Final Material Flashcards

1
Q

What is learning and how does it relate to memories?

A
  • The process by which experiences change our nervous system and hence our behavior
  • We refer to these changes as memories (memory traces or memory engrams)
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2
Q

What are the different forms memories can take?

A
  • Transient or durable
  • Explicit or implicit
  • Personal or impersonal
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3
Q

Assessing memories is known as ____?

A

Memory retrieval

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4
Q

What’s the cellular basis of long-term memory?

A
  • Neuronal plasticity
  • Physical changes in neurons that support long term learning and memory
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5
Q

What’s neuronal plasticity?

A

The ability of the nervous system to change and adapt

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6
Q

Why do we say the brain is plastic?

A
  • Because it’s easily changed and easily molded into whatever it wants
  • The brain is constantly changing structure and shape according to its environment
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7
Q

What are some physical changes that can occur in the brain?

A
  • Rearrangement of proteins within the brain and within cells
  • Seizures, anesthesia and sleep can all dramatically change/disrupt the ongoing patterns of activity in the brain -> leading to ppl not remembering moment around this event
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8
Q

What do researchers typically measure to identify neuronal plasticity?

A
  • Intrinsic excitability
  • Synaptic strength
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9
Q

What’s intrinsic excitability?

A
  • the number of action potentials a neuron exhibits in response to an influx of positive current
  • the neuron can change the dynamic, change the excitability of neurons (expression of ion channels in the membrane that cause action potentials)
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10
Q

What’s synaptic strength?

A

the amount of positive (or negative) current that enters the postsynaptic neuron when a presynaptic cell has an action potential

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11
Q

What’s synaptic plasticity?

A

A change in the strength of the synaptic connection between two neurons

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12
Q

What is intrinsic excitability determined by?

A

Determined by the number and type of ion channels (leak channels and voltage-gated channels) expressed by the neuron

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13
Q

If a neuron starts making fewer potassium leak channels, what will happen to the resting membrane potential and to the neuron?

A
  • The resting membrane potential will be slightly depolarized
  • The neuron will be more excitable in general (i.e., it will exhibit more action potentials in response to the same excitatory synaptic input)
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14
Q

Enduring changes in synaptic strength are referred to as what?

A
  • Long term potentiation (LTP)
  • Long term depression (LTD)
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15
Q

How do we measure whether a cell is more excitable than another?

A

By sticking a metal wire in the cell and injecting a positive current to see how many and how frequent the action potentials will be in comparison to other cells

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16
Q

What are excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)?

A

Membrane depolarizations that are driven by neurotransmitter release and postsynaptic receptor activation

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17
Q

What’s the difference between Long term potentiation (LTP)
and Long term depression (LTD)?

A

LTP is a stronger synapse and LDP is a weaker synapse

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18
Q

Synaptic plasticity can involve what kind of synaptic changes?

A

Both pre and postsynaptic changes

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19
Q

What are some presynaptic changes that can occur with synaptic plasticity?

A

The amount of voltage-gated calcium channels on presynaptic membrane influences how many vesicles will be released following an action potential

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20
Q

What are some postsynaptic changes that can occur with synaptic plasticity?

A

The amount of neurotransmitter receptors influences the sensitivity of the postsynaptic cell to neurotransmitter

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21
Q

What will happen if you stimulate a lot of the presynaptic side?

A

It’ll trigger a lot of action potentials -> not useful

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22
Q

Where should we measure to see if the synapse got stronger or not?

A

If we do something to make the synapse stronger, we would stimulate again and measure the postsynaptic response to see if synapse got stronger or not

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23
Q

What happens to the subthreshold EPSPs
in recorded cell before and after LTP induction?

A

After the LTP induction in the recorded cell, the subthreshold EPSPs gets more positive or stronger

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24
Q

What happens to calcium voltage-gated channels with LTP induction?

A

They increase in number

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25
Q

What’s habituation?

A

Reduced physiological or behavioural responding to a repeated stimulus

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26
Q

What’s sensitization?

A

Increased sensitivity to a stimulus

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27
Q

How does habituation occur in the sea slug aplysia that has a simple nervous system?

A
  • If its siphon is lightly touched, its gill withdraws reflexively to protect it and survive
  • Repeated light touching of the siphon will reduce the magnitude of the reflex until the Aplysia completely ignores this stimulus because they believe it isn’t threatening anymore
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28
Q

How does sensitization occur in the sea slug aplysia that has a simple nervous system?

A

The sea slug’s response to an electrical shock often becomes greater with additional exposures

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29
Q

Does the sensory neuron of the sea slug’s siphon become less sensitive to touch with habituation?

A

No, it depolarizes the same amount

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30
Q

Has the excitability of the sensory neuron of the sea slug’s siphon changed with habituation?

A

Yes, fewer action potentials (1 vs 2) occur when the siphon is touched

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31
Q

Has the synaptic connection weakened between the sensory and motor neurons of the sea slug’s siphon with habituation?

A

Yes, could be due to:
- Less presynaptic vesicles docking
- Vesicles having less glutamate in them
- Presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels not opening as easily or for as long
- Fewer postsynaptic glutamate receptors
- Postsynaptic glutamate receptors being less sensitive to glutamate or not opening as much or for as long

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32
Q

Has the motor neuron of the sea slug’s siphon become less excitable with habituation?

A

No, it spikes the same amount when depolarized

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33
Q

Has the synaptic connection weakened between the motor neuron and the sea slug’s gill?

A

No, the gill is as sensitive to an action potential in the motor neuron as before

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34
Q

How can cell excitability and synaptic strength be measured?

A

They can be directly measured in brain slice recordings

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35
Q

How are brain slice recordings conducted?

A
  • As soon as we kill the animal, the brain loses oxygen and sugar
  • Goal is to take the brain out within a few minutes and then slice the brain very thin so the oxygen and sugar can fuse within a slice and keep the brain part healthy
  • Putting ice cold saline in circulatory system of an animal in the heart to get a nice clean brain and being able to take the brain out and take a slice of it because the body is freezing
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36
Q

How can you stop a cell from getting an action potential?

A

By constantly hyperpolarizing it

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37
Q

What could long-term potentiation do to dendrite spines?

A

It may convert thin spines into mushroom-shaped spines

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38
Q

What are the 3 components of a deep neural network used in artificial intelligence for pattern recognition?

A
  1. Structure
  2. Objective function
  3. Learning function
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39
Q

What’s the structure component of a deep neural network used in artificial intelligence for pattern recognition?

A

Number of nodes and layers as well as how each node gets activated

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40
Q

What’s the objective function component of a deep neural network used in artificial intelligence for pattern recognition?

A
  • The goal
  • Ex: to label things in the input or to predict what the next input will be or to identify the best action given the input
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41
Q

What’s the learning function component of a deep neural network used in artificial intelligence for pattern recognition?

A

Method of adjusting the strength of each connection to better achieve the objective function

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42
Q

What are the different layers of the deep neural network?

A

Input layer -> hidden layer 1 -> hidden layer 2 -> hidden layer 3 -> output layer

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43
Q

Describe long-term potentiation (LTP)

A
  • Long-term increase in the strength of the connection between two neurons (i.e., increased synaptic strength)
  • Synaptic strengthening occurs when synapses are active while the membrane of the postsynaptic cell is depolarized
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44
Q

What does repeated high-frequency (tetanic) stimulation of the inputs to a neuron do to LTP?

A

It induces it

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45
Q

On which part of the synapse is LTP often initiated?

A

LTP is often initiated on the postsynaptic side (with more neurotransmitter receptors)

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46
Q

Describe long-term depression (LTD)

A

Long-term decrease in the strength of the connection between two neurons (i.e., decreased synaptic strength)

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47
Q

What often causes LTD?

A
  • Persistent low-frequency stimulation of the inputs to a quiet neuron
  • Commonly used is 1 Hz stimulation for 10 minutes
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48
Q

On which part of the synapse is LTD often initiated?

A

LTD is often initiated on the postsynaptic side (with less neurotransmitter receptors)

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49
Q

What can drive presynaptic modifications with long-term potentiation?

A
  • Retrograde signaling of nitric oxide
  • Ex: could cause creation of more vesicles of neurotransmitters
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50
Q

What can drive presynaptic modifications with long-term depression?

A
  • Retrograde endocannabinoid signaling
  • Ex: could cause less calcium-influx per action potential
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51
Q

What kind of stimulation often produces LTP?

A

High frequency stimulation (~100 Hz) for 1 second, repeated a few times every 10 seconds

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52
Q

What kind of stimulation often produces LTD?

A
  • Low frequency stimulation (1Hz) over 5-10 minutes
  • The same number of stimulations as LTP delivered at a slow rate
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53
Q

What needs to happen with the release of neurotransmitter for LTP to occur?

A

The release of neurotransmitter must coincide with a substantial depolarization of the postsynaptic cell (normally associated with an action potential)

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54
Q

What does low and high frequency axon stimulation do to postsynaptic neurons?

A
  • High frequency axon stimulation often causes postsynaptic neurons to spike (summation of EPSPs brings the neuron across threshold)
  • Low frequency stimulation on its own is often not sufficient to get a postsynaptic neuron to spike
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55
Q

NMDA receptors play a large role in what?

A

In learning and memory

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56
Q

What’s an NMDA receptor?

A
  • an ionotropic glutamate receptor that has a large ion pore
  • a coincidence detector
  • a neurotransmitter- and voltage-dependent ion channel
  • When the receptor binds glutamate and opens, magnesium ions try to pass through its pore, but they get stuck in it and block all current flow
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57
Q

How does the NMDA receptor function?

A
  • When the postsynaptic membrane is at the resting potential, Magnesium (Mg2+) blocks the ion channel, preventing calcium (Ca2+) from entering
  • When the membrane is depolarized, the magnesium ion is evicted
  • Thus, the attachment of glutamate to the binding site causes the ion channel to open, allowing calcium ions to enter the dendritic spine
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58
Q

How does glutamate interact with the NMDA receptor?

