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Final (Past Exams) Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Give an example where post-exposure vaccination is recommended?

A

after being bitten by an animal suspected to be infected with the rabies virus.

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2
Q

Which vaccine protects solely or principally by induction of serum antibodies?

A

Hep A Vaccine

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3
Q

Passive immunization is used for all of the following except

A

to elicit production of secretory antibodies

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4
Q

What drug inhibits the function of influenza A virus M2 protein? 1/1

A

Rimantidine

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5
Q

Which class of anti-HIV drug is also effective against hepatitis B virus?

A

Anti-reverse transcriptase

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6
Q

Which drug blocks release of influenza A virus from an infected cell?

A

TAMIFLU

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7
Q

What virus does not create “giant cells” during the course of an infection?

A

Norovirus

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8
Q

Name a hepatitis virus for which hepatocyte death is mainly due to killing by cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

A

Hep B

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9
Q

During hepatitis B virus infection, infectious viral particles are released from cells. What is a property of these particles?

A

42 nm diameter particles containing HBs Antigen

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10
Q

Name a hepatitis virus that mainly infects via a fecal-oral mode of transmission.

A

Hep A

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11
Q

Which hepatitis virus causes a high incidence of persistent infections (70% of infections becoming persistent in otherwise healthy adults)?

A

HCV

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12
Q

Which of the following is diagnostic for infection with herpes simplex virus type 1

A

Cowdry type A inclusion Bodies

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13
Q

Which of the following is not a property shared by the different herpes viruses?

A

genome is directly translated into protein upon entry into the cell.

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14
Q

Infection with which herpesvirus is commonly diagnosed by agglutination of red blood cells from horses?

A

Epstien Barr Virus

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15
Q

Which of the following is a property shared by the different herpes viruses?

A

Encode a large arrary of enzyme involved in nucleic acid metabolism

assemble viral capsids in the host cell nucleus

production of virus results in destrruction of the infected cell.

able to exsist in a latent state

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16
Q

Name a type of human papillomavirus strongly associated with cervical carcinoma.

A

HPV 18

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17
Q

What is role of the human papillomavirus E6 protein during infection?

A

binds p53 and promotes p53 degradation

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18
Q

Which of the following is diagnostic for infection with human papilloma virus?

A

Koliocytic cells

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19
Q

What viral protein sequesters the retinoblastoma protein (Rb) and prevents it from controlling E2f transcription factor?

A

adenovirus E1a protein

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20
Q

Specific variants of which types of virus cause life threatening acute respiratory infections and are the target of vaccination of new military recruits in the US?

A

Adenovirus

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21
Q

What virus primes the synthesis of its genomic DNA with the serine residue of a viral protein?

A

adenovirus

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22
Q

In a study that I described in class, blood samples were taken monthly over a 39 month period from patients infected with HIV to follow the virus replicating in the patients’ systems and the patients’ antibody response. The patients became infected with HIV in month 0. What is a valid conclusion from the study?

A

month 12 plasma has anti-HIV antibodies that react strongly to month 0 virus

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23
Q

HIV mutates rapidly during an infection due to errors by which enzyme?

A

viral reverse transcriptase

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24
Q

What is a role of the HIV gp120 protein?

A

bind to CD4 receptors and/or CCr5/CXCR4 coreceptors (depending on the cell type)

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25
Q

What is the main reason that HIV positive individuals are able to transmit the virus many years after their initial infection?

A

viral DNA integrated in the host genome is transcribed by host cell RNA polymerase II

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26
Q

Which virus is the most common agent of gastroenteritis in children?

A

rotovirus

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27
Q

Which influenza virus protein mediates adsorption of the virus onto a host epithelial cell surface?

A

hemagluttinen

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28
Q

xWhat is an example of a cellular function supplied by a viral genome integrated into the human cell genome?

A

syncytin-1 for placental fusion

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29
Q

Regarding chemical agents used in microbial control, what compound class is hexachlorophene a member of? 1/1

A

Phenolics

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30
Q

Regarding the use of heat to control microbial pathogens, what is the time required to kill 90% of the microbes in a sample at a specific temperature?
1/1

A

he decimal reduction time

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31
Q

What is the term for inhibition or elimination of microbes on living tissue? 1/1

A

antisepsis

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32
Q

What is the term for treating all patients are as though they are a source of infectious pathogens? Answer:__1__ 1/1

A

universal precautions

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33
Q

What is the Spaulding Classification category of a dental implant?

