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Final NSG 219 and 212 > Final NSG 219 > Flashcards

Final NSG 219 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the clinical marker for cushings syndrome?

A

Moon face
Truncal obeisty
stria on abdomen

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2
Q

what is the onset and peak for rapid insulins?

A

onset: <15 min
peak: 60-90 min
Humalog, Novalog, apidra

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3
Q

what is the onset and peak for short insulins?

A

Onset:30-60 min
Peak: 2-5 hour
Regular, Humulin, Novalin

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4
Q

what is the onset and peak for intermediate insulin?

A

onset: 1-2.5 hr
peak: 4-12 hr
NPH, Lente

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5
Q

what is the onset and peak for long insulin?

A

onset:1-3hr
peak: no peak
Lantus, levemir

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6
Q

what is the exoecred inital diet for IBD?

A

NPO for bowel rest

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7
Q

what anti-constipation med should a client eith a high BUN/creatnine not take?

A

Milk of MAG

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8
Q

what is severe hyperthyroidism called?

A

thyroid storm

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9
Q

what type of carcinoma is a firm nodule with distinct borders, scaling, and ukceration?

A

Squamous cell

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10
Q

what type of carcinoma is small, slowly enlarging papule with pearly borders and erosion, ulceration, and depression in center?

A

Basal cell

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11
Q

what hormone is responsible for increased water resbasorption and urine concentration?

A

ADH

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12
Q

a client complains of a globus sensation, dyspepsia, regurgitation, and pyrosis. what diagnosis do you expect?

A

GERD

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13
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of HHS?

A

change in LOC
Neuro symptoms that resemble a stroke
BS>600
Hyperosmolarity >350
No ketones
dehydration
Increased HR, decreased BP

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14
Q

what is the hallmark sign for kidney stones/ nephroliasis?

A

Pain (unable to be still/pacing/ squirming
sudden, severe, sharp flank pain
renal colic
Hematuria and N/V

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15
Q

a client complains of comiting 15 times over the last 24 hours. What would ecpect an ABG to show?

A

metabolic alkalosis

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16
Q

Normal potassium level?

A

3.5-5

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17
Q

Normal sodium level?

A

135-145

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18
Q

The female nurse needs to take extra precaution and ensure she is wearing gloves when administering which PO medication?

A

Finerasteride (Proscar)

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19
Q

what diagnostic studies would helo confirm a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism?

A

Increased PTH and calcium
Decreased phosphorous
DEXA shows decreased bone density
CT/MRI or US show adenoma

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20
Q

what are the drug classifications for constipation?

A

Bulk forminfg
emollient
hyperosmotic
saline
stimulant

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21
Q

what are the causes of pre-renal AKI?

A

trauma
heart failure
dehydration
shock

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22
Q

what are the causes of intrarenal AKI?

A

interstitual pyelonephritis
golmerulonephritis
drug toxicitiy
nephrosis
ischemia

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23
Q

what are the causes of postrenal AKI?

A

BPH
prostate cancer
cervical cancer
kidney stone
chronic phimosis

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24
Q

what are the 3 burn healing phases?

A

Emergent (resuscitative)
Acute (wound healing)
Rehabilitative (restorative)

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25
Q

what is desmopressin acetate (DDAVP), and what condition does it treat?

A

It increases tubular resbsorption of water and it is used to treat DI

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26
Q

what medications do you hold the morning of dialysis?

A

Blood pressure meds
ATB
Insulins that are not rapid or short

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27
Q

your patient developsa sudden sharp pain in the high epigastric region with a rigid board like abdomen. what ulcer complications does this describe?

A

perforation of a gastric ulcer

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28
Q

what is the magnesium level?

A

1.5-2.0

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29
Q

what is the normal phosphorous level?

A

3.0-4.5

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30
Q

what is an important teaching when taking Psyllium (metamucil)?

A

take with at least 8oz of water

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31
Q

what is the die for hyperparathyroidism?

A

high in fluid and fiber
moderate in calcium

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32
Q

cirrhosis patient need a diet low in?

A

protein and sodium

33
Q

fluid and electrolyte imbalences are common for immediate post of for?

A

illeostomy

34
Q

what is the medical term for a sensation of a lump, retained food bolus, or tightness in the throat?

A

Globus sensation

35
Q

gastritits can be a common cause of which vitamin defiencency?

A

B12

36
Q

a patient with sever diarrhea is at risk for which electrolyte imbalence?

A

Hyponatreamia
Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesemia

37
Q

what is the normal calcium level?

A

8.5-10.5

38
Q

your pateint needs benadryl to relieve pruritis caused from cirrhosis. You know that pruritis is caused from an increases in what lab level?

A

Billirubin

39
Q

what do PPI do?

A

decreases secretion of gastirc acid by stomach

40
Q

which hepatitis could be transmitted through a blood transfusion, expesically before the 1980?

A

B and C

41
Q

the medication that decreases the amount of ammonia in the body through a laxative effect for a cirrhosis pateint is?

A

lactulose (cephulac)

42
Q

what is the fluid volume disorder with JVD, bounding pulse and tachycardia?