A
  • If a molecule of glutamate binds with the NMDA receptor, the calcium channel can’t open because the magnesium ion blocks the channel (cell at rest)
  • However, depolarization of the membrane evicts the magnesium ion and unblocks the channel. Now glutamate can open the ion channel and permit the entry of calcium ions
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59
Q

When does the magnesium ion blockage occur in a NMDA receptor?

A

When the membrane potential is below threshold (< -40mV), such as when the cell is at rest

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60
Q

What happens if the NMDA receptor membrane is depolarized (more positive than -40 mV) because of synaptic inputs?

A

Then magnesium ions will not try to enter though the NMDA receptor, and thus they won’t clog the pore

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61
Q

When will Sodium (Na+) and Calcium (Ca2+) ions enter a cell through NMDA receptors?

A

Only when these receptors are bound to glutamate and magnesium (Mg2+) is not clogging the pore

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62
Q

Current flow through the NMDA channel is gated by what?

A

Both glutamate and membrane voltage

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63
Q

What’s an AMPA receptor?

A
  • The glutamate receptor that mediates most excitatory fast synaptic currents in the brain
  • It’s ionotropic and opens upon glutamate binding
  • It lets in sodium ions which cause EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials) that depolarizes neurons
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64
Q

Most glutamate synapses in the brain have what kind of receptors?

A

AMPA and NMDA receptors

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65
Q

What’s Type II calcium-calmodulin kinase (CaMKII)?

A
  • An enzyme that’s activated by calcium influx through NMDA receptors
  • It plays a role in the intracellular signaling cascade that establishes long-term potentiation, by increasing the number of postsynaptic AMPA receptors (in excitatory glutamatergic synapses)
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66
Q

What are the 4 different types of learning?

A
  • Perceptual learning
  • Motor learning
  • Relational learning
  • Stimulus-response learning
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67
Q

What’s perceptual learning?

A
  • Learning to recognize stimuli as distinct entities
  • Brain will make up patterns by paying attention to and attaching meaning to stimuli
  • Putting effort drives learning
  • Ex: learning foreign language
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68
Q

What’s motor learning?

A
  • Learning to make skilled, choreographed movements
  • Actively think about it and focus on it
  • Doing the action repeatedly
  • Procedural learning
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69
Q

What’s relational learning?

A
  • Learning relationships among individual stimuli across space and time
  • Stimulus-Stimulus learning
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70
Q

What’s stimulus-response learning?

A
  • Learning to perform a particular behavior when a particular stimulus is present
  • “Given what you see what’s the best movement or action to take?”
  • Includes classical and instrumental conditioning
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71
Q

How does effort coincide with learning?

A

A good part of learning is automatic but it also focuses on how much effort you put into it

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72
Q

What does the size of the dendritic spine (size of synapse) correlate with?

A

How strong the synapse is

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73
Q

What happens to the dendritic spine after long-term potentiation?

A

It grows in size

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74
Q

Describe associative long-term potentiation?

A
  • The increase in synaptic strength that occurs in weak synapses when they are active right around the time when stronger inputs caused the postsynaptic neuron to spike
  • If the weak stimulus and strong stimulus are applied at the same time, the synapses activated by the weak stimulus will be strengthened
  • If the activity of strong synapses is sufficient to trigger an action potential in the neuron, the dendritic spike will depolarize the membrane of dendritic spines, priming NMDA receptors so that any weak synapses active at that time will become strengthened
  • Pairing 2 inputs together (associating)
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75
Q

What’s Hebb’s rule?

A
  • Hypothesis proposed by Donald Hebb that the cellular basis of learning involves the strengthening of synaptic connections that are active when the postsynaptic neuron fires an action potential
  • “What fires together, wires together” (more strongly than before)
  • The synaptic connection does have to initially exist
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76
Q

What’s an example of classical conditioning on neurons?

A
  • When you hear a tone, the synapse isn’t strong enough to cause you to blink
  • Weak synapse so not enough to depolarize the neuron and cause an action potential
  • When a 1000-Hz tone is presented just before the puff of air to the eye, synapse T (from neuron in auditory system) is strengthened
  • If we pair a tone with an air puff, we get action potentials in both these synapses and overtime, the weaker synapse will get stronger and stronger
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77
Q

Where is it much easier to induce synaptic plasticity?

A

In the hippocampus

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78
Q

What’s a dendritic spike?

A

When the action potential occurs, all the dendrites will be depolarized a bit

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79
Q

What are the 2 types of memory?

A
  • Unconscious memory (implicit memory, nondeclarative memory)
  • Consciously accessible memory (explicit memory, declarative memory)
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80
Q

Describe unconscious memories

A
  • Implicit and nondeclarative
  • Memories that influence behavior in an automatic, involuntary manner
  • Relates to automatic adjustments to perceptual, cognitive, and motor systems that occur beneath the level of conscious awareness
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81
Q

How do we probe unconscious memories?

A

We say “show me”

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82
Q

What are examples of unconscious memories?

A
  • Procedural memories (how to ride a bike)
  • Perceptual memories (how to tell identical twins apart, unconsciously)
  • Stimulus-response memories (salivating in response to a tone)
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83
Q

Describe consciously accessible memories

A
  • Explicit and declarative
  • Memories of events and facts that we can think and talk about
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84
Q

How do we probe consciously accessible memories?

A

We say “tell me”

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85
Q

What 2 types of memories are consciously accessible memories comprised of?

A
  • Episodic memory
  • Semantic memory
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86
Q

What’s episodic memory?

A
  • “Episodes” of your life
  • Personal experiences associated with a time and place
  • Autobiographical memory that involves contextual information and is learned all at once
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87
Q

What’s semantic memory?

A
  • Encyclopedic memory of facts and general information, often acquired gradually over time
  • This knowledge need not be associated with the time or place in which we learned the information
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88
Q

What kind of memory is perceptual learning associated with?

A
  • Implicit memory (unconscious)
  • The basis of recognition & categorization
  • Detecting the sensory irregularities in your environment
  • Largely dependent on the neocortex – sensory association areas/cortexes
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89
Q

What kind of memory is motor (procedural) learning associated with?

A
  • Implicit memory (unconscious)
  • The basis of motor skills (bike riding, ball throwing, etc.…)
  • Involves different brain areas involved in movement
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90
Q

What kind of memory is relational (stimulus-stimulus) learning associated with?

A
  • Explicit and accessible memory (conscious)
  • The basis of declarative memory (episodic and semantic)
  • Largely dependent on the hippocampus and neocortex (visual association cortex)
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91
Q

What kind of memory is stimulus-response learning associated with?

A
  • Implicit (unconscious) and Explicit (conscious) memory
  • The basis of classical (Pavlovian) and instrumental (operant) conditioning
  • Involves different brain areas depending on the stimulus and response
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92
Q

What’s a sensory memory?

A
  • Perceptual memory (exactly what you perceive) that lasts only a couple seconds or less
  • Allows an individual to retain the experience of the sensation slightly longer than the original stimulus
  • Occurs in each of the senses
  • Ex: people often reflexively say “what?” when they hear something while distracted, but then they quickly realize they did hear what was said
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93
Q

What’s short-term memory?

A
  • Lasts for seconds to minutes
  • Only a small fraction of sensory information enters short-term memory
  • Memory capacity of short-term memory is limited to a few items (e.g. digits in a phone number or letters in a name)
  • Length of short-term memory can be extended through rehearsal or thinking about something more
  • Ex: might be able to remember phone number longer if you repeat it to yourself until you write it down
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94
Q

What’s long-term memory?

A
  • Persists after getting distracted and even after a nap
  • Information that’ll be retained from short-term memory is consolidated (thought about over and over) into long-term memory
  • Long-term memories can be retrieved throughout a lifetime and strengthened with increased retrieval
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95
Q

How long do visual sensory memories last vs auditory sensory memories?

A

Visual memories last for hundreds of milliseconds and auditory information could last for 2 seconds

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96
Q

What’s the function of perceptual learning?

A
  • Enables us to recognize and identify object or situations
  • Pattern recognition system
  • With it we can recognize changes/variations in familiar stimuli and respond to those changes
  • Involves changes in the strength of connections between neurons and changes in excitability in primary and association sensory cortices
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97
Q

What’s the function of motor learning?

A
  • Involves learning to make a sequence of coordinated movements
  • We get feedback from our movements from our joints, vestibular system, eyes, ears, etc., then use this information to improve and optimize our movements
  • Rapid component to motor learning as well as a slower process called between-session learning
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98
Q

What’s between-session learning?

A

Process where improvements in motor behavior are seen following a period of memory consolidation (in part during sleep)

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99
Q

What parts of the brain are involved with motor learning?

A
  • Cerebellum
  • Thalamus
  • Basal ganglia
  • Motor cortex
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100
Q

What’s visual agnosia?

A
  • Damage to regions of brain involved in visual perception not only impair ability to recognize visual stimuli but also disrupt people’s memory of visual properties of familiar stimuli
  • Damage to the ventral stream
  • Trouble perceiving the world -> they can see but can’t make sense of it
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101
Q

What happens to people with visual agnosia’s drawings?

A

They are able to copy drawings line by line by looking at the image (can’t see it as a whole), but as soon we take the picture away and they have to draw from memory, they can’t draw it as well

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102
Q

Activation in what part of the brain occurs when someone looks at a picture that involves movement?

A
  • Activation occurs in dorsal stream of parietal lobe
  • They have the perceptual realization and tap into parietal cortex to identify the movement
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103
Q

What’s an unconditioned stimulus and an unconditioned response?

A

US: a stimulus that has inherent value, like food or a painful shock. Some stimuli in our environment trigger innate reflexive behaviours (ex: painful stimuli, fear from loud noises, food in mouth causing salivation, blinking when things fly toward your face)
UR: a behavioural response that is largely innate, hard-wired (unlearned, unconditioned)

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104
Q

What’s a conditioned stimulus and a conditioned response?