A

critical

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34
Q

Pasteurization of milk serves to control potential epidemics by 1/1

A

breaking the connection between the source of pathogens and susceptible individuals

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35
Q

What is true about biologic transmission with respect to vector-borne pathogens? 1/1

A

he pathogen is carried internally within the body of the vector and undergoes a key life cycle step during this time

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36
Q

In airborne disease transmission, what is a property of droplet nuclei?

A

4 micrometers or less in diameter

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37
Q

What is true about a propagated epidemic?

A

the number of cases begins to fall once the number of susceptible individuals falls below the threshold density

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38
Q

What is an index case with respect to an epidemic?

A

he first case of the epidemic

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39
Q

What is an example of a disease that is typically sporadic and does not occur in epidemics?

A

histoplasmosis

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40
Q

What the mortality rate for a disease?

A

number of deaths from a disease per number of cases of the disease

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41
Q

What is true about the rRT-PCR diagnostic test for Zika virus? (rRT-PCR = real-time Reverse Transcription PCR test

A

to have the best chance of detecting virus the test must be conducted within 2 weeks after onset of symptoms associated with Zika virus infection

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42
Q

What is the order of components for an ELISA test that uses a blood serum sample to measure a patient’s anitbody response to an infection? The order reads left to right in the answer choices. Step K= enzyme substrate added; step M= patient serum added; step X= enzyme conjugated antibody added.

A

aboratory produced antigen bound to well surface; Step M; Step X; Step K

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43
Q

What antigen is best suited for detection with a latex agglutination assay?

A

capsular polysaccharide

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44
Q

Urea broth is an example of which type of culture medium used for diagnosis of a bacterial infection?

A

characteristic medium

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45
Q

What bacterial cell staining method involves the use of fuschin as the staining agent combined with carbolic acid as a mordant?

A

Ziehl-Neelson method

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46
Q

The “sensitivity” of a diagnostic test measures the percentage of

A

true positive test results among the total of true positives plus false negatives

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47
Q

What is the “specificity” of a diagnostic test for a pathogen that gives a true negative test result 990 out of 1000 times (i.e. when the pathogen is actually absent), with a false positive result occurring 10 out of 1000 times? Express you answer as a percentage.

A

0.99

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48
Q

Which protozoan survives and differentiates in macrophages, aided by expressing a superoxide dismutase enzyme?

A

Leishmania species

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49
Q

What protozoan is chlorine-resistant, making it easy to transmit in public swimming pools?

A

cryptosporidium parvus

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50
Q

The reduviid bug is the vector for which disease?

A

Chagas disease

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51
Q

The anaerobic metabolism of some protozoal pathogens makes them susceptible to which drug?

A

metronidazole

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52
Q

What is the term for the host in which a parasite’s sexual reproduction phase occurs?

A

definitive host

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53
Q

What protozoal disease agent is transmitted in the feces of infected domestic cats?

A

oxoplasma gondii

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54
Q

What disease agent causes periodic attacks of chills and fever that coincide with massive lysis of red blood cells?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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55
Q

Infection by which organism is most likely to be initiated by breathing it into the lungs?

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

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56
Q

Which fungal staining method involves a fluorescent probe for chitin?

A

calcofluor white treatment

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57
Q

What is an anti-fungal drug that binds ergosterol in fungal membranes and alters membrane permeability?

A

amphotericin B

58
Q

How does the anti-fungal itraconazole work?

A

inhibits cytochrome P450-dependent 14-alpha-lanosterol demethylation

59
Q

Infection by which organism is usually not associated with the formation of granulomas in the lung?

A

Candida albicans

60
Q

Infection by which organism is usually not associated with the formation of granulomas in the lung?

A

Candida albicans

61
Q

Fungi of which genus are particularly sensitive to anti-fungal agents that inhibit synthesis of beta-(1,3)-D-glucan. (Name one genus)

A

candida

62
Q

Which fungus lacks ergosterol?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

63
Q

Which disease agent causes a superficial mycosis known as a tinea?

A

Malassezia furfur

64
Q

Which pathogenic fungus only grows in a mold form (lacks a yeast form)?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

65
Q

Which is a characteristic component of most fungal cell walls?

A

polymer of N-acetyl-glucosamine

66
Q

Which fungus is neurotropic and produces melanin in its cell wall?

A

cryptococcus neoformans

67
Q

Which of the following is true about Creuzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)?

A

Caused by accumulation of PrP(Sc)

68
Q

Which of the following is true about Fatal Familial Insomnia (FFI)?

A

is a human prion disease

69
Q

What disease is caused by accumulation of a protein in amyloid fibrils?

A

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy

70
Q

What is a possible role for the gut bacteriophage community, as presented in class?

A

bacteriophage may limit bacteria in the gut, killing off cells when they reach a high concentration

71
Q

What is an example of a host cell trait supplied by an viral genome integrated into the host cell genome?