A

Fluid volume overload

43
Q

what are the signs of fluid volume deficit?

A

dry membranes
poor skin turgor
rapid/weak/ thready pulse
hypotension
dizziness
weight lodd
sunken eyes

44
Q

esophageal strictures can be a result of what chronic upper GI condition?

A

GERD

45
Q

what are the complications of GERD?

A

esophageal strictires
Barretts esophagus
esophagitis

46
Q

what are the pre op orders for an EGD?

A

NPO 8 hours before
start IV
IV NS
give routine daily meds
Hold rapid insulins since pt is not eating
FSBS

47
Q

when should an ostomy bag be changed?

A

1/3 full

48
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A

Lethargy and fatigue
muscle weakness and paresthesia
intolerance to cold
dry skin, loss of body hair
bradycardia
constipation
cardiac enlargement
menstrual distrubances

49
Q

what type of esophagitis is caused by an allergic reaction?

A

Esonophilic esophagitis

50
Q

what is the difference between somagyi and dawn phenominon?

A

Somagyi: high BS in AM with Low BS at night
- increase bedtime snack, decrease insulin

Dawn: high BS in AM with high BS at night
- decrease bedtime snack, increase bedtime insulin

51
Q

what does good pasture syndrome lead to?

A

auto immune glomerulonephritis

52
Q

what are the PPI’s?

A

Dexlansoprazole (dexilant)
esometprazole (nexium)
lansoprazole (prevacid)
emeprazole (prilosec)
Zegrid
pantoprazole (protonix)
rabeprazole (aciphex)

53
Q

what is the most common sife effect of pyriudum?

A

orange urine

54
Q

what are the signs/symptoms of DI?

A

Increased: UOP, sodium, osmolarity, hematocrit, HR and thirst
Decreased: gravity and BP

55
Q

why is an NG tube placed for someone with pancreatitis?

A

To decrease pancreatic stimulation (rest the pancreas)
decrease N/V

56
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of DKA?

A

BS 400-600
osmotic diuresis (polyuria)
dehyrdation
loss of electrolytes
N/V
abdominal pain
kussmauls respirations (fruity smell)
metabolic acidosis

57
Q

what is the CKD diet?

A

Low:
potassium, protein, sodium, phosphoros and fluid

increase: calcium

58
Q

what is the appropraite communication rechnique when calling a physician

A

SBAR
Situation:
Background:
Assessment:
recommendation:

59
Q

what are the abdominal surgery complications?

A
  1. DVT: give heparin ot Lovenox
  2. Gas pain: encourage walking
  3. Constipation: encourage fluids, ambulation, and avoid opiods
  4. iileus: encourage fluids, ambulation, and avoid opiods
  5. urinary retention: post void resdiual
  6. hemmorage: monitor VS, abdominal assesments and dressing changes
60
Q

what are the drugs classifications for IBD?

A

AMinosalicylates
antimicrobals
corticosteroids,
immunosuppresants
biological targeted therapy

61
Q

SIADH

A

Fluid overload/ Hyponatremia
Decreased UOP
Wright gain w/o edema
HTN, tachycardia,
Decreased osmolaritty
Concentrated urine
Increased gravity

62
Q

what type of hepatitis is most linked to IV drug use and has been associated with outbreaks amoung HIV and men?

A

hep C

63
Q

what hepatitis has a vaccine?

A

hep A and B

64
Q

which hepatitis has a fecor oral route transmission?

A

hep A and E

65
Q

which hepatitis is a defective virus?

A

hep D

66
Q

what is the difference in appearance between type 1 and type 2 diabetes

A

type 1 is normally thin while type 2 is overweight

67
Q

what are the risk factors for testicular cancer?

A

undescended testes, family hx, orchitits, HIV, maternal exposure to exogenous estrogen

68
Q

a client comes into the ED c/o abd pain and has a hx of pancreatitis. what enzymes wpuld the nurse expect to be tested?

A

amylase and lipase

69
Q

how many ml is 1 oz?

A

30ml

70
Q

What can develop after bariatric surgery?

A

Dumping syndrome

71
Q

What is the diet instructions after bariatric surgery?

A

Eat small multiple meals to prevent N/V and dumping syndrome

72
Q

What can a pt develop after bariatric surgery?

A

B12 deficiency and hypocalcemia

73
Q

What are the signs of hypovolemic shock?

A

Hypotension
Weak threads pulse with tachycardia
Anxiety/agitation
Cool clammy skin
Confused
Decreased to no UOP
Pallor
Rapid breathing
Sweating moist skin
LOC

74
Q

What is done in the emergent phase of burn management?

A

IV LR
Treatment for hyponatreamia and hyperkalemia
Pain management

75
Q

When does wound care start in burn management?

A

Only after fluid replacement and airway is complete

76
Q

What is done in the acute phase of burn management?

A

Wound care/debridment
Prevent infection
Nutrition therapy
Pain management

77
Q

What happens with a sudden withdraw from coritosteroid therapy?

A

Addisonian crisis

78
Q

What is the form of stool for a colostomy?

A

More formed

Final NSG 219 and 212 (2 decks)

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