Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PCM > Final I > Flashcards

Final I Flashcards

1
Q

Clean technique

A

using appropriate hand hygiene and clean gloves and a clean environment (minimal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Aseptic Technique

A

all Sterile supplies, antiseptic skin prep for procedure, a controlled environment.
As sterile as one could get, outside of the operating room (OR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sterile techhnique

A

Complete absence of microorganisms, all instruments and protective clothing are sterile, the environment (field) is sterile. OR setting. (maximum standard required through standard and Universal Precautions recommended by OSHA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ID

A

Administered directly under the epidermis at an angle of 10-15°
Used primarily for diagnostic purposes (allergy, TB, Candida) or applying local anesthetics, such as lidocaine 1%

Usually creates a “Wheal” on the skin.
Common sites are the arms and back

Usually uses small syringes and small gauge needles
i.e. 1 cc syringe with a 27 gauge ½” needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

gauge size

A

Gauge Size = higher the number the smaller the needle width (14-30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

SQ

A

Administered into the subcutaneous layer at an angle of 45° .
Allows for slow sustained absorption of medications, such as insulin, and opiates, such as morphine, dialudid and demerol

Common sites are the abdomen, lateral and posterior upper arm, anterior thighs, and ventrolateral gluteal region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IM

A

Administered into well perfused muscle at a 90° angle and aspiration.
Provides rapid systemic action of relatively large doses of 1-2cc, with least amount of tissue damage.
Includes vaccines such as Hep A/B, MMR,DPT, Pentacel, tetanus, B12, epinephrine, promethazine, hormones

injection Sites are Deltoid, Gluteus Medius, Vastus Lateralis, Rectus Femoris, Gluteus Maximus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

joint injxn indications

A

DIAGNOSTIC
Acute or chronic symptoms present
Diagnosis is unclear or needs confirmation and
consideration of other diagnostic modalities has been made
Septic arthritis has been ruled out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

joint absolute CI

A 
Local cellulitis
Septic arthritis
Acute fracture
Bacteremia
Joint prosthesis
Achilles or patella tendinopathies
History of allergy or anaphylaxis to injectable pharmaceuticals or constituents
More than 3 previous corticosteroid injections within the past year in a single joint*.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

joint relative CI

A

Minimal relief after 2 previous corticosteroid injections
Underlying coagulopathies
Anticoagulation therapy
Evidence of surrounding joint osteoporosis
Anatomically inaccessible joints
Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

joint injxn

A

sterile technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

lidocaine

A

vasodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

bupivicaine w/epi

A

vasoconstrict

dont use on fingers nose penis toes and earlobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

anasthesia

A

use smallest needle (27-30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

corticosteroids bad news

A

May accelerate normal, aging related articular cartilage atrophy or periarticular calcification
or tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

allen test

A

hold radial and ulnar art to see colatteral aretery supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Postural Color Change Test

A

Tests for chronic peripheral arterial disease
With the patient lying on their back, elevate the affected extremity for at least 1 minute
If the color becomes pale, lower the extremity to watch for return of pinkness which should occur within 10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Acute Arterial Disease

A

3 P’s-Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness

Pulm Emb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PAD

A

Chronic inadequate arterial flow
Intermittent claudication while walking, relived by rest

Physical findings: decreased distal pulses, pallor on elevation, ulcers/gangrene

An index of less than 0.9 indicates PAD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Venous Valve Competency Test

A

With patient supine, raise one leg as high off the table to 90 degrees and let the venous blood drain from the leg
Occlude the great saphenous vein with one hand in the inner thigh and then lower the leg and ask the patient to stand up
Watch for normal slow venous filling of the leg veins while maintaining pressure on the great saphenous vein from above
If rapid filling occurs during this time there is incompetent valves of the communicating veins.
After 20 seconds release the pressure on the great saphenous vein
If sudden venous distension occurs , it indicates rapid venous filling and incompetent valves of the great saphenous vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Homans

A

dorsiflex ankle if pain in calf then positive for DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DVT

