Final (OB|GYN) Flashcards

1
Q

Which vaccine should be avoided

A

Live Vaccines
- Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR)
- Varicella (VZV))

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2
Q

Which vaccines may be given to a pregnant mother?

A

1 - COVID
2 - FLU
3 - TDAP

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3
Q

Nursing interventions for Late Decelerations on fetal monitor strip.

A

1 - Reposition
2 - Increase IV Fluids
3 - Oxygen

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4
Q

How long should you avoid pregnancy after receiving a Rubella Vaccine?

A

3 months

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5
Q

What is the reflection of fetal cerebral oxygenation and fetal reserve?

A

Variability

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6
Q

Which STI is contraindicated for breastfeeding?

A

HIV

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7
Q

CNS depressant; relaxes smooth muscle; inhibits uterine activity. Neuro protection of the neonate.

A

Magnesium Sulfate

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8
Q

Beta-Adrenergic Agonist; Relaxes smooth muscle; Inhibits uterine activity; Bronchodilator

A

Terbutaline

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9
Q

Painless bright red vaginal bleeding during second or third trimester from stretching or thinning of lower uterine segment.

A

Placenta Previa

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10
Q

How is Placenta Previa diagnosed?

A

Ultrasound

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11
Q

The placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment such that it completely or partially covers the cervix or is close enough to the cervix to cause bleeding when the cervix dilates or the lower uterine segment effaces.

A

Placenta Previa

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12
Q

Placenta Previa:
Abdominal examination usually reveals a _____, _______, non-tender ______ with ________ tone.

A

Abdominal examination usually reveals a soft, relaxed, non tender uterus with normal tone.

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13
Q

3 things that should be avoided if a patient has placenta previa.

A

1 - Vaginal Exams
2 - Rectal Exams
3 - Intercourse

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14
Q

What is the premature separation of the placenta.

A

Placenta Abruption

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15
Q

Painful vaginal bleeding; Abdominal pain; Uterine tenderness; Board-like abdomen

A

Placenta Abruption

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16
Q

Mild-to-severe uterine hypertonicity is present. Pain is mild to severe and localized over one region of the uterus or diffusely over the uterus with board-like abdomen.

A

Placenta Abruption

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17
Q

Shortening and thinning of the cervix during the first stage of labor is?

A

Effacement

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18
Q

The enlargement or widening of the cervical opening and the cervical canal that normally occurs once labor has begun is?

A

Dilation

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19
Q

What marks the end of the first stage of labor?

A

Full cervical dilation

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20
Q

What is the first stage of labor?

A

Cervical DIlation

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21
Q

What is stage 2 of labor?

A

Delivery of the baby

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22
Q

What is stage 3 of labor?

A

Placenta Delivery

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23
Q

What is stage 4 of labor?

A

Post-Partum (Recovery)

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24
Q

Which is the longest stage of labor?

A

Stage 1

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25
Q

As the cervix is stretched what is released that stimulates contractions?

A

Oxytocin

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26
Q

This stage of labor is from the time the cervix is fully dilated to the birth of the infant.

A

Second Stage

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27
Q

What are the two phases in the first stage of labor?

A

1 - Latent
2 - Active

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28
Q

This stage of labor lasts from the infant’s birth to expulsion of the placenta.

A

3rd Stage of Labor

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29
Q

This stage of labor begins with the delivery of the placenta and includes at least the 1st 2 hours after birth.

A

4th Stage of Labor

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30
Q

This stage of labor is more progress in effacement of the cervix and little increase in descent.

A

1st Stage of Labor (Latent Phase)

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31
Q

This stage of labor is more rapid dilation of the cervix and increased rate of descent of the presenting part.

A

1st Stage of Labor (Active Phase)

32
Q

Which stage of labor is the fetus continues to descend passively through the birth canal and rotate to an anterior position as a result of ongoing uterine contractions?

A

2nd Stage of Labor (Latent Phase)

33
Q

Which stage of labor is the woman has strong urges to bear down as the presenting part of the fetus descends and presses on the stretch receptors of the pelvic floor?

A

2nd Stage of Labor (Active Pushing Phase)

34
Q

Which stage of labor does the placenta normally separates from the uterine wall?

A

3rd Stage of Labor

35
Q

Which stage of labor does the woman begins to recover physically from birth?

A

4th Stage of Labor

36
Q

Normal range of FHR at term?

A

110 -160bpm

37
Q

When does the anterior fontanel close?

A

18 months

38
Q

When does the posterior fontanel close?

A

6 - 8 weeks

39
Q

What is the newborn priority if a mother has pre gestational or gestational diabetes?

A

Check blood glucose 1hr after birth

40
Q

What is the first sign of respiratory distress in newborns?

A

Tachypnea

41
Q

This edematous area, present at birth, extends across suture lines of the skill and usually disappears spontaneously within 3-4 days.

A

Caput Succedaneum

42
Q

This hematoma at birth is firmer and better defined, does not cross a cranial suture line, and resolves in 2-8 weeks.

A

Cephalhematoma

43
Q

What can occur as a hematoma resolves in an newborn, hemolysis of RBCs occurs and this may result?

A

Hyperbilirubinemia

44
Q

When should Rubella vaccine be given to a mother who just delivered?

A

In the hospital before discharge

45
Q

What is the onset of hypertension without proteinuria after week 20 of pregnancy?

