Final - Past Flashcards
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the plasma concentration maximum or steady state after multiple administrations?
A. C0
B. Cmax
C. Cmaxcc
D. C1
C. Cmaxcc
The most ulcerogenic agent in dogs
A. Carprofen
B. Nimesulide
C. Diclofenac
D. Tolfenamic acid
C. Diclofenac
Calcitrol decreases the urinary exertion of
A. Iodine
B. Potassium
C. Selenium
D. Phosphorous
D. Phosphorous
Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of an active substance in a bolus?
A. Expanding matrix
B. Insoluble matrix
C. OROS
D. Chip-controlled diaphragms
D. Chip-controlled diaphragms
This ectoparasitic is NOT active against ticks
A. Fiponil
B. Pyriprol
C. Amitraz
D. Imidacloprid
D. Imidacloprid
The most important toxicological properties of gentamicin
A. Can be given safely for a long time
B. Nephro and hepatotoxic
C. Hepatotoxic + harms the vestibular apparatus
D. Nephro and ototoxic
D. Nephro and ototoxic
At which of the below-mentioned combinations do you expect the least respiratory depression?
A. Pentobarbital + Fentanyl
B. Thiopental + Fentanyl
C. Droperidole + Fentanyl
D: Propofol + Fentanyl
C: Droperidole + Fentanyl
What matrixes are examined in a residue analysis?
A. Blood, urine
B. Milk, eggs, honey
C. Edible tissues
D. Edible tissues, milk, eggs, honey
D: Edible tissues, milk, eggs, honey
In this type of prescription, the proprietary name of a veterinary licensed medicine is given?
A. Prescription of a prepared (magistrates) medicine
B. Prescription of a formulated official medicine
C. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
D. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
D. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex I and III administered to dairy cattle should have a withdrawal period for milk:
A. At most 28 days withdrawal period
B. At most 7 days withdrawal period
C. At least 7 days withdrawal period
D. At least 28 days withdrawal period
C. At least 7 days withdrawal period
It is the antidote (competitive antagonist) of coumarin-type anticoagulants
A. Vitamin A
B. Carotene
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin K
Primary choice of antibiotics in the case of Rickettsia?
A. Penicillins
B. Tetracyclines
C. Animoglycosides
D. Macrolides
B. Tetracyclines
This is a prodrug, in practice it is used only against immature liverflukes, practically inactive against adult flukes and other types of worms
A. Diamphenethide
B. Triclabendazole
C. Febantel
D. Netobimin
A. Diamphenethide
This macrolides antibiotic can only be applied subcutaneously to cattle
A. Tilmicosin
B. Oxytetracycline
C. Tylosine
D. Ceftiofur
A. Tilmicosin
IV dosage of Xylazine in horses:
A. 0.4 - 1.1 mg / bwkg
B. 0.02 mg / bwkg
C. 0.2 mg / bwkg
D. 2-3 mg / bwkg
A. 0.4 - 1.1 mg / bwkg
The most frequently applied drug in combination with spectinomycin?
A. Gentamycin
B. Procaine-penicillin
C. Cerfuroxime
D. Lincomycin
D. Lincomycin
The most active drug against Rhodococcus equi infection in horses
A. Doxacycline
B. Enrofloxacin
C. Erythromycin
D. Tylosine
C. Erythromycin
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the theoretical plasma concentration maximum using the intravasal pharmacokinetic model?
A. Ct
B. Cmaxcc
C. C0
D. Cmax
C. C0
Bacterial susceptibility to certain antibiotics is usually determined with this method:
A. Macrobroth dilution method
B. ELISA
C. Disc-diffusion method
D. PCR
C. Disc-diffusion method
It can provide superovulation in donor cows during the embryo transfer process
A. EcG (PMSG)
B. Cabergoline
C. Oestradiol
D. Cloprostenol
A. EcG (PMSG)
Dosage of Ivermectin in horse
A. 0.1 mg / bwkg SC
B. 0.2 mg / bwkg SC
C. 0.3 mg / bwkg PO
D. 0.2 mg / bwkg PO
D. 0.2 mg / bwkg PO
Broad-spectrum antifungal drug that is active against yeast and dermatology tests alike:
A. Nystatin
B. Ketoconazole
C. Griseofulvin
D. Enilconazole
B. Ketoconazole
It increases the liberation of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudo-pregnant animals
A. Diazepam
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Xylazine
D. Phenobarbital
B. Chlorpromazine
Its important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression, hypotension
A. Ketamine
B. Butorphanol
C. Atropine
D. Fentanyl
D. Fentanyl
For which dosage form is sterility the most significant attribute?
