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Med Micro Final Exam > Final Material > Flashcards

Final Material Flashcards

1
Q

Influenza belongs to which of the following virus families?

A

orthomyxoviridae

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2
Q

Projecting from the outer envelope of the influenza virus are 2 kinds of glycoprotein spikes. They are:

A

hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

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3
Q

The hemagglutinin of influenza:

A

binds to sialic acid

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4
Q

What are the target(s) of anti-virals that are used to treat influenza?

A

the viral neuraminidase and viral uncoating in the endocytic vesicle

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5
Q

Which of the following is an example of a segmented virus?

A

influenza

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6
Q

The neuraminidase of influenza:

A

cleaves sialic acid

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7
Q

Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?

A

it results in new subtypes over time

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8
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the prevention and treatment of influenza is correct?

A

the influenza vaccine contains several serotypes of virus

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9
Q

Influenza is a viral infection that infects:

A

upper and lower respiratory tract

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10
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the major changes in influenza antigenic type?

A

antigenic shift

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11
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the systemic effects of influenza (body aches, high fever, and headache)?

A

production of cytokines and interferons by the immune response

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12
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT recommended for use in the US for the treatment of influenza?

A

amantadine

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13
Q

Which of the following injections can be safely given to a child undergoing chemotherapy for leukemia?

A

influenza vaccine

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14
Q

Which of the following is the target cell receptor for influenza virus?

A

sialic acid on epithelial cells

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15
Q

The M2 channel inhibitor influenza drugs interfere with which of the following steps of the influenza life cycle?

A

nucleic acid uncoating

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with influenza epidemics

A

influenza C

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17
Q

The viral genome of influenza is composed of:

A

8 segments of ssRNA (negative sense)

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18
Q

How many types of influenza are there?

A

3

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19
Q

Which type of influenza is the worst?

A

A

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20
Q

Which type of influenza causes mild respiratory distress?

A

C

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21
Q

How many different HA and NA are there?

A

16 HA

9 NA

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22
Q

Does antigenic shift or drift cause more dramatic changes?

A

antigenic shift

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23
Q

Antigenic ___ is perhaps a result of 2 viruses infecting the same cell and swapping segments

A

shift

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24
Q

All subtypes of influenza can be found in ___

A

birds

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25
Q

Systemic effects of influenza are due to:

A

immune response (interferons)

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26
Q

Local effects of influenza are due to:

A

cell changes (mucus secretion; epithelial damage)

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27
Q

How long is someone with influenza contagious?

A

contagious 1 day before symptoms to 5 days after symptoms

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28
Q

___ causes acute encephalopathy in children and is a complication of flu or chicken pox after aspirin use

A

Reyes syndrome

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29
Q

What’s the best test to diagnose influenza?

A

Rapid Ag testing (nasopharyngeal specimen usually the best)

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30
Q

What do you do if the rapid ag test for influenza is negative?

A

may still treat for flu b/c false negative is common due to the fact that the Ab present in test can’t be 100% accurate for the antigen you’re infected with

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31
Q

What indicates a positive rapid Ag test for influenza?

A

a line on the test

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32
Q

antigenic __ occurs less often than ___

A

shift; drift

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33
Q

Where do influenza pandemics usually begin?

A

in china

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34
Q

False ___ rapid Ag testing for influenza is more common than false ___

A

negative; positive

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35
Q

The two drugs used for influenza are ___ and ___ and are considered to be:

A
  1. oseltamivir (tamiflu)
  2. zanamivir (relenza)

neuraminidase inhibitors

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36
Q

The 2 drugs used to treat influenza treat which types?

A

A and B

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37
Q

Zanamivir (Relenza) is not recommended for use in who?

A

people with underlying respiratory disease (asthma, COPD, etc) b/c it’s an inhalation

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38
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitors act by:

A

blocking the release of the virion particle by not allowing sialic acid to be cleaved

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39
Q

Fluzone High-Dose is a new influenza tx formulation that is for:

A

people 65 or older

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40
Q

The intradermal flu vaccine is approved for the use in:

A

adults 18-64

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41
Q

The inactivated flu vaccine is grown in __, purified and inactivated with ___

A

egg; formalin

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42
Q

The live, attenuated intranasal flu vaccine is approved for:

A

ages 2-49 with no underlying illness and not pregnant

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43
Q

Rotavirus belongs to which family?

