulation
• pharmacological agonism
• physical / chemical antagonism • physiological agonism
• physiological antagonism

A

-physical/chemical antagonism

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19
Q
Histamine acts on histamine receptors and causes bronchial spasm in susceptible individuals. β adrenergic agonist albuterol causes bronchial dilation and relieves bronchial spasm. What kind of interaction occurs between histamine and albuterol?
• physiological antagonism
• physiological agonism
• allosteric modulation
• pharmacological agonism
• pharmacological antagonism
• physical / chemical antagonism
A

-physiological antagonism

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20
Q

Pindolol increases the heart rate by activating β adrenergic
receptors in the absence of epinephrine and other β
adrenergic agonists. However, it decreases the heart rate in
the presence of epinephrine. What kind of ligand is pindolol? • allosteric modulator
• full agonist
• partial agonist
• inverse agonist
• antagonist
• non-competitive antagonist • competitive antagonist

A

-partial agonist

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21
Q

Upon binding to α1-adrenoceptors on the membrane of vascular
smooth muscle, phenylephrine metabolises intracellular Ca2+,
causing the contraction of actin and myosin filaments. The
shortening of muscle cells decreases the diameter of the arteriole,
causing an increase in resistance to the flow of blood through the
vessel. Blood pressure therefore rises to maintain blood flow. All the
effects resemble the action of the endogenous ligand, • allosteric modulator
norepinephrine. What kind of ligand is phenylephrine? • antagonist
• full agonist
• non-competitive antagonist • partial agonist
• inverse agonist

A

-full agonist

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22
Q

Which of the following would up-regulate
postsynaptic β1 adrenergic receptors?
• daily use of amphetamine that causes norepinephrine to be released
•a disease that causes an increase in the activity of norepinephrine neurones
• daily use of isoproterenol, a β1 receptor agonist
• daily use of formoterol, a β1 receptor agonist
• daily use of propranolol, a β1 receptor antagonist

A

-daily use of propranolol, a β1 receptor antagonist

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23
Q

What impact on steady state concentration has doubling of the loading dose?

  • decrease
  • increase
  • no change
A

-no CHANGE

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24
Q

The addition of glucuronic acid to the drug is what phase of reaction?

A

-phase 2

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25
Q

What will happen to the blood concentration of drug, soon after intravenous injection, if distribution into tissue is increased?

A

-it will decrease

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26
Q

The octanol/water partition coefficients of a drug is 10. IT DOES NOT BIND TO THE blood proteins. into which tissue the drug will distribute.

  • lung
  • muscle
  • skin
A

-lung

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27
Q

Following oral administration of a lung, 100% of the dose is recovered as uncharged drug in the urine. Does this indicate that the entire dose was absorbed?

A

yes, true

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28
Q

A patient is treated with 250 mg of phenytoin per day. He reaches a concentration of 25 mg/l and therefore Will experience toxicity due to phenytoin.
Is it true?

A

false

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29
Q

Phenytoin is a drug of choice in the treatment of epilepsy. It has a narrow therapeutic window with concentration between 10 and 20 mg/l being associated with control of seizures. Three subjects A, B and C are treated with 200 mg of phenytoin per day, the normal dose calculated to control seizures with the minimum of side effects. All three subjects will therefore achieve concentrations within 10-20 mg/l range. Is it true?

A

no, false

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30
Q

A patient is treated with 150 mg of phenytoin per day. He achieves a concentration of 8 mg/l and may not require an increase in dose. Is it true?

A

true

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31
Q

In which site do drug interactions occur most commonly?

A

LIVER

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32
Q

Explain half-life.

A

-to remove half of the dose from plasma is half-life

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33
Q

What happens if the rate of infusion increases (i.e. higher amount of the drug administered per unit of time)?

A

-less time will be needed to reach steady state

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34
Q

Reversible transfer of a drug from the blood to various tissues of the body is called?

A

Distribution

35
Q

What are the two must important mechanisms involved in termination of drug action?

A

-Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion are the two most important mechanisms involved.

36
Q

Proteins of which receptors dissociates after replacement of GDP by GTP at alpha-subunit?

A

-G protein-coupled receptors

37
Q

Which one about pharmaceutical is correct?

  • are means to deliver active substances to the body
  • have an impact on pharmacokinetics, mainly rate and extend of absorption
  • have direct impact on pharmacodynamics
  • should never be administered in patients with liver impairment
  • should never be administered in patients with renal impairment
A
  • are means to deliver active substances to the body

- have an impact on pharmacodynamics, mainly rate and extend of absorption

38
Q

Interstitial pneumonia was reported in 12 clinical trial subjects of 1000. what is the frequency of this adverse reaction

A

-Rare

39
Q

If there were spare beta1-adrenergic receptors on cardiac muscle cells, which statement would be correct?