A. Nasal drops
B. Eye drops
C. Shampoo
D. Ear drops
B. Eye drops
Usually for mixing these types of drugs into the medicated feedstuffs, commercial feed computers need not have a Prescription of Medicated Feedstuff (Veterinary Written Direction)
A. Prescription only medicines (POM)
B. Pharmacy medicines (P)
C. Pharmacy and merchant list medicine (PML)
D. General sales list medicines (GSL)
C. Pharmacy and merchant list medicine (PML)
This antiemetic drug is an antagonist of neurokinin-1 (NK-1) receptors in the CNS
A. Maropitant
B. Promethazine
C. Ondansetron
D. Domperidone
D. Domperidone
What is a characteristic of suppositories?
A. Semi-solid at room temperature
B. Dissolves at body temperature
C. Non-divergent dosage form
D. None of these
B. Dissolves at body temperature
Which drug would you use in cats for the prevention of tick-infestations?
A. Amitraz as a spot-on
B. Amitraz as a collar
C. Permethrin as a spot-on
D. Propoxur as a collar
D. Propoxur as a collar
Which term is abbreviated by “MRL-value”?
A. Minimal metabolite concentration
B. Minimal concentration of the residual drug
C. Maximal residual drug concentration
D. Maximal metabolite concentration
C. Maximal residual drug concentration
Sedative that decreases blood pressure, hence cannot be administered to seriously dehydrated animals?
A. Diazepam
B. Ketamine
C. Acepromazine
D. Buterphenol
C. Acepromazine
When anthrax is diagnosed in domestic animals, which drug would you administer?
A. Enrofloxacin
B. Treatment is prohibited!
C. Cefoperazon
D. Penicillin
D. Penicillin
Which active substance can be used as combination in cats for the treatment of flea-infestation?
A. Fipronil + metopren spot-on
B. Flumethrin + propoxur in a collar
C. Permethrin + piriproxifen spot-on
D. Imidacloprid + Premethrin spot-on
A. Fipronil + metopren spot-on
This is obligatory for obtaining schedule 2 and 3 drugs for use by a veterinarian in his own practice
A. Legislation on requisition
B. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)
C. Label
D. Veterinary Record for controlled drugs
A. Legislation on requisition
If the aim of these investigations is to determine the accelerated stability of the drug product, what are the appropriate conditions?
A. Room temperature: 0-4 weeks
B. 40˚, 75% RH, 0-6 months
C. Room temperature: 0-24 hours
D. Room temperature: 0-3 months
B. 40˚, 75% RH, 0-6 months
Antifungal drug that is active in the case of dermatomycosis, can be teratogenic?
A. Griseofulvin
B. Enilconazole
C. Fluconazole
D. Nystatin
A. Griseofulvin
This antihelmetic drug is belonging to the group of Tetrahydropyrimidines
A. Morantel
B. Epsiprantel
C. Closantel
D. All of them
A. Morantel
What does the abbreviation “GLP” stand for?
A. Good Veterinary Practice
B. Good Clinical Practice
C. Good Manufacturing Practice
D. Good Laboratory Practice
D. Good Laboratory Practice
The most potent anti-inflammatory glucocorticoid of these four is?
A. Cortisol
B. Tramcinolon
C. Prednisolone
D. Flumethason
D. Flumethason
Dosage of Butorphanol in dogs IM/ IV?
A. 0.1-0.4 mg / bwkg
B. 5 mg / bwkg
C. 0.005 mg / bwkg
D. 0.05 mg / bwkg
A. 0.1-0.4 mg / bwkg
What is the route of administration in horse?
Vena jugularis
What is the route of administration in cattle?
V. Jugularis, caudalis, or udder veins
What is the route of administration in sheep and goat?