A

botulinum toxin for Clostridium botulinum

72
Q

When performing controlled viral infections in tissue culture, which of the following best describes what is
occurring during the eclipse phase of an infection?

A

Viruses are attached to receptors on host cell surfaces

73
Q

Which Adenovirus protein binds and inactivates p53, preventing p21 activation in response to DNA damage?

A

E1b

74
Q

Which adenovirus serotypes cause life threatening acute respiratory infections and are the target of vaccination?

A

serotypes 4 and 7

75
Q

In a study that I described in class, blood samples were taken monthly over a 39 month period from patients
infected with HIV to follow the virus replicating in the patients’ systems and the patients’ antibody response. The patients became infected with HIV in month 0. What is a valid conclusion from the study?

A

month 0 plasma does not have significant levels of anti-HIV antibodies

76
Q

What is the role of the HIV gp120 protein?

A

binding to the host cell CD4 receptor and either the CCR5 OR CXCR4 coreceptor, depending on the cell type

77
Q

For which RNA virus, initially encountered in the gastrointestinal tract, is a vaccine not available?

A

norovirus

78
Q

The Human Papilloma Virus E7 protein plays a role most similar to the role of what other viral protein?

A

Adenovirus E1a protein

79
Q

What viral protein sequesters Rb and prevents it from controlling E2f transcription factor?

A

Adenovirus E1a protein

80
Q

Passive immunization is used for all of the following except

A

to elicit production of secretory antibodies

81
Q

An adjuvant is used to

A

boost the immunogenicity of a killed (inactivated) virus vaccine

82
Q

Which drug blocks release of influenza A virus from an infected cell?

A

tamiflu

83
Q

Which class of anti-HIV drug is also effective against hepatitis B virus?

A

reverse transcriptase inhibitors

84
Q

The anti-herpes simplex virus drug acyclovir

A

is phosphorylated by the viral thymidine kinase enzyme

85
Q

Which hepatitis virus causes a high incidence of persistent infections (70% of infections becoming persistent in otherwise healthy adults)?

A

HCV

86
Q

A individual who had a prior acute infection with HBV that completely resolved would display which of the follow
serological properties?

A

presence of anti-HBs antibodies combined with lack of detectable HBs and HBe antigens

87
Q

Which hepatitis virus(es) mainly infect via a fecal-oral mode of transmission?

A

HAV and HEV

88
Q

Which Human Herpes Viruses fails to establish a true latency, but down-regulates to a low level of viral
production when not causing active disease?

A

CMV

89
Q

What is the cause of shingles?

A

varicella zoster virus reactivation

90
Q

Conjunctivitis can be caused by

A

adenovirus

91
Q

What is the role of the HIV gp41 protein?

A

fusion of viral and cellular membranes during viral entry

92
Q

What is a naked capsid virus composed of?

A

only nucleocapsid

93
Q

What is a property of the anti-cytomegalovirus drug ganciclovir?

A

is more toxic than acyclovir because it is more readily used by cellular thymidine kinase

94
Q

What is role of the human papillomavirus E6 protein during infection?

A

binds p53 and promotes p53 degradation

95
Q

What is the main reason that HIV positive individuals are able to transmit the virus many years after their initial
infection?

A

viral DNA integrated in the host genome is transcribed by host cell RNA polymerase II

96
Q

What virus does not create ³giant cells´during the course of an infection?

A

hepatitis A virus

97
Q

Which of the following is diagnostic for infection with human papilloma virus?

A

Koilocytic cells

98
Q

During hepatitis B virus infection, non-infectious viral particles are released from cells. What is a property of
these particles?

A

22 nm diameter particles containing mainly HBs antigen

99
Q

Which is a characteristic component of most fungal cell walls?

A

polymer of N-AQcetyl-glucosamine

100
Q

Which fungus lacks a yeast form?

A

aspergillus fumigatus

101
Q

which disease agent causes a superficial infection of skin surfaces?

A

malassezia furfur

102
Q

infection by which organism is not associated with the formation of granulomas in the lung?

A

sporothrix schenkii

103
Q

Which fungal staining method involves flurosecnt detection of chitin

A

clacofluor white

104
Q

how does echinocandins work as anti-funal drgus?

A

inhibiting synthesis of beta (1,2) d glucan

105
Q

what is the human body’s primary mechanism for fighting fungi?

A

neutrophil phagocyteosis and T cell mediated immunity

106
Q

Which fungus causes cutaneous lesions and can be identifed upon histopathological examination as a thick walled yeast with a single broad-based bud?