A

Reoviridae

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44
Q

Norovirus belongs to which family?

A

Calciviridae

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45
Q

A 6-month old child develops symptoms of a respiratory tract infection. Which one of the following organisms is LEAST likely to cause this infection?

A

rotavirus

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46
Q

The new rotavirus vaccine is called a pentavalent reassortant vaccine. Where are the reassortant virus segments coming from?

A

some of the RNA segments come from human rotavirus and some of the RNA segments come from bovine rotavirus

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47
Q

What makes the structure of reoviridae unique?

A

It has a double layered capsid; some properties of enveloped virus during replication but really its a naked virus

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48
Q

Which virus family includes the varicella virus?

A

herpes virus

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49
Q

The hepatitis virus that is described as an enveloped DNA virus of the hepadnavirus family is responsible for hepatitis__________.

A

B

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50
Q

Hepatitis B is often spread from mother to offspring:

A

across the placenta

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51
Q

Reactivation of varicella is called herpes zoster or:

A

shingles

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52
Q

Hepatitis A is acquired through the ___ route

A

fecal-oral

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53
Q

Which life stage of Giardia lamblia is responsible for infection?

A

trophozoite

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54
Q

Which cell type is susceptible to HIV infeciton?

A

macrophages

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55
Q

The fever of malaria is due to the

A

release of the merozoites from the hepatocytes

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56
Q

Which of the following is a genital tract infection that is caused by a protozoan?

A

trichomoniasis

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57
Q

The chronic degenerative brain disease that is associated with cannibalism is:

A

kuru

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58
Q

The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and the presence of clue cells is

A

trichomoniasis

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59
Q

Which of the following is the recommended procedure for the prevention of Hepatitis C in healthcare workers?

A

there isn’t a treatment that is effective in the prevention of hepatitis C infections

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60
Q

Which of the following best describes the severity of hepatitis B infections in infants?

A

less severe acute disease, but more likely to be chronically infected

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61
Q

The reverse transcriptase inhibitors of HIV owe their effectiveness to their resemblance to the normal purine and pyrimidine building blocks of

A

nucleic acids

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62
Q

The cells that are infected by the Epstein-Barr virus are the

A

B lymphocytes

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63
Q

The DNA virus of the herpesvirus family which is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis is called:

A

Epstein-Barr virus

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64
Q

how many species of plasmodium cause human malaria?

A

many

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65
Q

In which phase of the life cycle is the malaria parasite able to infect its vector?

A

gametocyte

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66
Q

Which of the following enzymes is a target of antiretroviral medicines currently available for treating AIDS?

A

protease

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67
Q

The host cell co-receptor for HIV is:

A

a chemokine receptor

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68
Q

The hepatitis virus that is described as a flavivirus is responsible for hepatitis:

A

C

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69
Q

Which cell type is susceptible to HIV infection?

A

macrophages

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70
Q

Which of the following statements about herpes simplex is true?

A

The herpes lesions are painful, but benign

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71
Q

The chronic degenerative brain disease that is associated with cannibalism

A

Kuru

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72
Q

Acyclovir only works in herpes simplex infected cells b/c the drug must first be activated by the viral:

A

kinase

73
Q

The cells that are infected by the cytomegalovirus are the:

A

T lymphocytes

74
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis and follow up for occupational exposure to HIV includes all of the following except

A

administration of immunoglobulin

75
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission of HIV?

A

giving blood

76
Q

Reyes syndrome in children is:

A

an acute encephalopathy after aspirin use (A-flu or chicken pox after aspirin use)

77
Q

Which of the following enzymes is a target of antiretroviral medicines currently available for treating AIDS?

A

reverse transcriptase

78
Q

Which of the following is most likely to lead to chronic or persistent hepatitis

A

hepatitis C

79
Q

What is a Dane particle?

A

The infectious hepatitis B virion

80
Q

how many antigenic types of hepatitis A virus are known today?