V. Jugularis
What is the route of administration in swine?
V. cava cranialis (ear or jugular vein)
What is the route of administration in dog and cat?
V. Cephalica, antebrachii, saphena
What is the route of administration in rabbit?
V. Auricularis marginalis, jugularis
What is the route of administration in rat and mouse?
V. Caudalis
What is the route of administration in poultry?
V. Cutaneous ulnar is (wing vein), leg vein
What amino acid is converted into catecholamines (NE, Epi, Dopamine)?
A. Alanine B. Proline C. Lysine D. Tyrosine E. Valine
D. Tyrosine
Which of the following receptor subtypes causes vascular smooth muscle contraction?
A. a1 (Gq) B. a2 (Gi / Go) C. B1 (Gs) D. B2 (Gs) E. B3 (Gs)
A. a1 (Gq)
Which of the following receptor subtypes decreases insulin secretion from pancreatic B-cells, and decreases nerve cell norepinephrine release?
A. a1 (Gq) B. a2 (Gi / Go) C. B1 (Gs) D. B2 (Gs) E. B3 (Gs)
B. a2 (Gi / Go)
Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with MAO inhibitors?
A. Direct binding to receptor
B. Promoting release of norepinephrine
C. Inhibiting release of norepinephrine
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
D. Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
The basic structure of catecholamine involves a catecholamine ring and which of the following types of amines?
A. Methyl amine B. Ethyl amine C. Butyl amine D. Tert-butyl amine E. Propyl amine
B. Ethyl amine
Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients?
A. a2-agonist B. a1-agonist C. B3-agonist D. B2-agonist E. B1- agonist
D. B2-agonist
Combined with Cephalosporins, the nephrotoxic effect of this drug can be enhanced
A. Clavulanic acid
B. Gentamycin
C. Enrofloxacin
D. Diazepam
B. Gentamycin
Polypeptide antibiotic, when it is applied in injection, can be highly neuro- and nephrotoxic
A. Cefquinome
B. Clavulanic acid
C. Colistin sulphate
D. Penethamat
C. Colistin sulphate
Its mode of action is coccidiostatic. It is active against second generation schizonts
A. Narasin
B. Salinomycin
C. Clopidol
D. Sulfachlorpyazine
D. Sulfachlorpyazine
What is characteristic of thiopental?
A. It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time
B. It produces excellent analgesic effect
C. It has a long duration of action (30-60 minutes)
D. It is rapidly eliminated from the body
A. It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time
Appropriate for the treatment of enteritis caused by E. Coli and Salmonellae
A. Erythromycin
B. Bacitracin
C. Phenoxymethyl-penicillin
D. Gentamycin
D. Gentamycin
Mode of action of Lincosamides
A. Detergent-like activity
B. Bacteriostatic
C. Time-dependent bactericidal
D. Concentration-dependent bactericidal
B. Bacteriostatic
The amoxicillin-clavulanic acid combination is ineffective against
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. E. coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Pasteurella multocida
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
How do we measure the free haemoglobin content in the in vitro tissue irritation test?
A. Flourometric measurement
B. Luminometric measurement
C. Light absorbance at specific wavelength
D. Light absorbance at the full spectrum
C. Light absorbance at specific wavelength
This antibiotic can be used for the treatment of mastitis caused by penicillinase producing Staphylococcus aureus
A. Benzylpenicillin-Na
B. Oxacillin
C. Benzathine penicillin
D. Penethamat
B. Oxacillin
Among the listed macrolides this one has cardiotoxic effect (e.g. in goats)
A. Erythromycin
B. Tilmicosin
C. Azithromycin
D. Tylosine
B. Tilmicosin
In the case of keratoconjunctivitis sicca, the substance supplied in an eye drop may enhance tear production
A. Procaine
B. Tetracaine
C. Pilocarpine
D. Atropine
A. Procaine
Which is characteristic to polypeptide antibiotics?
A. They are very effective for the treatment of respiratory tract infections
B. They are well absorbed after oral administration
C. They have bactericidal effect
D. They are very safe antibiotics given IM
C. They have bactericidal effect
Which bacterium is highly sensitive to Cephalexine?