A

CS: a stimulus that was initially perceived as neutral (e.g., a tone) but now is perceived as predictive of an US. Conditioned responses are there to prepare for the stimulus (associating a tone with puff in the eye -> blinking when you hear tone)

CR: a behavioural response that occurs in response to a CS. The behaviour is often similar to the UR that was elicited by the US during training

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105
Q

What’s a key aspect of classical conditioning (pavlovian learning) regarding the animal and its environment?

A
  • The animal has no control over its environment
  • The animal can react to things (and we measure these reactions to infer learning), but the animal’s actions do not influence the course of events
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106
Q

What are synonyms of operant conditioning?

A
  • Instrumental conditioning
  • Reinforcement learning
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107
Q

What’s reinforcement learning (operant/instrumental conditioning)?

A
  • Learning from the consequences of your actions, from the receipt of reinforcement or punishment
  • The likelihood of you repeating an action depends on whether it was previously reinforced or punished
  • Animals are always exploring their environment and sometimes their actions have consequences
  • Instrumental behaviours start off as flexible, volitional exploratory behaviours
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108
Q

What’s the difference between classical (Pavlovian) and operant conditioning?

A
  • In contrast to Classical (Pavlovian) learning, operant conditioning requires that the animal can move and make decisions that influence their environment (i.e., decisions that have consequences)
  • When we’re looking at how the animal reacts to something to figure out what happens next -> instrumental task
  • If we don’t need to look at animal to know what happens next -> pavlovian classical conditioning
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109
Q

What’s a reinforcing stimulus?

A
  • Appetitive stimulus
  • When it follows a particular behavior, it increases the likelihood the animal will repeat the behaviour
  • Reinforcement makes the behavior more likely to occur
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110
Q

What’s a punishing stimulus?

A
  • Aversive stimulus
  • When it follows a particular behavior, it decreases the likelihood the animal will repeat the behaviour
  • Punishment makes the behavior less likely to occur
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111
Q

The process of reinforcement strengthens the connection between what 2 neural circuits?

A

Strengthens a connection between neural circuits involved in perception (sight of the lever) and those involved in movement (the act of lever pressing)

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112
Q

Can instrumental conditioning be internal?

A
  • Yes, you can be thinking thoughts and then do a behaviour and in your head and can decide whether this was good or this was bad
  • Perceptual system doesn’t have to be something you see it could be generated by your own thoughts
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113
Q

What is drug addiction associated with?

A
  • Instrumental conditioning
  • When people start taking drugs, they’re initially in control and it’s acting as a reinforcement system, people think they’re consciously making this decision to take drugs
  • What happens unconsciously is the dependency to this reinforcement system and people are often caught off guard about their addiction to it
  • This builds up naturally in these neural circuits
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114
Q

What are 2 major pathways between the sensory association cortex and the motor association cortex (to go from perceptions to movements)?

A
  • Direct transcortical connections
  • Basal ganglia
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115
Q

How is the basal ganglia important for habit formation and instrumental conditioning?

A
  • It integrates sensory and motor information from throughout the brain
  • At first the basal ganglia is a passive “observer”
  • As behaviors are repeated again and again, the basal ganglia begins to learn what to (actions become more and more habitual, more ingrained and automatic)
  • Different circuits within the basal ganglia become involved in the action selection and action execution processes
  • Eventually, the basal ganglia takes over most of the details of the process, leaving the transcortical circuits free to do something else
  • At this point, we don’t need to consciously think about what we are doing
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116
Q

The strength of cortical inputs to the basal ganglia is regulated by what kind of signaling?

A

Dopamine signaling

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117
Q

What’s the major input nucleus of the basal ganglia and what is it comprised of?

A
  • The striatum (or neostriatum)
  • Consists of the caudate, putamen, and nucleus accumbens
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118
Q

Working memory involves what part of the brain?

A

Involves the whole cerebral cortex

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119
Q

What’s the importance of direct transcortical connections for instrumental conditioning?

A
  • Connections from one area of the cerebral cortex to another
  • Involved in acquiring complex motor sequences that involve deliberation or instruction
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120
Q

What’s the function of dopamine input to the striatum?

A
  • Dopamine neurons in the midbrain (substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area) project to the striatum and seem to signal reinforcement and punishment
  • The overall amount of dopamine in the striatum seems to correspond to motivation and the value of moving in and engaging with the environment
  • Transient fluctuations in dopamine signaling seem to drive learning by signaling how unexpectedly good or bad the current moment is
  • People think the overall dopamine levels relates to the animal’s ability to engage with the environment (when dopamine levels are low, animals aren’t engaging with environment and aren’t seeking rewards)
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121
Q

What are the different parts of the striatum?

A
  • Caudate
  • Putamen
  • Nucleus accumbens (ventral striatum)
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122
Q

What kind of information does the nucleus accumbens process?

A
  • It receives input from limbic areas such as the hippocampus, amygdala, and parts of PFC
  • It seems to regulate people’s priorities (“I’m craving this thing or obsessing over this thing”)
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123
Q

What kind of information does the most dorsal lateral (caudate and putamen) part of the striatum get?

A

It’s getting motor sensory information that’s related to planning sequences of motor actions

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124
Q

What do lesions of the basal ganglia disrupt?

A
  • Reinforcement learning and habit learning
  • Don’t strongly affect perceptual learning or stimulus-stimulus learning
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125
Q

What was Henry Gustav Molaison’s (HM) condition and what treatment was given to him?

A
  • He had epilepsy
  • Doctors cut out his hippocampus bilaterally to cure his epilepsy
  • It worked, but he lost the ability to form new explicit memories (severe anterograde amnesia)
  • He also suffered from a graded retrograde amnesia (events that occurred within 1 or 2 years were lost as well as some events that happened even longer ago than that)
  • He still had a brief working memory and a high IQ, but he could not learn new words or names or learn to navigate a new space
  • Every day he woke up, he thought he was late for high school or football practice -> everyday he woke up, he thought he was a kid
  • As soon as he was distracted, he would forget what he was doing (couldn’t remember what he was saying, what he was doing, what he ate that day or the day before)
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126
Q

What happens if you lesion the hippocampus bilaterally?

A
  • You disrupt the animal’s ability to create/store memories
  • Makes it so that you can remember things from 2 years ago (will forget the last year)
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127
Q

What’s Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A
  • Permanent anterograde amnesia caused by brain damage, usually resulting from chronic alcoholism
  • Caused by severe lack of vitamin B1
  • Tends to be found in homeless alcoholics
  • Patients are unable to form new memories but can still remember old ones before the brain damage occurred
  • Confabulation is common for these patients -> if they think they know something but they don’t due to this syndrome, they make up an event
  • Similar to what we see in split brain patients -> people think this is related to damage in one side of the brain
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128
Q

What’s confabulation?

A

Reporting of memories of events that did not take place without intention to deceive

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129
Q

What happens to animals/humans without a functional hippocampus?

A
  • Animals cannot form new episodic or semantic memories
  • Their short-term, working memory is generally fine
  • They can also remember previously learned semantic information if it was consolidated prior to the hippocampal damage
  • But generally live in the moment (in the present)
  • They don’t really reminisce about previous episodes in their life, nor do they imagine future possibilities
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130
Q

What’s memory consolidation and where does it occur in the brain?

A
  • Process of converting short-term memories into explicit long-term memories
  • The hippocampus is not the location of either short-term or long-term memories but works with memory consolidation
  • The hippocampus “turns the past into the future”
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131
Q

Describe the simplest model of the memory process

A

Sensory information enters short-term memory, rehearsal keeps it there, and eventually, the information makes its way into long-term memory, where it is permanently stored

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132
Q

Are memories stored in the hippocampus?

A
  • It’s generally thought that memories are not stored in the hippocampus, but that the hippocampus forms a hub, node, or index that is capable of both representing and reactivating the sensory systems that initially encoded any given event/experience
  • The hippocampus is creating some kind of snapshot
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133
Q

What’s memory retrieval (pattern completion)?

A

Partial cue (ex: ”what did you have for lunch”) processed in cerebral cortex and then goes in hippocampus which reactivates the entire cerebral cortex to relive this event (imagined -> see the sandwich, taste the sandwich, feel how you felt)

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134
Q

How does memory gradually becomes less and less dependent on the hippocampus, meaning the memory will still be there if you lose your hippocampus?

A
  • A prominent theory is that hippocampal activity (during recall events and during sleep) is “training” the cortex, causing a reorganization of the synaptic weights in the cortex so that intra-cortical connections can support memory recall on their own
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135
Q

What’s the Semantic Transformation Theory?

A
  • Some people argue that the cortex only contains semantic information (facts) - In this model, all memory starts off as episodic memory, which is always dependent on hippocampal nodes interacting with the cortex
  • Over time, as facts emerge from repeated episodic experiences, these semantic memories are permanently stored in the cortex in a hippocampal-independent manner
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136
Q

What happens to the hippocampus when you’re asleep, spaced out or not paying attention?

A

It is replaying events (10x as fast), which is somehow training the cortex

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137
Q

What’s the role of the hippocampus and cerebral cortex in long-term memory storage?

A
  • The retrieval of most recent long-term memories activated the hippocampus more than the cortex of the superior frontal gyrus
  • The retrieval of older memories activated the hippocampus less and the cortex more
  • When memories reached 9 years of age, both regions were activated approx equally
138
Q

What does the rodent rely on to solve a maze?

A
  • Rodents need a functional hippocampus to remember newly learned spatial information but not information learned 30 days ago
  • Memories are consolidated and stored in the cerebral cortex during this time (30 days)
  • As soon as we inactivate hippocampus, then the animal loses knowledge of the maze and doesn’t know how to solve it (only for day 2 but they can solve it during day 30)
  • This kind of memory consolidation occurs over several years in humans (hippocampus has to train the brain over years to hold memories)
139
Q

What’s anterograde amnesia?

A
  • The inability to learn new information or retain new information ‘after’ brain injury
  • Memory for events that occurred before the injury remain largely intact
140
Q

What’s retrograde amnesia?