A

one

81
Q

Retroviruses encode an enzyme called reverse transcriptase. The function of the reverse transcriptase enzyme is

A

RNA dependent DNA polymerase activity

82
Q

Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?

A

it results in new subtypes over time

83
Q

A patient with jaundice and dark urine tested positive for HAV IgM antibody. The physician can tell the patient that

A

he may transmit the infection to family members by person to person spread

84
Q

Human papillomavirus can cause lead to cancer in humans and is most commonly associated with

A

anogenital cancers

85
Q

AZT acts as an antiviral by interfering with which of the following steps in HIV replication:

A

reverse transcription of the viral genome

86
Q

Where are the adherence spikes of an enveloped virus located?

A

in the envelope

87
Q

Which of the following virus(es) use reverse transcriptase for viral replication?

A

retroviruses

88
Q

Parvovirus B19 grows in

A

red blood cell precursors

89
Q

Where does viral nucleic acid replication occur during a small pox infection?

A

cytoplasm

90
Q

Which of the following does not lead to chronic liver disease?

A

hepatitis A

91
Q

Which of the following is the most common post-exposure prophylaxis for hepatitis A exposure?

A

immune serum globulin (passive immunization)

92
Q

Which of the following Hepatitis B panels would indicate a chronic infection with hepatitis B?

A

HBsAg positive, anti-HBc Ab postitive, anti-HBc IgM negative, anti-HBs Ab negative

93
Q

what kind of vaccination is the hepatitis B vaccine?

A

sub-unit vaccination (HepBsAg)

94
Q

Which of the following viruses is the most infectious following a needle stick to a non-immune person?

A

hepatitis B

95
Q

During a latent infection with herpes simplex where is the viral nucleic acid?

A

free in the cytoplasm of the sensory nerve ganglion

96
Q

The heterophile Ab used in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is

A

Non specific Ab produced during an infection with EBV

97
Q

Exanthem caused by a herpesvirus:

A

roseola

98
Q

Upon uncoating of the HIV nucleic acid, which of the following steps happens first?

A

synthesis of viral DNA using the RNA as a template

99
Q

Which of the following infections is typically responsible for the “slapped face” rash?

A

parvovirus B19

100
Q

The heterophile Abs used in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis are:

A

non specific Abs produced during an infection with EBV

101
Q

The new vaccine to target cervical cancer actually contains antigens of:

A

the serotypes of HPV that are most often associated with cervical cancer

102
Q

The M2 channel inhibitor influenza drugs interfere with which of the following steps of the influenza life cycle?

A

nucleic acid uncoating

103
Q

A 19 year old man presented with a week long history of jaundice and dark yellow urine. He also complained of GI symptoms (nausea, vomiting, low-grade fever, and abdominal pain). He had recently returned from a vacation in Venezuela, where he said he consumed lots of shellfish. Which of the following infectious agents is likely to have caused his jaundice?

A

hepatitis A

104
Q

What type of cells do papilloma viruses infect?

A

basal keratinocytes

105
Q

What is the best explanation for the selective action of acyclovir in herpes simplex virus-infected cells?

A

a viral kinase phosphorylates the acyclovir more effectively than the host cell kinases

106
Q

The eradication of small pox was facilitated by several features of the virus. Which of the following contributed the LEAST to eradication?

A

it multiplies in the cytoplasm of infected cells

107
Q

A 20 year old man, who for many years had received daily injections of growth hormone prepared from human pituitary glands, develops difficulty with muscle movements, slurred speech, and dementia. At autopsy the brain showed widespread neuronal degeneration and many vacuoles. There is no evidence of virus particles. The most LIKELY diagnosis is

A

creutzfeldt-jakob disease

108
Q

A 30 year old man develops fever and jaundice. The physician checks for antibody response to HepBsAg (anti-HepBsAg) and finds it to be negative. Which of the following additional test would be MOST useful to establish if the patient has hepatitis due to Hepatitis B?

A

Anti-HepBc Ab

109
Q

which of the following is characterized as a defective virus?

A

hepatitis D

110
Q

Which of the following is the normal function of the HIV co-receptor CCR5?