A. Clamydophila felis
B. Mycoplasma Hyopneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus pseduintermedius
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Staphylococcus pseduintermedius
This antibiotic has very short lasting effect, it has to be applied IV approximately 6 times a day
A. Oxacillin
B. Benzathine-penicillin
C. Benzylpenicillin Na
D. Penethamat
C. Benzylpenicillin Na
This antiprotozoal drug can be applied in food-producing mammals and birds
A. Metronidazole
B. Ronidazole
C. Furazolidone
D. Halofuginone
D. Halofuginone
The lowest man power requirement is during the external mass-treatment by application
A. Pour-on
B. Spraying
C. Spot-en
D. Washing
B. Spraying
Among the listed Aminoglycosides this agent is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A. Spectinomycin
B. Amikacin
C. Neomycin
D. Apramycin
B. Amikacin
Among the Quinolone carboxylic acid derivates this agent is important in veterinary medicine
A. Mabrofloxacin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Ibafloxacin
D. Enrofloxacin
B. Ciprofloxacin
Recommended application routes for treatment of sick swine with elevated body temperature:
A. Only medicated water
B. Medicated water or parenteral treatment
C. Only parenteral treatment
D. None of these are true
B. Medicated water or parenteral treatment
Procaine-benzylpenicillin is ineffective against
A. E. coli
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Pasteurella multocida
A. E. coli
What is the main site of blood taking in chicken?
A. Vena saphena
B. Vena antebrachii
C. Vena auricularis
D. Vena brachialis
B. Vena antebrachii
Among the listed Quinolone carboxylic acid derivates this agent also acts against anaerobes
A. Cipofloxacin
B. Ibafloxacin
C. Mabrofloxacin
D. Pradofloxacin
D. Pradofloxacin
Which of the listed materials is less sensitive to the presence of organic material remnants?
A. Iodine containing agents
B. Hypochlorates
C. Tensides
D. Aldehydes
C. Tensides
Where should the test material be applied in case of the tissue irritation test?
A. Large muscles
B. Per os
C. Under the skin of the ear
D. Interosseal
A. Large muscles
First generation Cephalosporins, it cannot be applied orally, in veterinary medicine frequently used in intramammary infusions
A. Cefquinome
B. Cefapirin
C. Cefalexin
D. Cefoperazone
B. Cefapirin
Which anticoccidial drugs would you use in a rotation program to prevent coccidiosis in broilers?
A. Monensin- amprolium
B. Narasin-salinomycin
C. Toltrazuril-diclazuril
D. Maduramicin-semduramicin
A. Monensin- amprolium
Aminoglycoside that is active against mycoplasma
A. Lincomycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Neomycin
D. Spectinomycin
D. Spectinomycin
The Macrolide is NOT intended for the treatment of young foals
A. Tylosin
B. Azithromycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Clarithromycin
A. Tylosin
Frequently occurring active substances in ear drops, eye drops
A. Penicillin, Enrofloxacin
B. Tylosine, Gentamycin
C. Neomycin, Gentamycin
D. Cefovecin, Ciprofloxacin
C. Neomycin, Gentamycin
This group has a very low therapeutic index. Mammals, above all horses and dogs, are extremely sensitive
A. Triazole derivates
B. Pentavalent antimony compounds
C. Ionophore antibiotics
D. Sulphonamides
C. Ionophore antibiotics
Which of there is a parenteral application route?
A. None of these
B. Oral
C. Buccal
D. Intraruminal (with tube)
A. None of these
Beta-lactam antibiotic suitable for the treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa urinary tract infection
A. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
B. Cefalexin
C. Cefuroxim
D. Piperazilin-tazobactam
D. Piperazilin-tazobactam
NOT appropriate for the treatment of mastitis caused by penicillinase-producing Staphylococcus aureus
A. Oxacillin
B. Cefalexin
C. Penethamat
D. Amoxicilin-clavulanic acid
C. Penethamat
This ionophore antibiotic is less susceptible to development of dross-resistance
A. Monensin
B. Salinomycin
C. Lasalocid
D. Narasin
C. Lasalocid
In which animal species might intraosseous administration a high significance?