A
  • The inability to remember events that occurred ‘before‘ the brain injury
  • Shown in neurodegenerative disorders
141
Q

What’s complete amnesia?

A

The inability to learn new information or retain new information ‘after’ brain injury and inability to remember events that occurred ‘before‘ the brain injury

142
Q

What does damage to the hippocampus or to regions of the brain that supply its inputs and receive its outputs cause?

A

Causes anterograde amnesia
- Nondeclarative learning ability remains intact

143
Q

What types of learning are anterograde amnesic patients that are trained and tested still capable of?

A
  • Perceptual learning
  • Motor learning
  • Stimulus–response learning
  • But, do not explicitly remember anything about what they have learned
  • Incapable of relational (stimulus-stimulus) learning
  • People with this condition are good for repeated patterns but when the pattern changes, they forget how to play the game
  • People with anterograde amnesia won’t remember playing the game or playing with symbols but after they have an intuitive feeling that these symbols are good (reinforcing certain actions with certain environments unconsciously) -> performance is low
144
Q

What are some examples of nondeclarative (implicit/unconscious) memory tasks that patients with anterograde amnesia are good with?

A
  • Broken drawings (perceptual)
  • Recognizing faces (perceptual & stimulus-response) -> through familiarity
  • Recognizing melodies (perceptual) -> through familiarity
  • Classical conditioning - eye blink (stimulus-response)
  • Instrumental conditioning (stimulus-response)
  • Sequence of button presses (motor)
145
Q

What are some examples of declarative (conscious) memory tasks that patients with anterograde amnesia are not good with?

A
  • Remembering past experiences
  • Learning new words
  • Finding way in new environment
146
Q

How does the T maze experiment show how we can train a stimulus-response memory in a mouse?

A
  • With minimal training, healthy mice often turn toward the “Place” goal on the “Probe” test
  • With overtraining, however, mice mostly turn toward the “Response” goal
  • These results suggest that what is initially learned is an explicit spatial memory (turn toward the window), but overtime a stimulus-response memory starts to dominate (always turn to the right)
147
Q

Lesions to what part of the brain disrupt implicit “response” learning?

A

Basal ganglia

148
Q

Lesions to what part of the brain disrupt explicit “place” learning?

A

Hippocampus

149
Q

What kind of function is verbal behaviour?

A

Lateralized function since it’s mainly on the left side of the brain

150
Q

Most language disturbances occur after damage to what side of the brain?

A
  • The left side of brain
  • Regardless of if people are left-handed or right-handed
151
Q

What are the statistics for speech dominance in each hemisphere of the brain?

A
  • The left hemisphere is dominant for speech in 90% of the population
  • Right-hemisphere speech dominance is seen in 4% of right-handed people and 27% of left-handed people
152
Q

What’s a function of the human mind that we can’t study on animals?

A

Speech production and comprehension because animals can’t speak

153
Q

What are some examples of how human speech has a regular rhythm and cadence?

A
  • People give some words stress (i.e., pronounce them louder)
  • Pitch of the human voice indicates phrasing and distinguishes between assertions and questions
  • Humans impart information about their emotional state through the prosody of their speech
154
Q

Can people with damage to the left hemisphere of the brain comprehend prosody?

A

Prosody is typically a function of the right hemisphere, so people who don’t understand language because of left hemisphere damage will typically still be able to appreciate prosody and extract information from it

155
Q

What’s prosody?

A

Rhythm, emphasis, and tone of someone’s speech

156
Q

Can people with damage to the left hemisphere recognize voices?

A
  • People can recognize the voices of particular individuals
  • Even newborn infants can recognize the voices of their parents
  • Recognition of a particular voice is independent of recognition of words and their meanings
  • People with left hemisphere damage might not be able to understand words but they could still recognize voices
157
Q

What’s phonagnosia?

A
  • Disorder where people have great difficulty recognizing voices
  • Results from localized brain damage to the right superior temporal cortex
158
Q

Comprehension of metaphors and judging the morals of fables activates which part of the brain?

A
  • Metaphors = right superior temporal cortex
  • Moral of fables = regions of right hemisphere
159
Q

What could damage to the right hemisphere and more specifically to the right superior temporal cortex lead to?

A

It makes people more literal in speech comprehension and production

160
Q

What’s Aphasia?

A
  • A disturbance in understanding, repeating, or producing meaningful speech
  • The difficulty must not be caused by simple sensory or motor deficits or by lack of motivation
  • The deficit must be relatively isolated, such that the patient must be capable of recognizing when others are attempting to communicate
  • The patient must be somewhat aware of what is happening around them
  • People’s senses are doing fine but they have a hard time producing meaningful speech
161
Q

What usually causes Aphasia?

A

A stroke in the left cerebral hemisphere

162
Q

Damage to the frontal lobe (associated with movement) causes deficits in what part of language?

A

In speaking

163
Q

Aphasia that occurs in speaking could be describe as a _____?

A
  • anterior aphasia
  • motor aphasia
  • expressive aphasia
  • Broca’s aphasia
  • non-fluent aphasia
164
Q

Damage to the sensory association cortex causes deficits in what part of language?

A

In understanding language

165
Q

Aphasia that occurs in understanding language could be described as a _____?

A
  • posterior aphasia
  • sensory aphasia
  • receptive aphasia
  • Wernicke’s aphasia
  • fluent aphasia
166
Q

What senses does language involve? Provide an example

A
  • VISION - What do dogs look like?
  • AUDITORY – What do dogs sound like?
  • TOUCH - What do dogs feel like?
  • OLFACTION - What do dogs smell like?
  • GUSTATORY - What do dogs taste like?
  • MOTOR – What do dogs act like? What does petting a dog entail?
  • We think understanding language is related to a network of how all the senses relate to a word
  • Association cortexes
167
Q

Broca’s area comprises what functions of language?

A

SPEAKING (speech production)
- Word choice
- Sequencing
- Grammar
- Articulation

168
Q

Where is the posterior language area located and what does damage to it do?

A
  • Posterior language area wraps around the lateral fissure
  • Located in the interface between Wernicke’s area and perceptions and memories
  • Located at the junction of the temporal, occipital, and parietal lobes, around the posterior end of the lateral fissure
  • Damage there makes it so that people don’t understand the meaning of words
  • This makes it so that words lose their literal meaning
169
Q

What’s the function of Wernicke’s area and where is it located?

A
  • Involved in analysis of speech sounds and in recognition of spoken words
  • Region of auditory association cortex on left temporal lobe of humans
  • Posterior Language Area overlaps with Wernicke’s area
  • Right below the posterior language area
170
Q

What’s the function of the posterior language area?

A
  • The posterior language area is critical for language comprehension, regardless of whether the words are heard, seen, or spoken
  • Neurons here probably activate the ensemble of neurons throughout sensory association cortices that store the representations (the meanings) of specific words
  • Ex: activating the DOG neurons here would cause activity throughout sensory association cortices (vision, hearing, touch, smell, taste, and even motor commands like petting) that are associated with the word DOG
171
Q

What could damage to the posterior language area cause?

A

Transcortical Sensory Aphasia

172
Q

What’s transcortical sensory aphasia?

A
  • Failure to comprehend the meaning of words and an inability to express thoughts with meaningful speech
  • Word perception and speaking might be fine (without any comprehension of what is heard or spoken)
  • Fluent speech, can’t comprehend spoken messages and can repeat after people
    Ex:
  • Word repetition (e.g., repeat after me…)
  • Reading (without understanding)
  • Writing (without understanding)
173
Q

What’s fluent/receptive aphasia?

A
  • Type of aphasia with poor comprehension
  • Speech is effortless, but the meaning is impaired
  • People with damage in back of the brain that don’t comprehend language
  • Unaware of their deficit
  • Not frustrated with their language deficit
  • Not aware that people don’t understand what they’re saying
  • Don’t seem to express annoyance
  • Not trying to make meaning with their words, they’re just trying to express emotions
  • Repeated use of certain phrases and connecting words (skip over structures words ex: nouns and adjectives)
  • They understand when a conversation is coming to an end by other cues (tone of voice, non-verbal behaviour)
174
Q

All language perception areas connect to what language area?

A

The posterior language area

175
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: People can read, write and talk out loud without understanding the language of the words they’re using

A

True
Ex: When you read but aren’t registering what you’re reading because you’re on autopilot (you see the word and process it through language)

176
Q

What’s conduction aphasia?

A
  • Characterized by an inability to repeat the exact words you hear
  • Meaningful, fluid speech and good speech comprehension
  • When asked to repeat the word ‘house’, the person may say “home”
  • When asked to repeat a word that’s not easily understood, a made up word, they can’t retrieve understanding because they can only repeat words they already know. They will just say I didn’t hear you
  • Need to know what a word means to be able to repeat
  • Seems to be an issue with working memory
  • Small deficit where frontal lobe is fine
177
Q

What is conduction aphasia caused by?

A

Caused by damage to and around the arcuate fasciculus, a bundle of axons that connects Wernicke’s area with Broca’s area

178
Q

What’s arcuate fasciculus and what does it allow transcortical sensory aphasia patients to do?

A
  • A bundle of axons that connects Wernicke’s area with Broca’s area
  • Enables them to repeat words that they can’t understand
179
Q

What’s pure word deafness?

A
  • Disorder of auditory word recognition
  • Inability to comprehend or repeat spoken words
  • Words just sound like sounds to them
  • “I can hear you, but I don’t recognize the words you are saying. I even have trouble repeating what you say.”
180
Q

What’s pure word deafness caused by?

A
  • Caused by damage to Wernicke’s area or disruption of auditory input to this region
  • Damage to superior temporal lobe
181
Q

What can someone with pure word deafness do?

A
  • Hear
  • Interpret non-speech sounds (doorbell, phone, barking)
  • Read
  • Write
  • Read lips
  • Speak intelligently, but they can’t recognize the words they are saying by listening to themselves
  • Over time their speech becomes a bit awkward, like when a deaf person speaks
182
Q

What’s Wernicke’s Aphasia?