A

blastomyces dermatididis

107
Q

What agent of “desert rehumatism” can cause chronic meningitis that is fatal without lifelong treatment?

A

coccidioides immitis

108
Q

infection by which organism is not associated with the formation of granulomas in the lung?

A

sporothrix schenkii

109
Q

Which diesease agent causes a superficial infection of skin surfaces?

A

malassezia fufur

110
Q

Which fungus lacks a yeast form, only exhibiting a mold form?

A

aspergillus fumigatus

111
Q

Which form of candidiasis is associated with high incidences of oral cancer?

A

plaquelike/nodular

112
Q

fungi of which genus are notable as a cause of life-threatening infections of diabetes pts.

A

rhizopus

113
Q

Which anti-fungal class binds ergosterol in fungal memebranes and alters memebrane permeability?

A

polyenes

114
Q

infection by which organism is associated with the formation of granulomas in the lung?

A

histoplasma capsulatum

115
Q

For fungi, to what does the term dimorphism refer?

A

capability to grow as a yeast or a mold

116
Q

Which of the following is the most correct description of chitin?

A

polymer of NAG

117
Q

WHich is a true statement about babesia , a malaeria-like illness that is endemic to the US?

A

it is transmitted by ixodes ticks

118
Q

What protozoan is the most common causes of epidemic waterbourne diarrheal diease?

A

giardia lamblia

119
Q

What is meant by a definiitive host when referring to a parasitic organism?

A

the host in which the parasite’s sexual reproduction phase occurs

120
Q

Which disease agent produces cysts in the brains of infected indiviudals and raises dopamine level?

A

toxoplasma gondii

121
Q

WHat protozoal disease agent is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitos and results in the destruction of red blood calls?

A

plasmodium falciparum

122
Q

Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) is transmitted by which vector organism?

A

reduvid bug

123
Q

Which genus contains the most commonly sexually transimitted protozoan disease agent?

A

trichomonas

124
Q

the anaerobic metabolism of some protzoal pathogens makes them susceptible to which drug?

A

metronidazole

125
Q

what protozoan is chlorine-resistant, making it easy to transmit in public swimming pools?

A

cryptosporidium parvum

126
Q

What is true about a prozone reaction in a latex agglutination test for detecting microbial antigens?

A

it is an example of a false negative test result

127
Q

eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar is an example of which type of culture medium used for diagnosis of a bacterial infection?

A

differential medium

128
Q

What is true about the rRt-PCR diagnostic test for zika virus? (rRT-PCR= real time reverse transcription PCR test)

A

to have the best chance of detecting virus the test must be conducted within 2 weeks after onset of symptoms associated with zika virus infection

129
Q

What are the basic components of a PCR assay used for diagnostic purposes?

A

pathogen DNA, a pair of pathogen-specific DNA primers, dNTPs, and a thermostable DNA polymersase

130
Q

What is the sensitivity of a diagnostic test for a pathogen that gives a postive test result 499 out of 500 times that the pathogen is actually present?

A

99.8%

131
Q

What is the basis for calling an ELISA test for microbial antigen detection a “sandwhich” assay?

A

the antigen being detected in the patient’s serum is “sandwhiched” between a specfic antibody boundto the solid support and another antibody to the antigen that is added during the test

132
Q

Which type of medium permits growth of one group of bacteria while inhibiting growth of some other groups?

A

selective medium

133
Q

What is meant by “specificity” in regards to a diagnostic test?

A

the percentage of true-negative results out of the total true-negatives and false positives

134
Q

What is true about harborage transmission with respect to vector-borne pathogens?

A

the pathogen is carried internally within the body of the vector but does not undergo changes during this time

135
Q

What is an index case with respect to an epidemic

A

the first case of the epidemic

136
Q

When considering a propagated epidemic of an infectious disease, what does the threshold density represent?

A

the miniumum number of susceptible individuals necessary to continue propagating the diease

137
Q

What is the mrobidity rate for a disease?

A

number of new cases in a specific time perioud per unit of population

138
Q

in disease transmission, particles of 4 micrometers or less in diameter that can remain airbourne for hours are called what?

A

droplet nuclei

139
Q

What is an example of a class of compounds that are commonly used lab and hospital disinfections that are tuberculocidal but have a disagreeable odor and can cause skin irritation?

A

lysol

140
Q

What is the Spaulding Classification caterogry of a dental implant?

A

critical

141
Q

What is the decimal reduction time in the heat-killing of microorganisms

A

time required to kill 90% of microbes in a sample at a specific temperature

142
Q

What is the Spaulding Classification Category of a dental instrument that touches bone?

A

critical

Microbiology Final (2 decks)

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