A. Chinchilla
B. Goat
C. Swine
D. Horse
D. Horse
This penicillin antibiotic has a long acting effect applied IM
A. Oxacillin
B. Benzylpenicillin-Na
C. Penethamat
D. Benzathine-penicillin
D. Benzathine-penicillin
Which of the following is the least toxic aminoglycoside?
A. Tobramycin
B. Spectinomycin
C. Neomycin
D. Gentamycin
B. Spectinomycin
Imidazole antifungal that can be used only locally
A. Fluconazole
B. Itraconazole
C. Enilconazole
D. Terbinafine
C. Enilconazole
The antibiotics in this group bound to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome they interact with protein synthesis
A. Aminopenicillins
B. Polimyxins
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Narrow spectrum penicillins
C. Aminoglycosides
Anticoccidial with Cidal- (killing) effect
A. Clopidol
B. Monensin
C. Robenidine
D. Sulphachloropyrazine
B. Monensin
This antibiotic inhibits cell wall synthesis of bacteria, due to its high nephrotoxicity it is used only topically or orally
A. Penethamat
B. Bacitracin zinc
C. Oxacillin
D. Cefapirin
B. Bacitracin zinc
Antifungal drug that is active against Malasseszia pachydermatis
A. Streptomycin
B. Clotrimazole
C. Griseofulvin
D. Vincristin
B. Clotrimazole
Usually which is the experimental animal in case of “hot plate” test?
A. Mouse
B. Dog
C. Cat
D. Rabbit
A. Mouse
This antibiotic can penetrate well intracellularly
A. Neomycin
B. Penicillin-G
C. Doxycycline
D. Ceftiofur
C. Doxycycline
Which Tetracycline would you recommend to an animal with renal failure?
A. Chlortetracycline
B. Oxytetracycline
C. Tetracycline
D. Doxycycline
D. Doxycycline
When used alone as an anticoccidial agent, it can cause heat-stress in chickens hence not suitable for use in the summer months
A. Halofuginon
B. Diclazuril
C. Narasin
D. Nicarbazine
C. Narasin
This anti-mycoplasmal agent can be concomitantly used with Monesin
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Tylosin
D. Tiamulin
D. Tiamulin
This antiseptic is NOT used for mammary gland disinfection
A. Chlorhexidine
B. Sodium hypochloride
C. Bradophen
D. Povidone iodine
B. Sodium hypochloride
Because of its pharmacokinetic profile it is NOT recommended for treatment of urinary tract infections
A. Amoxicillin-Clavulanic acid
B. Doxamycine
C. Gentamycin
D. Enrofloxacin
D. Enrofloxacin
Imidazole antifungal that can be used only locally?
A. Terbinafine
B. Enilconazole
C. Ketoconazole
D. Itraconazole
B. Enilconazole
Which of the following antibacterial would you apply in an animal with severe renal impairment?
A. Doxycycline
B. Gentamycin
C. Tobramycin
D. Enrofloxacin
A. Doxycycline
Antibacterial drug with bactericidal mode of action
A. Erythromycin
B. Spectinomycin
C. Lincomycin
D. Gentamycin
D. Gentamycin
Necessary amount of chlorinated lime for disinfection of drilled wells
A. 100g / 1m (hoc3) water
B. 30g
C. 100g
D. 30g / 1m (hoc3) water
C. 100g
Necessary amount of chlorinated lime for disinfection of dug wells
A. 100g / 1m (hoc3) water
B. 30g
C. 100g
D. 30g / 1m (hoc3) water
D. 30g / 1m(hoc3) water
Which of the listed materials is less sensitive to the presence of organic material remnants?
A. Hypochlorates
B. Aldehydes
C. Iodine containing agents
D. Lincomycin
D. Lincomycin
Administration of this drug to herbivorous rodents is NOT recommended because of the risk of dysbacteriosis?
A. Sulfadimidine
B. Spectinomycin
C. Enrofloxacin
D. Lincomycin
D. Lincomycin
What kind of materials can we use for disinfection of stables if animals are in the building?
A. None of them
B. Surfactants
C. Both of them
D. Enrofloxacin
C. Both of them
Administration of this drug to herbivorous rodents is NOT recommended because of the risk of dysbacteriosis?
A. Gentamycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Sulfamethoxasole
D. Enrofloxacin
B. Clindamycin
NOT bactericidal antibiotic
A. Doxcycline
B. Gentamycin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Enrofloxacin
A. Doxcycline
NOT bactericidal antibiotic
A. Ampicillin
B. Mabrofloxacin
C. Erythromycin
D. Neomycin
C. Erythromycin
Antifungal drug that is active against dermatophytes
A. Fluconazole
B. Nystatin
C. Griseofulvin
D. Enilconazole
C. Griseofulvin
This antifungal can be used for treating fungal infections of the cornea, it is not irritant for the eye:
A. Amphothericin
B. Natamycin
C. Chlorhexidine
D. Acriflavine
B. Natamycin
Are the detergent-based hand disinfectants allowed to be rinsed before surgery?
A. Yes, but not necessary
B. No, it is prohibited
C. Yes, with sterile water
D. Yes, with water
C. Yes, with sterile water
Are the alcohol-based hand disinfectant allowed to be rinsed?
A. Yes, but not necessary
B. No, it is prohibited
C. Yes, with sterile water
D. Yes, with water
B. No, it is prohibited
Locally and systemically applicable anti-fungal
A. Naftifine
B. Enilconazole
C. Thiabendazole
D. Ketoconazole
D. Ketoconazole
Locally and systemically applicable anti-fungal
A. Enilconazole
B. Naftifine
C. Terbinafine
D. Acrifalvine
C. Terbinafine
Its absorption after oral administration is very limited thus it is a good choice for the treatment of enteric infections given orally
A. Neomycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Enrofloxacin
D. Sulfamethoxasole
A. Neomycin
In case of risk septicaemia in swine which drug would you apply in medicated water?
A. Gentamycin
B. Enrofloxacin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Neomycin
B. Enrofloxacin
Hypocalcaemia can occur with the IV administration of this antibiotic
A. Oxytetracycline
B. Gentamycin
C. Enrofloxacin
D. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
A. Oxytetracycline
Aminoglycoside with the best oral absorption
A. Spectinomycin
B. Gentamycin
C. Apramycin
D. Neomycin
C. Apramycin
Combined with Cephalosporins the nephrotoxic effect of this drug can be enhanced
A. Diazepam
B. Enrofloxacin
C. Clavulanic acid
D. Gentamycin
D. Gentamycin
Usual dosage of Dexamethazone
A. Each answer is correct
B. 10 mg / kgBW IV / IM
C. 50 mg / kgBW IV / IM
D. 0.1 mg / kgBW IV / IM
D. 0.1 mg / kgBW IV / IM
Primary choice of antibiotics in infections caused by Rickettsia
A. Tetracyclines
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Macrolides
D. Penicillins
A. Tetracyclines
Vehicle in licking stones which may have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants
A. Bentonite
B. Bismuth-subgallate
C. Light kaolin
D. Activated charcoal
A. Bentonite
This macrolide can be administered to young horses only in certain cases
A. Tylosine
B. Erythromycin
C. Tilmicosin
D. Tulathromycin
B. Erythromycin
Usual dosage of Diazepam IM/ IV
A. 5-10 mg / bwkg
B. 0.01-0.02 mg / bwkg
C. 0.1-0.5 mg / bwkg
D. 10-20 mg / bwkg
C. 0.1-0.5 mg / bwkg
Which drugs have to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in the possessive of the veterinarian?
A. Schedule 2 & 3
B. Schedule 3 & 4
C. Schedule 1 & 4
D. None of the above
A. Schedule 2 & 3
This ectoparasitic is NOT active against ticks
A. Amitraz
B. Fipronil
C. Pyriprol
D. Imidacloprid
D. Imidacloprid
In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation part is the clinical documentation according to EUDRALEX requirements?