A
  • Features of transcortical sensory aphasia and pure word deafness
  • Poor language comprehension
  • Fluent speech production, but speech is meaningless and typically filled with function words, such as a, the, in, about (as opposed to content words that convey meaning, such as nouns, verbs, and adjectives)
  • Speech seems natural and is filled with intonation and emphasis (prosody)
  • Words seem to come easy to them, but what they say is meaningless
  • Typically not completely aware of this problem and are generally not bothered/annoyed by them
183
Q

What’s Wernicke’s Aphasia caused by?

A

Damage to both Wernicke’s area and the posterior language area

184
Q

What other disorders is Wernicke’s aphasia associated with due to very similar diagnosis?

A
  • Transcortical Sensory Aphasia (but Wernicke’s aphasia can’t repeat)
  • Characterized as a Receptive Aphasia or Fluent Aphasia
185
Q

Where is written word perception processed?

A
  • In the Visual Word Form Area
  • Located in the fusiform gyrus of the left hemisphere
186
Q

What happens when someone experiences damage to the visual word-form area (VWFA)?

A
  • Disrupted ability to perceive written words
  • They just see lines and squiggles
  • Develop Pure Alexia/Pure Word Blindness
187
Q

What’s Pure Alexia/Pure Word Blindness?

A
  • Damage to visual word-form area (VWFA)
  • Cannot read, as they cannot recognize written words
  • Can write just fine, just can’t read what they write
  • Have the motor ability to write but after reading over, they can’t recognize what they wrote -> leads to messy handwriting
188
Q

What’s dyslexia?

A
  • “Faulty reading”
  • Difficulty reading
189
Q

What are the 2 different processes of reading?

A
  • Whole-word reading (“sight reading”): direct recognition of the word as a whole
  • Phonetic reading (“sound reading”): sounding it out letter by letter or decoding the phonetic significance of letter strings
190
Q

What is phonetic reading usually used for?

A

Unfamiliar words and nonwords

191
Q

What is whole-word reading usually used for?

A

For most familiar words

192
Q

What’s surface dyslexia?

A
  • An inability to recognize whole-words
  • The person can only read words phonetically
  • Irregularly spelled words are difficult for these people to perceive, because sounding them out doesn’t work
    Ex: Pair, pear, pare,….
    Sew, pint, yacht,….
193
Q

What’s phonological dyslexia?

A
  • Reading disorder in which a person can read familiar words but has difficulty reading unfamiliar words or nonwords
  • Ex: Blint, trisk, juff,….
  • Kanji vs Kana Japanese symbols
194
Q

Describe developmental dyslexia

A
  • mostly a type of phonological dyslexia
  • problem is largely genetic
  • great difficulty learning to read and some never become fluent readers, even though they are intelligent
  • trouble with grammar and spelling and have a hard time distinguishing the order of sound sequences
195
Q

What’s direct dyslexia?

A
  • Some stroke patients have shown very specific deficits in their ability to extract meaning from written words even though they can read out loud
  • Typically seen with larger deficits, like transcortical sensory aphasia where there is limited language comprehension
  • Caused by stroke in back half of the brain
196
Q

What are the most important cues to object recognition?

A
  • Those that remain relatively constant even when objects are viewed from different angles
  • Most reliable of these cues are ways that lines meet at vertices, forming junctions with particular shapes, such as L, T, and X
  • Our visual system grabs onto corners and edges to make sense of things
  • Writing without edges and corners is hard to identify
197
Q

What’s Broca’s Aphasia?

A
  • Understanding of language but cannot speak it
  • Characterized by slow, laborious, and nonfluent speech
  • Patients with this condition are aware of their condition and are extremely frustrated because they have a word in their head they understand what they want to say but when they go to speak it it comes out wrong (have something to say, but have trouble saying it)
  • Caused by damage to Broca’s area in the left inferior frontal lobe
  • Difficulty to express themselves
  • Words are on the tip of the tongue (anomia)
198
Q

What are 3 semi-distinct issues (symptoms) that encompass Broca’s aphasia?

A
  • Articulation problems
  • Agrammatism
  • Anomia
199
Q

What are issues that may arise with problems with articulation?

A
  • Articulation problems might make it hard for someone to hear the words you are saying
  • It could cause a sequencing problem
    Ex: lipstick -> likstip
200
Q

What’s agrammatism?

A
  • Difficulty comprehending or using grammatical devices, such as verb endings (-ed) and word order (e.g., man bit dog)
  • Typically don’t derive meaning from the sequence of words or the grammar of sentences
  • Almost exclusively use content words (nouns, adjectives, verbs, etc.) without any function words (a, the, on, about, etc.)
  • Lack of context in what they’re saying
201
Q

What’s anomia?

A
  • A symptom of Broca’s Aphasia
  • Difficulty in finding (remembering) the appropriate word to describe object, action, or attribute
  • Word is on the tip of the tongue
202
Q

What’s Anomic Aphasia?

A
  • Have a hard time thinking of the word they want to say
  • They can understand what other people say just fine
  • They basically talk just fine, but they often describe things in roundabout ways (circumlocution)
203
Q

What’s circumlocution?

A
  • Strategy by which people with anomia find alternative ways to say something when they are unable to think of most appropriate word
  • Drop words during sentences (skip over words)
  • Talking around things
204
Q

Why is it easier to understand language through reading?

A

Because visual system is usually stronger than the auditory system

205
Q

What are subvocal articulations?

A

Very slight movements of the muscles involved in speech that do not actually cause obvious movement

206
Q

When do subvocal articulations often occur?

A
  • When we talk to ourselves in our head (our inner monologue)
207
Q

In what region of the brain can we detect activity from subvocal articulations?

A
  • Region of Broca’s area
  • When a person is asked to look at a pair of drawings and say whether names of the items rhyme, functional imaging shows increased activation in region of Broca’s area because the person “says” the two words subvocally
  • Talking to ourselves in the head uses the same brain networks as talking out loud
208
Q

What’s dysgraphia?

A
  • Trouble with writing
  • There can be very specific deficits in motor programs (stored in frontal lobe) caused by brain damage
  • Ex: people can have trouble writing:
  • Letters but not numbers
  • Lowercase but not uppercase letters
  • Vowels but not consonants
  • Print but not cursive
  • Letters in the correct order
209
Q

Writing involves what parts of the brain?

A

Writing is a complex activity that involves the whole brain (imagine the words, what they sound like, use the motor parts of brain to use your hand)

210
Q

When writing a word, spelling it can be accomplished by what 2 processes?

A
  • Phonetically sounding out the word
  • Visually imagining the word
211
Q

What’s phonological dysgraphia?

A
  • Condition where people cannot spell words by sounding them out (common in Broca’s aphasia and Wernicke’s aphasia)
  • They can only write words by imagining how they look
  • They have to be very familiar with how the word looks or they cannot write it
  • They cannot write non-words that sound fine, like blint or vak
212
Q

What’s ortographic dysgraphia?

A
  • Condition where people can’t spell words by visualizing them (common in people with damage to VWFA)
  • They can only sound words out, which means they cannot correctly spell any words that have an irregular spelling (half -> haff; busy -> bizzy)
213
Q

What are the statistics related to strokes?

A
  • Incidence of strokes in the US is approximately 750,000/year
  • Likelihood of having a stroke is related to age – probability doubles each decade after 45 years of age and reaches 1–2% per year by age 75
214
Q

How are all the aphasias caused?

A

From strokes which cause brain damage

215
Q

What’s Atherosclerosis?

A
  • Process in which linings of arteries develop a layer of plaque, deposits of cholesterol, fats, calcium, and cellular waste products
  • Plaques can cause severe narrowing of interior of artery, greatly increasing the risk of a massive stroke
  • Risk factors (causes) include high blood pressure, cigarette smoking, diabetes, and high blood levels of cholesterol
216
Q

What’s the precursor to heart attacks (myocardial infarction) and strokes?

A

Atherosclerosis

217
Q

Where do atherosclerotic plaques usually form and how can we visualize these?

A
  • Often form in the internal carotid artery, which supplies most of the blood flow to the cerebral hemispheres
  • Narrowing of interior of arteries can be visualized in an angiogram, produced by injecting a radiopaque dye into the blood and examining the artery with a computerized X-ray machine
218
Q

What’s a hemorrhagic stroke?

A
  • Rupture of a cerebral blood vessel
  • Much more rare
219
Q

What’s an ischemic stroke?

A
  • Occlusion of a blood vessel
  • 87% of strokes are ischemic
220
Q

What’s a thrombus?

A

Blood clot that forms within a blood vessel, which may block it and reduce blood flow to the affected area

221
Q

What’s an embolus?

A
  • Piece of matter (such as a blood clot, fat, or bacterial debris) that dislodges from its site of origin and occludes an artery
  • In the brain, an embolus can lead to a stroke
222
Q

What can we use to determine whether it’s a hemorrhagic stoke or a ischemic stroke?

A

CT scan

223
Q

What are treatments for stroke recovery?

A
  • Drugs that reduce swelling and inflammation
  • Physical, speech, and/or occupational therapy
  • Exercise and sensory stimulation (constraint-induced movement therapy)
224
Q

What are ways that researchers have sought to minimize amount of brain damage caused by strokes?

A
  • To administer drugs that dissolve blood clots in an attempt to reestablish circulation to an ischemic brain region
  • This approach has been met with some success. Ex: administration of a clot-dissolving drug called tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) after the onset of a stroke has clear benefits, but only if it is given within 3-4 hours
225
Q

What kind of treatment you don’t want to give to a patient with a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Clot-dissolving drug

226
Q

What’s an example of a clot-dissolving drug?

A

tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)

227
Q

What are the 3 different devices deployed through the vascular system to the site of an occlusion that are used to secure and/or remove occlusions?

A
  • Coil retrievers
  • Aspiration devices
  • Stent retrievers
228
Q

What’s a tumour?