  • A maximal effect of epinephrine is seen when only a portion of beta1 adrenergic receptors are occupied
  • The number of spare beta 1 adrenergic receptors determines the size of the maximum effect of the agonist epinephrine
  • spare receptors are active even in the absence of epinephrine
  • spare beta 1 adrenegic receptors make the cardiac tissue less sensitive to epinephrine
A

-the number of spare beta 1 adrenergic receptors determines the size of the maximum effect of the agonist epinephrine

40
Q

What factor may cause drug accumulation (abnormal increasing amount of drug)?

A

Liver failure

Renal failure

41
Q

What impact on steady state concentration has doubling the loading dose?

A

No change

42
Q

What will happen to the rate of fall of blood concentration of drug if rate of elimination is reduced?

A

-it will decrease

43
Q

what will happen to the blood concentration of drug, soon after intravenous Injection, if distribution into tissues is increased?

A

decreases

44
Q

What will happen to the rate of blood concentration of drug if rate of absorption is decreased?

A

decrease

45
Q

A radio-labelled oral dose is administered and all radio-activity is recovered in the urine. Does this indicate that all of the drug was absorbed?

A

False

46
Q

What is the meaning of the letter ‘s’ in the name of G protein-coupled receptors (Gs)?
Select one:

  • Stimulation of such receptors causes inhibition of phospholipase.
  • Stimulation of such receptors causes activation of phospholipase.
  • Stimulation of such receptors causes inhibition of some functions of the body.
  • Stimulation of such receptors causes inhibition of cyclases.
  • Stimulation of such receptors causes activation of cyclases.
A

-Stimulation of such receptors causes activation of cyclases.

47
Q

Binding of the agonist results in molecular changes in the membrane-bound receptors, such that the receptor undergoes endocytosis and is sequestered from further agonist interaction. What phenomenon has been described here? What happens with efficacy of the agonist if there are no “spare” receptors?
Select one or more:
A. It is a class of pharmacodynamic tolerance.
B. Efficacy of agonists decreases.
C. It is a class of pharmacokinetic tolerance.
D. Efficacy of agonists increases.
E. Down-regulation of receptors
F. Tachyphylaxis
G. Efficacy of agonists is not affected.

A
  • it is a class of pharmacodynamics tolerance
  • efficacy of agonists decreases
  • down regulation of receptors
48
Q
What pharmacological antagonists form irreversible covalent bonds on the agonist receptor site?
Select one:
A.Inverse agonists
B. Partial agonists
C. Allosteric modulators
D. Competitive antagonists
E. Non-competitive antagonists 
F. Antagonists
G. Full agonists
A

E. Non-competitive antagonists

49
Q

What ligands don’t bind to the agonist receptor site, but bind to some other region of the receptor and change response to an agonist?
Select one:
a.Competitive antagonists b.Partial agonists c.Antagonists d.Non-competitive antagonists e. Full agonists
f. Inverse agonists
G. allosteric modulators

A

-allosteric modulators

50
Q

Which statement on the first-order (linear) kinetics is false?

Amount of drug eliminated per unit of time depends on its plasma level

Certain amount of a medicine eliminated per unit of time

A
  • Amount of drug eliminated per unit of time depends on its plasma level
  • Certain amount of a medicine eliminated per unit of time
51
Q

which test/trials are double binds randomised and controlled versus comparative treatment ?

A

Ans : phase - 3 clinical trials

52
Q

Chemical changes occurring in liver are called:

A

Metabolism/biotransformation

53
Q

Movement of from its site of administration into blood is:

A

Absorption

54
Q

Plasma level of the drug is 100 mg/mL, kinetics is linear and half-life is 1 hour. After what time the plasma level of the drug will be negligible?

A

8-10 hours

55
Q

Which of the following statements on drug distribution is MOST appropriate?

A

Half-life has no effect on the distribution.

56
Q

What tests/studies are required to demonstrate that the medicinal product B is
generic of the medicinal product A?

A

Bioavailability studies for both medicinal products

57
Q

How do we measure Vd, volume of distribution?