A

chemokine signaling

111
Q

Which of the following steps of the HIV lifecycle is NOT currently targeted by an anti-viral agent?

A

integration of viral nucleic acid into the host DNA

112
Q

which of the following is the typical route of transmission for varicella-zoster virus?

A

respiratory droplets

113
Q

Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C are both similar in that they both affect the liver. Which of the following correctly identifies a difference between these 2 viruses or the diseases that they cause?

A

one is an RNA virus, and the other is a DNA virus

114
Q

Where do you find the Plasmodium parasites when the patient is experiencing the recurrent fever associated with malaria?

A

free in the blood, having not yet entered new red blood cells

115
Q

hepatitis D infection occurs as a co-infection with which of the following?

A

HBV

116
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT recommended for use in the US for the treatment of influenza?

A

amantadine

117
Q

In order to cause an infection the papilloma virus must infect cells of which cellular layer?

A

basal layer of the epithelium

118
Q

The probability that a patient will develop cirrhosis of the liver following infection with hepatitis A is __________ than the probability of developing cirrhosis of the liver following Hepatitis B infection

A

less than

119
Q

Which of the following viral components is important for the adherence of HIV to its target cell?

A

gp120

120
Q

What are the antigen components of the GARDASIL vaccine?

A

papilloma capsid proteins

121
Q

Which step in viral replication is inhibited by HIV protease inhibitors

A

viral assembly

122
Q

Which of the following is the normal function of the HIV co-receptor CXCR4?

A

chemokine signaling

123
Q

Which type of cells typically contain the latent virus following infectious mononucleosis?

A

B lymphocytes

124
Q

A 28 year old man visits student health because he has a rash on his face and neck. He says that he has been feeling run down, has a cough, and runny nose. Upon examination the physician finds conjunctivitis, small lesions on the insides of his cheeks, and fever. Prevention of this infection is typically accomplished by

A

vaccination with live attenuated virus vaccine

125
Q

Premalignant cells are seen in a pap smear from a 40 year old woman. Which agent is most likely to be present in these cells?

A

HPV type 16

126
Q

A 38 year old man complains of jaundice, dark urine, abdominal pain, and malaise. Serologic tests are positive for antibody specific for HBsAg, and negative for antibody specific for HBcAg and negative for HBsAg. Which interpretation is most consistent with these findings?

A

the patient is not infected with HBV

127
Q

Which of the following viral enzymes is associated with herpes simplex one viruses?

A

thymidine kinase

128
Q

Which of the following is the hepatitis that we should be most concerned about if a food handler in a restaurant has hepatitis?

A

HAV

129
Q

Mad cow disease is caused by which of the following infectious agents

A

prions

130
Q

Which of the following currently carries the greatest risk for acquiring hepatitis C?

A

injecting illegal drugs

131
Q

Which of the following is a single-stranded DNA virus?

A

parvovirus B19

132
Q

the herpes viruses are able to evade the immune response by:

A

establishing a latent infection

133
Q

A cruise ship calls in epidemiology experts to evaluate an outbreak of disease in passengers on a cruise ship. The symptoms include diarrhea, vomiting, nausea, and headache. A small, single stranded, positive-sense RNA virus with an icosahedral non-enveloped capsid is isolated from stool samples. Which virus is most likely the cause of the disease?

A

norwalk virus

134
Q

These cause Mad cow disease and variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

A

prions

135
Q

parvovirus b19 grows in:

A

red blood cell precursors

136
Q

Which of the following patients are most likely to develop a chronic Hepatitis B infection if they acquire a hepatitis B infection?

A

children under the age of 5 years

137
Q

Which of the following hepatitis virus infections is acquired through ingestion of the virus?

A

hep A

138
Q

Which of the following is a vaccination that NC pharmacists may administer

A

zoster vaccine

139
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the major changes in influenza antigenic type?

A

antigenic shift

140
Q

infectious mononucleosis is caused by which of the following viruses?

A

Epstein-Barr virus

141
Q

Which of the following best describes the reverse transcriptase of HIV?

A

RNA dependent DNA polymerase

142
Q

Where do you find the Plasmodium parasites when the patient is experiencing the recurrent fever associated with malaria?