A. Part 1
B. Part 4
C. Part 2
D. Part 3
B. Part 4
In dogs its fast re-administration possibly does not cause emesis
A. Carbachole
B. Neostigmine
C. Apomorphine
D. Ipecacuanha syrup
C. Apomorphine
Given directly after fertilisation it increases the rate of fertility
A. Oestradiol
B. Dinoprost
C. Cabergoline
D. Buserelin
D. Buserelin
Is a Butyrphenone mainly used in swine for stress reduction
A. Fentanyl
B. Droperidone
C. Acepromazine
D. Azeperone
D. Azeperone
It can be given to birds and reptiles for control of subacute egg retention
A. Dinoprost
B. Gonadorelin
C. Etiproston
D. Oxytocin
D. Oxytocin
It is a GHS-category
A. Unknown mechanism of effect
B. Mutagenic
C. Highly toxic
D. Non-toxic for fish
C. Highly toxic
This is a prodrug, in practice is it used only against immature liver flukes, practically inactive against adult flukes and other types of worms
A. Febanel
B. Netobimin
C. Diamphenethide
D. Triclabendazole
C. Diamphenethide
Strongly inhibits the satiety centre in CNS
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B12
C. Diazepam
D. Nandrolone
C. Diazepam
It is not obligatory to keep records about this category of drugs when administered to food producing animals
A. If a drug licensed for humans was used
B. Homeopathic medicines
C. Is the drug was administered according to the user information
D. If the drug was not administered according to the user information
B. Homeopathic medicines
Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible
A. Ketamine
B. Etomidate
C. Thiopental
D. Propofol
B. Etomidate
In the majority of animals this vitamin is not essential
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin C
What method was used for the measurement of the active substance in our pharmacokinetic investigation with chicken?
A. GC
B. Spectrophotometric
C. HPLC
D. Microbiological
B. Spectrophotometric
In the form of a sterile product it can also be given slowly as an IV infusion
A. Tincture
B. Micro-suspension
C. Suspension
D. Emulsion
B. Micro-suspension
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the theoretical plasma concentration maximum using the intravasal pharmacokinetic method?
A. Ct
B. C0
C. Cmaxcc
D. Cmax
B. C0
Usual dosage of Gentamicin
A. 25 mg / bwkg IM
B. 2-4 mg / bwkg IM
C. 50 mg / bwkg IM
D. None of these answers are correct
B. 2-4 mg / bwkg IM
This anthelminthic drug is safe also when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitory compounds
A. Pyrantel
B. Levamisole
C. Flubendazole
D. Piperazine
C. Flubendazole
In this type of prescription the proprietary name of a veterinary licensed medicine is given
A. Prescription of a prepared medicine
B. Prescription of a formulated official medicine
C. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
D. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
D. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopeia?
A. Identification methods
B. Detailed indications in veterinary nature
C. Dosage of drug in humans
D. Detailed indications in human medicine
A. Identification methods
Which bacterium is used in the AMES test?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Salmonella typhimurium
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella typhimurium
Injected SC this drug is appropriate for the treatment of scabies infestation
A. Diazinon
B. Imidacloprid
C. Fipronil
D. Doramectin
D. Doramectin
This antibiotic can penetrate well intracellularly
A. Procaine-penicillin
B. Gentamicin
C. Benzathine-penicillin
D. Oxytetracycline
D. Oxytetracycline
This drug has a very low therapeutic index, its IV administration is forbidden
A. Imidocrab dipropionate
B. Sodium stibogluconate
C. Meglumine antimonite
D. Sulphonamides
A. Imidocrab dipropionate
The general anaesthetic with a narrow therapeutic margin
A. Thiopental
B. Etomidate
C. Peopofol
D. Ketamine
A. Thiopental
It has poor penetration into the CNS therefore is it less sedative than the other three substances
A. Hydroxyzine
B. Cetirizine
C. Chloropyramine
D. Cyproheptadine
B. Cetirizine
What is the formulation type of Burow ointment (Unguentum aluminium acetici tartarici)?