A
  • Mass of cells whose growth is uncontrolled (mutations in dna causing uncontrollable cell division) and that serves no useful function
  • Tumors happen in multicellular organisms
229
Q

What’s the difference between a non-malignant tumor and a malignant tumor?

A
  • Non-malignant: noncancerous, “benign” tumor. Has distinct border and cannot metastasize
  • Malignant: cancerous, “harm producing” tumor. Lacks distinct border and may metastasize
230
Q

What’s metastasis?

A

Process by which cells break off of a tumor, travel through the vascular system, and grow elsewhere in the body

231
Q

What’s the major distinction between malignancy and non-malignancy in a tumor?

A
  • Whether the tumor is encapsulated (whether there is a distinct border between the mass of tumor cells and the surrounding tissue)
  • If there is such a border, the tumor is non-malignant; the surgeon can cut it out, and it will not regrow
  • If the tumor is cancerous it grows by infiltrating the surrounding tissue, and there will be no clear-cut border between tumor and normal tissue
  • When surgeons remove malignant tumors, some cancer cells are often missed, and these cells will produce new tumors
232
Q

What could a tumor growing in the brain cause?

A
  • Any tumor growing in the brain (malignant or benign) can produce neurological symptoms and threaten the patient’s life
233
Q

How can tumors in the brain cause brain damage?

A
  • Tumors damage brain tissue by two means: compression and infiltration
  • Even a benign tumor occupies space and thus pushes against the brainand squishes neurons
  • Compression can directly destroy brain tissue, or it can do so indirectly by blocking flow of cerebrospinal fluid and causing hydrocephalus
234
Q

What’s hydrocephalus?

A

Blocking flow of cerebrospinal fluid

235
Q

What are the different types of brain tumors?

A
  • Gliomas
  • Meningioma
  • Pituitary adenoma
  • Neurinoma
  • Metastatic carcinoma
  • Angioma
  • Pinealoma
236
Q

In what kind of cells are brain tumours often located in?

A
  • Brain tumors are often in glial cells
  • Tumors in glial cells are very deadly
237
Q

What are gliomas?

A
  • A malignant brain tumor
  • The tumor initiating cells originate from the neural stem cells that make glia
  • They rapidly proliferate and are more resistant to chemotherapy and radiation than most tumor cells
  • The survival rate from malignant gliomas is very low
238
Q

What type of brain tumor is the most worrisome and deadliest?

A

Glioma

239
Q

What’s a meningioma?

A
  • Example of a non-malignant (encapsulated) tumor
  • Slow-growing tumor
  • Composed of cells that constitute the meninges (dura mater or arachnoid membrane) often right between the two cerebral hemispheres
  • Symptoms start with headaches which become more and more common
  • This tumor is compressing the neural tissue
  • Can be dangerous if they grow very big (can block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid and occlude ventricles)
240
Q

What’s a treatment for brain damage caused by a meningioma?

A

To use a syringe and relieve the pressure in the brain

241
Q

What’s Encephalitis?

A
  • Inflammation of the brain caused by infection (bacterial or viral), toxic chemicals, or allergic reaction
  • First symptoms are headache, fever, and nausea
242
Q

What’s Meningitis?

A
  • Inflammation of meninges (surrounding the brain) caused by viruses or bacteria
  • The first symptoms are headache and stiff neck
243
Q

What’s Polio (acute anterior poliomyelitis)?

A
  • Viral disease that destroys motor neurons of the brain and spinal cord
  • 1% of people with it will have it go to the brain and it will kill all their motor neurons and they’ll become paralyzed
244
Q

What are Rabies?

A
  • Fatal viral disease that causes brain damage; usually transmitted through the bite of an infected animal
  • Take a vaccine after getting bit by an animal with rabies (within a week or longer depending on where you got bit)
245
Q

What’s the Herpes simplex virus?

A
  • Virus that normally causes cold sores near the lips or genitals
  • In rare cases, it instead enters the brain causing encephalitis and brain damage
246
Q

What’s a closed-head injury and what’s the difference between the coup and contrecoup?

A
  • Caused by a blow to the head with a blunt object
  • Coup: the brain comes into violent contact with the inside of the skull
  • Contrecoup: the brain then recoils in the opposite direction and smashes against the skull again
247
Q

What are open head injuries?

A
  • Penetrating brain injuries (also called open head injuries) cause damage to the portion of the brain that is damaged by the object or the bone
  • Damage to blood vessels can deprive parts of the brain of their normal blood supply
  • Accumulation of blood within the brain can cause further damage by exerting pressure within the brain
  • As soon as there’s injury to the brain there will be inflammation in the brain and a build-up of blood pressure
248
Q

What are the statistics surrounding Traumatic Brain Injuries?

A
  • In the US, approx 1.4 million people visit an emergency room for TBI, 270,000 people are hospitalized, and 52,000 people die from it
  • Almost a third of deaths caused by injury involve TBI
249
Q

What are the long lasting effects of TBI and side effects of mild cases of TBI?

A
  • In survivors, scarring (scar tissue) often forms within the brain, around the sites of injury, which increases risk of developing seizures
  • Mild cases of TBI (mTBI) greatly increase a person’s risk of developing brain problems (neurodegenerative diseases) down the road Ex: likelihood of Alzheimer’s disease is much higher in a person who has received blows to the head earlier in life
250
Q

What’s scar tissue?

A

Collection of glial cells and other neurons that leave cellular debris there

251
Q

What happens to neurons when we get hit on the head?

A

Maybe the neuron doesn’t die in the moment but it gets more and more weak and likely to go through neural apoptosis

252
Q

What are causes of seizures?

A
  • Most common cause is scarring, which may relate to an injury, a stroke, the irritating effect of a growing tumor, or a developmental abnormality in the brain
  • Other causes are high fevers (especially in young children) and withdrawal from GABA agonists, such as alcohol and barbiturates
  • Neural network instability and increased risk of seizures can come about for genetic reasons
  • Most seizures aren’t caused by genetics but by brain damage
253
Q

From what kind of gene mutations can neural network instability and increased risk of seizures come about?

A

Gene mutations that affect…
- the amount or function of different ion channels in the brain
- the reciprocal wiring of excitatory and inhibitory neurons
- the rules that govern synaptic plasticity

254
Q

Describe seizure disorder

A
  • AKA epilepsy
  • Sometimes, if neurons that make up motor system are involved, a seizure can cause a convulsion
  • But not all seizures cause convulsions; in fact, most do not
  • Each time seizures happen with seizure disorder, they spread more and more
  • People who got 2 or 3 seizures might be on medication for the rest of their life
255
Q

What’s a convulsion?

A
  • Violent sequence of uncontrollable muscular movements caused by seizure
  • Involves the frontal lobe
256
Q

What’s a partial (focal) seizure and what’s the difference between a simple partial seizure and a complex partial seizure?

A
  • Seizure that begins at a focus and remains localized, not generalizing to rest of brain
  • Simple partial seizure: seizure that doesn’t produce loss of consciousness
  • Complex partial seizure: seizure that produces a loss of consciousness
257
Q

What’s a generalized seizure?

A
  • Seizure that involves most of the brain (non-localized seizure)
  • Includes tonic-clonic seizures, atonic seizures, and absence seizures
258
Q

What’s aura?

A
  • Sensation that comes before a seizure (motor abnormalities)
  • Its exact nature depends on the location of the seizure focus
259
Q

What’s a tonic-clonic seizure?

A
  • Generalized, grand mal seizure that typically starts with an aura that is followed by a tonic phase and then a clonic phase
  • This type of seizure involves convulsions
260
Q

What’s the tonic phase of a seizure?

A
  • First phase of tonic-clonic seizure, in which all of patient’s skeletal muscles are contracted
  • Can lead to huge forceful contraction where people can break their own bones and can stop breathing or having their heart stop beating for a little
261
Q

What’s the clonic phase of a seizure?

A
  • Second phase of a tonic-clonic seizure, in which patient shows rhythmic jerking movements
  • eople will fall asleep for a while after they will be extremely exhausted
262
Q

What’s the clonic phase of a seizure?

A
  • Second phase of a tonic-clonic seizure, in which patient shows rhythmic jerking movements
  • People will fall asleep for a while after, as they will be extremely exhausted
263
Q

Who is especially susceptible to seizure disorders and what kind of seizures do they usually have?

A
  • Children
  • Many do not have tonic-clonic episodes but instead have very brief seizures that are referred to as spells of absence
  • Absence seizures are generalized complex seizures
264
Q

What are absence seizures?

A
  • AKA petite mal seizures
  • People stop what they are doing and stare off into the distance for a few seconds, often blinking their eyes repeatedly
  • Children will often go offline for a little bit (not conscious)
  • Seizure wave lasts about 3 seconds
265
Q

What are absence seizures thought to be caused by?

A
  • Mutation of calcium voltage gated channels
  • Often correlated with genetics
  • Breathing really fast can trigger spells of absence
266
Q

What are symptoms of an atonic generalized seizure?

A

Leads to complete paralysis and complete loss of muscle tone

267
Q

What are seizure disorders treated with?

A
  • Anticonvulsant drugs, such as benzodiazepines, many of which work by increasing effectiveness of inhibitory synapses and loosening the function of GABA receptors
  • Most seizure disorders respond well enough to medications that the patient can lead a normal life
  • In a few instances drugs provide little or no help and the seizures remain so irritable that brain surgery is required
268
Q

What causes disorders of development?

A
  • Exposure to certain toxins, viruses, and drugs during pregnancy can impair fetal brain development and cause intellectual disability
  • Dangerous toxins include organophosphates (from insecticides) and heavy metals such as lead and mercury
  • Famous viruses that alter brain development include the rubella virus (German measles) and the Zika virus (which spread fast in Brazil several years ago)
269
Q

What is considered to be the most dangerous drug during pregnancy?

A

Alcohol

270
Q

What’s fetal alcohol syndrome?