A

free in the blood

143
Q

What is the role of the viral thymidine kinase in the action of acyclovir, the antiviral used in the treatment of herpes simplex 1?

A

the thymidine kinase adds the first phosphate to acyclovir, thereby activating it

144
Q

Which of the following can lead to an acute-onset watery diarrhea with a particularly short incubation period (hours), almost like a toxin mediated illness?

A

norovirus

145
Q

The rotavirus vaccine is

A

a live oral vaccine created by genetic reassortment

146
Q

which of the following is a protozoan infection that can lead to lesions in the eye if it is acquired congenitally?

A

toxoplasmosis

147
Q

Azidothymidine (AZT) inhibits this viral process.

A

nucleic acid synthesis

148
Q

How does HIV leave the host cell?

A

budding

149
Q

Herpes simplex 1 is able to reactivate because is remains latent in

A

the axons of sensory nerve ganglia

150
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the systemic effects of influenza (body aches, high fever, and headache)?

A

production of cytokines and interferons by the immune response

151
Q

Which of the following is the PEP for a known percutaneous exposure to Hepatitis C virus?

A

There is not a PEP for Hepatitis C

152
Q

Patients with either acute or chronic hepatitis B infections are the only ones who can be infected with this virus.

A

hepatitis D

153
Q

This Herpes virus causes chicken pox.

A

varicella zoster

154
Q

Which of the following is the Hepatitis B vaccine currently used in the United States?

A

inactivated, subunit vaccine

155
Q

Which of the following is the HIV component that mediates the adherence to the host cell?

A

gp120

156
Q

The serotypes of papilloma virus that are most often associated with cancer are`

A

16 and 18

157
Q

Which of the following is the target of the anti-flu drugs currently in use (Oseltamivir and Zanamivir)?

A

viral neuraminidase

158
Q

which of the following is the currently used hepatitis B vaccine in the US?

A

subunit (viral component)

159
Q

orthomyxoviridae viruses have which of the following genome?

A

segmented, RNA genome

160
Q

Fungi and bacteria share which of the following morphological or physiological characteristics?

A

Cytoplasmic membrane surrounded by a cell wall

161
Q

8-year old child develops a coin-sized, round itchy skin lesion on the right side of her neck. The peripheral area of this lesion is slightly elevated and clearly demarcated (contains a clearly marked edge) from the healthy skin. The first measure the physician should take is to

A

microscopically examine a KOH treated scraping of the affected area

162
Q

Dimorphism in fungi refers to the ability of

A

certain fungi to grow in 2 forms (yeast and hyphae)

163
Q

Dermatophytosis is a fungal infection that

A

can be on the hair, skin or nails

164
Q

polyene antifungals target which of the following fungal structures?

A

ergosterol in the cell membrane

165
Q

Candida vaginitis is an example of a(n):

A

endogenously acquired mycoses

166
Q

Cutaneous mycoses known as tinea are caused by

A

fungi from several different genera

167
Q

Primary systemic mycoses caused by Histoplasma are acquired from

A

the inhalation of the spore form

168
Q

Which of the following statements about fungal cells walls is correct?

A

the major components of fungal cell walls are polysaccharides

169
Q

The term dimorphic fungi indicates that the fungi

A

are able to grow as yeasts or molds depending on the environmental conditions

170
Q

Which of the following would be considered a dermatophytosis?

A

tinea cruris

171
Q

Most cases of Aspergilliosis are acquired by:

A

inhalation of the organism from the environment

172
Q

Giardia is acquired by:

A

ingestion of Giardia lamblia cysts

173
Q

Which of the following can lead to malaria with relapses of up to a year

A

Plasmodium vivax

174
Q

In the human host the malaria parasites are

A

replicating by asexual replication

175
Q

Pinworms are

A

nematodes

176
Q

Polyene antifungals target which of the following fungal structures?

A

ergosterol in the cell membrane

177
Q

Cutaneous mycoses known as tinea are caused by

A

fungi from several different genera

178
Q

Give one example of an endogenously acquired mycosis:

A

any of the candida infections

Med Micro Final Exam (3 decks)

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