A

Its the dose of drug (g) /concentration in blood (g/L)

58
Q

Phenobarbital is weak acid ( pKa =7.3) what percentage of its molecules in urine is protonated (non-ionised) at urinary pH of 5.3? (please include only the number without units or any letters into your response)

A

1% non ionised

59
Q

A medicinal product is any substance or combination of substances:

A
  • presented as having properties for treating disease in human beings
  • which may be administered to human beings to modify physiological functions by excreting a pharmacological, immunological or metabolic action
  • which may be administered to human beings to restore physiological functions by excreting a pharmacological, immunological or metabolic action
  • which may be administered to human beings to correct physiological functions by excreting a pharmacological, immunological or metabolic action
  • presented as having properties to preventing disease in human beings
60
Q

Which of the following is present in plasma membrane receptors and in intracellular receptors?

A

G protein

61
Q

Phenobarbital is a weak acid pka 7.3 what percentage of its molecules is urine protonated( non ionised) at urinary PH 8,3?

A

10%

62
Q

What statements on drug distribution and effect are correct?

A
  • Volume of distribution of 4 liters is normal adult means that the medicine is not distributed to extracellular fluid.
  • Volume of distribution of 4 liters is normal for adults, which means that the medicine is not distributed to the cell.
  • Plasma level of the drug correlates with its effect better than tissue level.
63
Q

Increase in plasma level where a next dose has been administered before full elimination of the previous one is:

A

-Accumulation

64
Q

Which statement on the first-order (linear) kinetics is false?

A
  • Amount of drug eliminated per unit of time depends on its plasma level
  • Certain amount of a medicine eliminated per unit of time
65
Q

Testing of a new substance demonstrated that:
- It diminishes response to an agonist
- It doesn’t cause any response itself
- increase in the dose of an agonist reverse the effects of the new substance
What kind of ligande the new substance?

A

Inverse agonist

66
Q

Pre-clinical test include :

A

Test in vitro

Test in vivo on animals

67
Q

Subject of a controlled double- blind clinical trial of a medicinal product had a hip fracture following an unintentional overdose. What statements are correct ?

A

The hip fracture is an adverse event.

A case of drug abuse has been described above

68
Q

What statements on tasks of clinical trials is (are) true?

A
  • They are to required to establish, verify or confirm clinical effects
  • Effects of overdose should be investigated in the phase 2
69
Q

A patient was administered cefradine for the treatment of pneumonia in the hospital. The hospitalization was extended one week extra due to stevens johnson syndrome which is included into summary of the product characteristic as adverse reaction (ADR) with unknown Frequency

A
  • The patient has a serious ADR
  • The Physician should report the ADR to national competent authority
  • Stevens- johnson syndrome is unexpected ADR
70
Q

Health care professionals are required to:

A
  • Identify adverse drug reaction

- Report Adverse drug reaction to national drug regulatory authority

71
Q

The receptors:

A
  • Are cellular target macromolecules receiving the signals
  • May be spare
  • May be localized on the cell membrane
72
Q

Bioequivalence testing of any medicinal product includes :

Bioequivalence is the biochemical similarity of two (or more) drugs that share the same active ingredient(s) and desired outcome(s) for patients

A
  • Test of its distribution

- Test of plasma level of the reference product

73
Q

Active secretion of active substances:

A
  • Is energy dependent
  • Is saturable
  • Needs carrier
74
Q

Is distribution reversible or irreversible?

A

Reversible

75
Q

Characteristics of zero order kinetics (C)

A
  • Certain amount of a medicine eliminated per unit of time
76
Q

What statements are correct:

  • Volume of distribution of 5 liter in adult means that the medicine is neither distributed to extracellular fluid
  • Initial rapid fall in plasma level following intravenous administration is mainly due to distribution
A
  • Volume of distribution of 5 liter in adult means that the medicine is neither distributed to extracellular fluid
  • Initial rapid fall in plasma level following intravenous administration is mainly due to distribution
77
Q

Data required to estimate an apparent volume of distribution:

A
  • Dose

- Plasma level

78
Q

Characteristics of first order kinetics (C)

A
  • Rate of elimination
  • Certain fraction of a medicine eliminated per unit of time
  • Amount of a medicine eliminated per unit of time is dependent on plasma level
79
Q

Phenobarbital is weak acid pka 7,3 what percentage of its molecules in urine is protonated at ph 7,3?

A
  • 50%
80
Q

Abuse of a medicinal product does not necessarily mean:

A
  • Chronic use
81
Q

Abuse of a medicinal product means combination of the following:

A
  • Intentional use
  • Excessive use
  • Use accompanied of harmful effects
82
Q

Pharmacovigilance includes the following activities related to adverse drug reaction:

A
  • Identification
  • reporteting
  • assessment
  • prevention
83
Q

What statements on protein-bound molecules of warfann are correct :
- The protein binding is reversible

A
  • The protein binding is reversible
84
Q

Psychological dependence may be caused by:

A
  • Narcotic
  • Sedative
  • Central stimulants