A
  • Babies born to alcoholic women are typically smaller than average and develop more slowly
  • Associated with alcohol consumption during the 3rd and 4th week of pregnancy
  • Associated with certain facial anomalies and severe intellectual disabilities
271
Q

What are some facial anomalies found in babies with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A
  • Small palpebral fissures
  • smooth philtrum
  • Thin upper lip
  • Low nasal bridge
  • Minor ear anomalies
  • Epicanthal folds
  • Micrognathia
  • Microcephaly
272
Q

What happens to the babies of women who are pregnant and are crack and heroin addicts?

A
  • Babies are born addicted to crack and heroin
  • They’ll be born with extreme withdrawals but will recover from it quick and then not many issues with them
273
Q

Describe inherited metabolic disorders

A
  • Several inherited “errors of metabolism” can cause brain damage or impair brain development
  • “Errors of metabolism” are genetic abnormalities in which recipe for a particular protein is in error
  • Typically the cause is that an enzyme is not synthesized on account of mutations in both copies of the gene
  • If the enzyme is a critical one, results can be very serious
274
Q

What are 2 examples of inherited metabolic disorders?

A
  • Phenylketonuria (PKU)
  • Tay-Sachs disease
275
Q

What’s Tay-Sachs disease?

A
  • Heritable, fatal, metabolic storage disorder
  • Lack of enzymes in lysosomes causes accumulation of waste produces and swelling of cells of brain
276
Q

What are Lysosomes?

A

Organelle of the brain that breaks down proteins into their component parts

277
Q

What’s Phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A
  • Hereditary disorder caused by the absence of enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine
  • Accumulation of phenylalanine causes brain damage unless a special diet is implemented soon after birth
  • 2 bad mutations lead to not making this enzyme
278
Q

What’s down syndrome?

A
  • Caused not by inheritance of a faulty gene but by possession of extra 21st chromosome
  • Congenital, which does not necessarily mean hereditary; refers to a disorder that one is born with
  • Characterized by moderate to severe intellectual disability and often physical abnormalities
  • After age 30, the brain of a person with Down syndrome begins to degenerate in a manner similar to Alzheimer’s disease (genes for Alzheimer’s are on the 21st chromosome)
  • 100 years ago, people with down syndrome only lived up to 20 years old but now It’s common for them to live 50 – 70 years of age
279
Q

What are the chances that the child of someone with down syndrome has down syndrome?

A

Their child has a 50% chance of having down syndrome

280
Q

What’s Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A
  • Autoimmune demyelinating disease that usually occurs in people’s late twenties or thirties
  • Certain genes increase one’s susceptibility for getting MS, but it is generally a sporadic disease - one that is not obviously caused by an inherited gene mutation or an infectious agent
    -At scattered locations within the central nervous system, myelin sheaths are attacked by the person’s own immune system, leaving behind hard patches of debris called sclerotic plaques
  • Normal transmission of neural messages through demyelinated axons is interrupted
  • Because the damage occurs in white matter located throughout the brain and spinal cord, a wide variety of neurological disorders are seen
  • When people die of sclerosis, they have hard plaque all over their brain
281
Q

What are the symptom stages for Multiple Sclerosis?

A
  • Symptoms of multiple sclerosis go through cycles where they flare up and then decrease after varying periods of time(remitting-relapsing MS)
  • In most cases, this pattern is followed by progressive MS later in course of disease
  • Progressive MS is characterized by a slow, continuous increase in symptoms
  • 2x as common in females than males
282
Q

What’s the treatment for Multiple Sclerosis?

A
  • There isn’t yet an effective treatment for multiple sclerosis, but many drugs that help a little have been approved, including:
  • interferon beta - injection of a protein that modulates immune system activity
  • glatiramer acetate – peptides that mimic myelin (decoy approach)
283
Q

What’s the cause of Multiple Sclerosis?

A
  • People who spend their childhood in places far from equator are more likely to come down with disease than are those who live close to equator
  • It’s likely that some disease contracted during childhood spent in region in which virus is prevalent causes person’s immune system to attack his or her own myelin
  • Some gene mutations that make the immune system not as accurate
284
Q

What is the degeneration of cells caused by?

A

Degeneration is typically the result of apoptosis, which is triggered by collections (aggregates or clumping) of misfolded proteins that disrupt normal cellular function

285
Q

How do we characterize neurodegenerative disorders?

A

By which cells die off first

286
Q

What’s transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (or prion protein disease)?

A
  • Contagious brain disease (includes mad cow and Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease) whose degenerative process gives the brain a sponge-like appearance
  • Accumulation of misfolded prion protein is responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
287
Q

What’s a prion?

A

Misfolded proteins with the ability to transmit their misfolded shape onto normal variants of the same protein

288
Q

Describe the contagious nature of prion protein diseases

A
  • When a misfolded prion protein interacts with correctly folded prion proteins, it will cause them to misfold as well
  • Prion protein diseases spread from cell and cell and animal to animal by means of contact with misfolded prion protein
  • It is the only infectious agent that is just a protein
  • All other infectious agents (viruses, bacteria, fungi, parasites) contain nucleic acids
289
Q

How can prion disease be spread?

A

Through feeding infectious animals and their brains to other animals or people

290
Q

Describe Huntington’s disease

A
  • Caused by one dominant mutation in the Huntington gene
  • Over time, aggregates of huntington protein form in the input nuclei of the basal ganglia (the striatum - caudate nucleus and putamen) causing neurodegeneration
  • Affects 1 in 10,000 people
  • Symptoms usually begin between 30 and 50 years of age and death follows 15-20 years later
  • Characterized by an increasingly severe lack of coordination, uncontrollable jerky limb movements, and eventually dementia followed by death
  • Movements in Huntington’s disease look like fragments of purposeful movements but occur involuntarily
  • People with this disease look drunk, due to uncontrollable movements
291
Q

What’s the difference between a normal protein and a huntington protein?

A
  • Normal protein: string of glutamine amino acids (less than 35)
  • Huntington protein has more than 39 strings of glutamine amino acid
292
Q

What’s the treatment for huntington’s disease?

A
  • There is presently no cure (or treatment really), but there is guarded optimism about the potential of antisense gene therapy (even though two large clinical trials recently failed)
  • Antisense DNA (or RNA)
    -> string of DNA that replicates huntington’s DNA, can be administered intrathecally (in the spinal cord)
  • Flood the brain with Antisense DNA so the huntington DNA doesn’t get translated
  • Researchers are hopeful that this approach (or viral-mediated gene delivery and gene editing technologies) will one day become a practical and effective approach to altering gene expression in the brains of living people
293
Q

What’s Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Degenerative “movement” disorder
  • Associated with degeneration (death) of dopamine neurons in the midbrain, specifically in the substantia nigra
  • Affects 1% of the population
  • Symptoms usually appear after the age of 60
  • Characterized by shaking, muscular rigidity, slowness of movement, difficulty walking, and eventually dementia
  • Without treatment, people have increasing difficulty initiating purposeful movement
294
Q

What are the causes of Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • Causes are largely unknown (partly genetic, partly environmental), however the death of midbrain dopamine neurons seems to relate to aggregation of the protein alpha-synuclein
  • Reduced dopamine signaling in the basal ganglia disrupts movement
  • Cognitive, emotional, and sleep disturbances eventually develop as well and there are currently no good treatments for those symptoms
295
Q

What’s the treatment for Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • There is presently no cure, but there are many ways to somewhat successfully treat the motor problems
296
Q

What’s the Alpha-synuclein protein?

A
  • Protein heavily expressed in midbrain dopamine neurons
  • Its function is not entirely clear
  • Abnormal accumulations are associated with dopamine neuron degeneration in Parkinson’s disease
297
Q

What’s a Lewy Body?

A

Aggregate of misfolded alpha-synuclein protein; found in the cytoplasm of midbrain dopamine neurons in people with Parkinson’s disease

298
Q

What can mutations in the alpha-synuclein gene do?

A
  • Can promote alpha-synuclein aggregation and cause Parkinson’s disease
  • These mutations can be dominant, in that only one bad gene (from one parent) can cause the problem
299
Q

What’s Ubiquitin?

A
  • Protein that is put on faulty/old/misfolded proteins, which targets them for degradation
  • Ubiquitinated proteins get brought to proteasomes, which breaks them into their constituent amino acids for recycling
300
Q

What’s Parkin?

A
  • Protein that plays a critical role for ubiquitination
  • Used for the destruction of abnormal and misfolded proteins by the ubiquitin-proteasome system
  • Floats around and recognizes misfolded proteins and attaches to them
  • Mutated parkin is a cause of familial Parkinson’s disease
  • If parkin is defective, misfolded proteins accumulate, aggregate, and eventually kill the cell
  • If a-synuclein is defective because of a mutation, parkin is unable to tag it with ubiquitin, and it accumulates in the cell
  • Recessive gene, you need to have 2 copies
301
Q

What’s a proteasome?

A

Organelle responsible for destroying ubiquitinated proteins within a cell

302
Q

What are dopaminergic neurons especially sensitive to?

A

The loss of parkin function and alpha-synuclein aggregation

303
Q

What can cause early onset of Parkinson’s?

A

People who have 2 bad copies of parkin gene

304
Q

What’s the toxic gain of function disorder?

A
  • Genetic disorder caused by a dominant gene mutation that produces a protein with toxic effects
  • Caused by 1 bad copy
  • Ex: mutations in the alpha-synuclein gene and huntington gene can produce proteins that create problems, causing Parkinson’s and Huntington’s disease, respectively
305
Q

What’s the loss of function disorder?