A. Water in oil (W / O) type emulsion
B. Oil in water (O / W) type emulsion
C. Real suspension
D. Oil suspension
A. Water in oil (W / O) type emulsion
Mode of action of lincosamimdes
A. Detergent-like activity
B. Bacteriostatic
C. Time-dependent bactericidal
D. Concentration-dependent bactericidal
B. Bacteriostatic
The primary choice of antibiotic for the treatment of swine erysipelas is
A. Enrofloxacin
B. Penicillin
C. Gentamicin
D. Doxycycline
B. Penicillin
Most effective in the treatment of chemotherapeutics-induced vomiting, but less effective in other cases
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Tiethyleprazine
C. Maropitant
D. Ondansetron
D. Ondansetron
A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole
A. Cannot penetrate into the milk thus no WP for milk has to be stated
B. Has to have at least 28 days WP for meat
C. Must not be used in food producing animals
D. Requires 0 days withdrawal period in for producing animals
C. Must not be used in food producing animals
Which factor has to be eliminated from a poultry farm to decrease the problems caused by coccidia?
A. Vitamin K deficiency
B. Preventing contact with swine
C. Overflowing troughs, leaking water pipes
D. High ammonia content in the air
C. Overflowing troughs, leaking water pipes
What is meant by residual drug?
A. The drug metabolites remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
B. The total amount of the agent remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal treated with the pharmaceutical product
C. The total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat from the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
D. The total amount of the given agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
D. The total amount of the given agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
During the late pregnancy its application is only allowed while the soft birth canal is dilated
A. Prolactin
B. Oxytocin
C. Etiproston
D. None of them
B. Oxytocin
Long term administration of this laxative drug can lead to the paralysis of plexus myentericus
A. Aloe
B. Liquid paraffin
C. Magnesium sulphate
D. Lactulose
A. Aloe
Anticoccidial, can be administered via drinking water
A. Diclazuril
B. Toltrazuril
C. Monensin
D. Clopidol
B. Toltrazuril
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the area under the concentration-time curve from zero up to… after single administration?
A. AUC
B. MRT
C. C0
D. GLT
A. AUC
Anticoccidial with Cidal- (killing) effect
A. Sulfaquinloxaline
B. Amprolium
C. Semduramicin
D. Trimethoprim
C. Semduramicin
Important indication for the use of tetracycline
A. Treatment of intestinal infections
B. Tuberculosis
C. Metritis, foot rotting, local treatment of wounds
D. Swine dysentery
C. Metritis, foot rotting, local treatment of wounds
Which of the following drugs would you administer to a risk patient with cardiovascular disease?
A. Morphine
B. Acepromazine
C. Midazolam
D. Xylazine
C. Midazolam
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy
A. Xylazine
B. Diazepam
C. Acepromazine
D. Phenobarbital
C. Acepromazine
What is the purpose of residual drug analysis?
A. Determination of the MRL value
B. The determination of withdrawal time according to food-health legislation
C. Kinetics examination of the metabolism of the residual drug
D. The investigation of the metabolism of the residual drug
B. The determination of withdrawal time according to food-health legislation
Juvenile-hormone analounge, that is combined with fipronil in a spot-on preparation
A. Fenoxicarb
B. Metopren
C. Imidacloprid
D. Lufenurone
B. Metopren
Concentration of Atropine in mydriatic eye drops
A. 0.03%
B. 0.25-0.5%
C. 0.5-1%
D. 1-2%
C. 0.5-1%
In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation is the safety documentation according to EUDRALEX requirements?
A. Part 1
B. Part 4
C. Part 2
D. Part 3
D. Part 3
Aminocyclitol, its mode of action is bacteriostatic
A. Streptomycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Spectinomycin
D. Neomycin
C. Spectinomycin
Organisms resistant to the macrolides
A. Most of Gram+
B. E.coli and Salmonella spp.
C. Mycoplasmae
D. Fastidious Gram-
B. E.coli and Salmonella spp.
Usual dosage of Tylosin in poultry via drinking water
A. 10-20 mg / l
B. 500 mg / l
C. 2-10 mg / l
D. 50 mg / l
B. 500 mg / l
Which drug would you apply for the treatment of horse-botfly-larval infestation?
A. Foxim pour-on
B. Fenbendazole orally
C. Spraying with amitraz
D. Moxidectin orally
D. Moxidectin orally
This drug - because of its strong cycloplegic properties - can be applied as an eye drop in uveitis to decrease pain?
A. Atropine
B. Tetracaine
C. Pilocarpine
D. Procaine
A. Atropine