A

Gestational Hypertension

46
Q

What is pregnancy-specific condition In which hypertension and proteinuria develop after 20 weeks of gestation?

A

Preeclampsia

47
Q

What is the onset of seizure activity in a woman with preeclampsia?

A

Eclampsia

48
Q

Women may be diagnosed with this once it is evident that hypertension persists after the postpartum period?

A

Chronic Hypertension

49
Q

The goal of therapy for women with gestational hypertension and preeclampsia without severe features.

A

To ensure maternal safety and to deliver a healthy newborn as close to term as possible.

50
Q

Women diagnosed with severe levels of gestational hypertension or preeclampsia with severe features should be hospitalized immediately for a thorough evaluation of maternal-fetal status and placed on which medication?

A

Magnesium Sulfate

51
Q

What medication prevents eclamptic seizures?

A

Magnesium Sulfate

52
Q

Women with severe levels of gestational hypertension who are less than 34 weeks of gestation have no indication for giving birth immediately may be candidates for which medications?

A

1 - Magnesium Sulfate
2 - Corticosteroids

53
Q

Why is dexamethasone given to a mother with severe levels of gestational hypertension that is less than 34 weeks?

A

To enhance fetal lung maturation

54
Q

What is the priority for a patient with severe features of preeclampsia to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?

A

IV and oral fluids should NOT exceed 125mL/hr

55
Q

You are monitoring a patient who is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate therapy for severe pre-eclampsia. You observe that her previously normal deep tendon reflexes are now undetectable, she is breathing at a significantly slower rate, and she is not responding to verbal stimuli as promptly as before.

Question: Considering these observations, what complication should be immediately suspected and addressed?

A

Magnesium Toxicity

56
Q

Which medication has been found to reduce preeclampsia and adverse outcomes in selected-high-risk women?

A

Low-Dose Aspirin

57
Q

Which medication is given to reverse magnesium toxicity?

A

Calcium Gluconate

58
Q

What is the term for the rhythmic, oscillating movements observed in response to sustained muscle stretching, often seen in patients with significant neurological hyperexcitability, such as severe pre-eclampsia?

A

Clonus

59
Q

What is the term for a family structure that results from divorce and remarriage, typically consisting of stepparents, stepchildren, and stepsiblings?

A

Married-Blended Family

60
Q

What is the term used to describe a traditional family structure consisting of a husband, wife, and their biological or adopted children?

A

Nuclear Family

61
Q

What term describes a family structure that includes grandparents, parents, and grandchildren, living together or maintaining close relationships?

A

Multigenerational Family

62
Q

What is the term for a family structure that encompasses not only the nuclear family but also other relatives such as grandparents, aunts, uncles, and cousins, who may or may not reside together?

A

Extended Family

63
Q

What is the term used to describe amniotic fluid that is tinged with fetal stool, indicating that the fetus may have experienced stress or hypoxia in utero?

A

Meconium-Stained Amniotic Fluid

64
Q

What are the essential steps and maneuvers a healthcare provider should perform when encountering shoulder dystocia during delivery?

A

1 - McRoberts Maneuver
(Flex legs on abdomen)

2 - Apply suprapubic pressure
(NOT fundal pressure)

65
Q

What are the crucial nursing interventions in the event of an umbilical cord prolapse?

A

1 - Manually elevate the presenting part of the fetus off the cord if, using a sterile gloved hand, inserting 2 fingers.

2 - Promptly position the mother to relieve pressure on the cord (Modified Sims, Trendelenburg, or Knee-Chest)

3 - Oxygen

66
Q

What is the gold standard method for breast cancer screening and early detection, widely recognized for its effectiveness?

A

Mammography

67
Q

What diagnostic procedure is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of a suspected pathology, such as a tumor or a suspicious lesion?

A

Needle Biopsy

68
Q

What is the most common benign breast condition, often found to varying degrees in healthy women, characterized by lumpy, sometimes tender breasts, especially in response to hormonal changes?

A

Fibrocystic Breast Changes

69
Q

What is the name of the most common solid benign breast mass, typically seen in adolescents and young women, characterized as a discrete, usually solitary lump that is generally less than 3 cm in diameter?

A

Fibroadenoma

70
Q

hat is the term for a benign, often bilateral, spontaneous nipple discharge that is milky and sticky, commonly seen in pregnancy, but can also occur in other conditions?

A

Galactorrhea

71
Q

What is the name of the benign condition characterized by unilateral, spontaneous nipple discharge that can be serous, serosanguineous, or bloody, typically originating in the terminal nipple ducts?

A

Intraductal Papilloma

72
Q

What is the condition called where the breast presents as painful, red, and inflamed, often with thickened skin that feels warm or hot to the touch, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Cellulitis

73
Q

Which specific genetic mutations significantly elevate a woman’s lifetime risk of developing breast cancer, with some estimates suggesting up to an 85% chance?

A

BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations

74
Q

Nursing interventions for magnesium toxicity?

A

Stop magnesium sulfate

75
Q

A woman has a breast mass that is not well delineated and is nonsalable, immobile, and contender. Which condition is this client experiencing?
a) Fibroadenoma
b) Lipoma
c) Intraductal Papilloma
d) Mammary Duct Ectasia

A

c) Intraductal Papilloma

76
Q
A