A
  • Genetic disorder caused by a recessive gene mutation that fails to produce a protein that is necessary to avoid problems
  • Caused by 2 copies (recessive gene)
  • Ex: loss of or mutations in the parkin gene can cause misfolded alpha-synuclein protein to not be degraded
306
Q

What’s the treatment for Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Main symptoms of PD are the result of reduced dopamine signaling
  • Dopamine doesn’t cross the blood-brain barrier, so it cannot be taken as a medicine to boost brain dopamine levels
  • A precursor of dopamine, L-dopa, can enter the brain where it is readily converted to dopamine
  • L-dopa treatments (injecting it) diminish the motor symptoms of PD
  • Not fixing the disease but helps restore the dopamine levels that help the system function at a basic level
  • Brain lesions and deep brain stimulation (DBS) devices are also common treatments for PD
  • Main targets for lesions and DBS are parts of the basal ganglia that become overactive in PD, the globus pallidus and subthalamic nucleus, respectively
  • Damaging the globus pallidus or disrupting subthalamic nucleus activity seems to relieve symptoms of Parkinson’s disease by removing one of the brakes on motor behaviour
307
Q

What parts of the brain become hyperactive when dopamine neurons die off?

A
  • Globus pallidus
  • Subthalamic nucleus
308
Q

What’s the order of treatments for Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • Start with L-dopa injections, then move to metal wires in subthalamic nucleus
  • When the doctor stimulates these wires, there will be immediate effects, immediate relief of tremors and ease of ability to move
309
Q

What are the 2 regions of the brain that have been targets of stereotaxic surgery for Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • Internal division of Globus pallidus
  • Subthalamic nucleus
  • Damage or deep brain stimulation of these regions reduces inhibitory input to the thalamus and facilitates movement
310
Q

Any neurodegenerative disease will lead to what overtime?

A

Dementia

311
Q

What’s dementia?

A

Progressive impairments to memory, thinking, and behavior that affect the ability to perform everyday activities as a result of a neurological disorder

312
Q

What are the causes of dementia?

A

-Neurodegenerative disease
- Multiple Sclerosis
- Multiple strokes
- Repeated brain trauma (chronic traumatic encephalopathy)

313
Q

What’s Alzheimer’s Disease?

A
  • Alzheimer’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that causes progressive memory loss, motor deficits, and eventual death
  • Occurs in approximately 10% of the population above the age of 65 and almost 50% of people older than 85 years
  • Associated with aggregates of misfolded Beta-amyloid protein and severe degeneration within and around the hippocampus and neocortex
  • Most common form of dementia
  • Occurs very slowly over decades
314
Q

What’s the Beta-amyloid precursor protein (APP)?

A
  • Protein that is the precursor for beta-amyloid protein
  • Gene for this protein is located on chromosome 21, which is the one duplicated (triplicated) in down syndrome
  • Explains why people people with down syndrome often get Alzheimer’s
315
Q

What’s secretase?

A
  • Class of enzymes that cut the beta-amyloid precursor protein into smaller fragments, including beta-amyloid
  • Cut the protein in 2 places
  • Over 70-90 years, the aggregation in the brain gets overwhelming
316
Q

What’s Presenilin?

A
  • Protein that forms part of the secretases that cut APP
  • Mutations in presenilin can cause it to preferentially generate the abnormal long form beta-amyloid, which causes early onset Alzheimer’s disease
317
Q

What’s Apolipoprotein E (ApoE)?

A
  • Glycoprotein that transports cholesterol in the blood and plays a role in cellular repair
  • Presence of the E4 allele of the apoE gene increases risk of late-onset Alzheimer’s disease
  • The amount of cholestrerol you have in the membranes of your brain, will impact how much cutting in the wrong spot will occur (which can lead to Alzheimer’s)
318
Q

What’s Beta-amyloid (Abeta)

A

Protein found in excessive amounts in brains of patients with Alzheimer’s disease

319
Q

What’s Amyloid plaque?

A

Extracellular aggregation of Beta-amyloid protein surrounded by glial cells and degenerating neurons

320
Q

What’s a Tau protein?

A

Microtubule protein that becomes hyper-phosphorylated in Alzheimer’s disease, disrupting intracellular transport

321
Q

What’s a neurofibrillary tangle

A

Intracellular accumulation of twisted Tau protein in dying neurons

322
Q

How do some people have amyloid plaques all over their brains but no Alzheimer’s?

A

Have 2 mutations:
- One causing amyloid plaques to appear early-on
- One is a mutation in microtubules (in tau proteins) that blocks them from being phosphorylated
-> never get neurofibrillary tangles and never show dementia

323
Q

What are approaches to treating Alzheimer’s?

A
  • There’s no cure for Alzheimer’s
  • Getting rid of the amyloid protein and use antibodies to get the immune system to target that protein
  • Preventing microtubules from getting dysregulated from getting phosphorylated and aggregating together
  • Some medications reduce the symptoms a little bit, but they don’t significantly stop the neurodegeneration
  • Most promising treatments are a form of Immunotherapy
  • Many use an immunotherapy approach to get antibodies to recognize and destroy Abeta protein (or Tau protein, or both), either by sensitizing the patient’s own immune systems to these proteins or by directly injecting antibodies that are made elsewhere (vaccines)
324
Q

Other than age, what’s the strongest risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Traumatic brain injury

325
Q

What are some other risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • Obesity
  • Hypertension
  • High cholesterol levels
  • Diabetes
326
Q

In what kind of people is Alzheimer’s less prevalent?

A
  • Less prevalent in well-educated people, especially those that keep their minds and body highly active
  • Seems to be a use it or lose it phenomenon
327
Q

What’s Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) OR Lou Gehrig’s Disease OR motor neuron disease?

A
  • Degenerative disorder that attacks spinal cord and cranial nerve motor neurons
  • The motor neurons in the central nervous system are dying
  • Incidence of this disease is approximately 3 in 100,000
  • Typically starts after the age of 50
  • Symptoms include spasticity (increased tension of muscles, causing stiff and awkward movements), exaggerated stretch reflexes, progressive weakness and muscular atrophy, and paralysis
  • Average life span following a diagnosis is 2-4 years, but some people live much longer than that
    Ex: Stephan Hawking lived with the disease for over 50 years
328
Q

What are the causes of Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?

A
  • 90% of cases of Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) are sporadic (probably new gene mutations)
  • Mutations in 2 or more genes are usually required to cause the disease
  • 10% of ALS cases are inherited
  • 10–20% of these cases are caused by a mutation in the gene that produces the enzyme superoxide dismutase 1 (SOD1), found on chromosome 21
329
Q

What does the enzyme superoxide dismutase 1 (SOD1) do?

A

Causes a toxic gain of function that leads to protein misfolding and aggregation, impaired axonal transport, and mitochondrial dysfunction

330
Q

What other disorder has many similarities to Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and are considered to be part of a common disease spectrum?

A
  • Frontotemporal dementia (FTD - neurodegenerative disorder)
  • Genetic, clinical, and pathological similarities
331
Q

What’s the treatment for Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?

A
  • Currently no cure for ALS
  • Only current pharmacological treatment is a drug that reduces glutamate-induced excitotoxicity, which extends life by about 2 to 3 months
332
Q

What kind of disorders have a strong genetic component to them?

A
  • Most disorders associated with old age (including neurodegenerative disease, cardiovascular disease, and cancer)
  • Common gene variants in the human population are associated with higher risk of getting a particular late onset disorder
333
Q

Why do very harmful gene variants tend to be extremely rare and recent in origin?

A
  • Gene mutations that reduce reproductive success tend to get eliminated from the gene pool fairly quickly
  • Very harmful gene variants are typically eliminated within a few generations, so they tend to be extremely rare and recent in origin
334
Q

How long do mutations that cause a slight reduction in fitness last?

A
  • Mutations that cause small deleterious effects are removed more slowly, so they tend to be more common and older – inherited from parents, grandparents, and so forth
  • These mutations may only persist in the population for a 100 generations on average before getting selected out
335
Q

Why have most genes in our genome gone to fixation (don’t vary across people)?

A
  • Virtually 100% prevalence in the human population
  • Because they promoted survival and reproduction under ancestral conditions better than other genes did
336
Q

What can neutral gene variants give rise to?

A

Can give rise to variations in human nature that are not clearly associated with an overall change in reproductive success (like different personality traits)

337
Q

Why is it likely that some common gene variants that were completely neutral across all ancestral environments are now harmful?

A
  • Since our environment, culture, and life span changed so dramatically in the last few hundred years
  • These common gene variants are associated with diseases that show the classic hallmarks of gene-environment interactions (i.e., they are heritable, but prevalence rates vary widely across cultures and recent history, and there are straightforward environmental explanations for the variability in disease prevalence)
  • There are common gene variations that have been present around in cultures for a while that were never bad but are recently showing strong environmental pressure on them and making the genes much more of a concern
338
Q

The environmental risk factors associated with which disorders were not present in ancestral environments?

A
  • late onset disorders, due to rapid increase in human life spans
  • obesity and diabetes, due to the abundance and low price of unnaturally tasty food
  • asthma, due to new types and unnaturally high levels of antigens and pollutants
  • addictions to highly purified synthetic drugs, such as heroin and meth
  • depression and anxiety – prevalence rates have changed rapidly in recent history and vary enormously between cultures
339
Q

What are general characteristics of and statistics surrounding psychiatric illnesses?

A
  • They’re heritable (20 to 80% of the variance in who has a given mental disorder is well explained by genetics)
  • They’re common (the frequency of severe mental disorders is around 4%)
  • They’re harmful to reproductive success (the fertility rate for people with severe mental disorders is about half the national average)
340
Q

What’s the prevalence of schizophrenia?

A
  • About ~1% of the population
  • This has been highly consistent across cultures and recent history
341
Q

Describe the genetics behind schizophrenia

A
  • Genetic studies have found that schizophrenia is generally not associated with one bad gene, one bad protein, or one dysregulated brain region
  • Rather, hundreds of relatively common gene variants each individually confer a very small statistical increase in the risk of developing schizophrenia
342
Q

What’s a theory for the prevalence of these schizophrenia susceptibility genes?

A
  • That certain combinations of them may be advantageous for reproductive success and certain combinations may lead to schizophrenia
  • There’s a perfect combination that evolution is going for, but when it messes up people get schizophrenia
  • If this were true, the siblings of schizophrenics who don’t have the disease should have increased reproductive success on average, because they would be more likely to have the good combination of these schizophrenia genes in comparison to the general population
  • However, siblings of schizophrenics have the same reproductive success as the general population