A

Virchow’s triad ingredients for a clot
Stasis
Hypercoagulability
Endothelial injury

pitting edema and painless and not aggrevated by movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

lymohedema

A

non pitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

LAD benign

A 
Less than 1 cm
Tender
May be firm but not hard
Freely movable
Discreet borders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

LAD malignant

A 
Greater than 1 cm
Non tender
Rock-hard
Fixed to surrounding tissue
Difficult to palpate borders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

pitting edema

A

fluid overload or cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

non pitting

A

lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Erythema Nodosum

A

inflamamtion of the skin on the shins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

cellulitis

A

well demarcated area that is exquisitely tender to palpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

S1

A

AV (mitral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

S2

A

semilunar (A b4 P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

S4`

A

atrial contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

PMI

A

Located at 5th ICS mid-clavicular line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

JVP

A

RAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

prominant a wave

A

increased resistance to RA contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

absent a wave

A

a fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

large v

A

tricuspid regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

S1 and S2 heard louder where

A

S1 usually louder than S2 at apex; S2 louder than S1 at base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

increased fremitus

A

DT less air and more liquid from larynx to chest in enhanced as when consolidation is present (ie. pneumonia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

decreased fremitus

A

DT too much air when vibration from larynx to chest surface impeded (ie. COPD, obstruction, pleural effusion or pneumothorax)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

thigh sound

A

flat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

liver sound

A

dull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

lung sound

A

resonant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

bubble sound

A

tympany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

whezw

A

high pitched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

rhnci

A

low pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

stridor

A

Wheeze that is predominately or entirely in inspiration
Louder in neck than chest wall
Indicates partial obstruction of larynx or trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

mitral regurg

A

MR, TR and VSD can cause a holosystolic murmur. MR can radiate to the left axilla.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

embolic stroke

A

The left atrium can develop a mural thrombus due to the atrial fibrillation and break off a clot to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how much time for patient cenetered approach

A

General rule of thumb: patient centered/patient led portion accounts for about 5-20% of the allotted time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

risk class 1

A

pneumonia patient can be sent home on oral antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

risk class 2-3

A

pneumonia patient may be sent home with IV antibiotics or treated and monitored for 24 hours in hospital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

risk class 4-5

A

hospitalized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

most impt part of HEENT

A

visual acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Subconjunctival Hemorrhage

A

stops at limbus no tx necessary

56
Q

heterophoria

A

failure of the visual axes to remain parallel.

eso or exophoria

57
Q

esophoria vs exophoria

A

eso-inwird
exo-outwwrads
and bad eye moves

58
Q

homo hemi

A

both right side

59
Q

bitemp hemi

A

outisdes

60
Q

entropion vs ectropion

A

eyelid inward vs eelid out

61
Q

Bulbar conjunctiva

Palpebral conjunctiva

A

Bulbar conjunctiva – covers the anterior eye

Palpebral conjunctiva – lines the eyelids

62
Q

aniscoria

A

unequal pupils

63
Q

optic disc on which side

A

medial side

64
Q

order of looking in eye

A

disc to macula

65
Q

COMPREHENSIVE hx

A

New patientsHospital admission patientsConsultations Annual Physicals

66
Q

secondary lesion

A

evolve from primary skin lesions, either because of the natural history of the disorder (e.g., crusts in chicken pox) or because of scratching or infection.

67
Q

vellus hairterminal hair

A

vellus-peach fuzzterminal-pubic

68
Q

3 phases of hair growth

A

Catagen phase – transitional phase – 3%Telogen phase – resting phase – 10-15%Anagen phase – Growing phase – 85-90%

69
Q

clubbing causes

A

Congenital Chronic hypoxiaHeart diseaseLung cancerHepatic cirrhosis

70
Q

nail pits

A

psoriosis

71
Q

mees and beaus lines

A

chemo

72
Q

mobility and turgor

A

Note ease with which it lifts up (mobility) and speed with which it returns to place (turgor).

73
Q

extensor surface skin lesion

A

psoriosis

74
Q

flexor surface

A

atopic dermatitis

75
Q

Macule

A

vitiligo flat less than 1cm

76
Q

patch

A

cafe au lait flat more than 1cm

77
Q

papule

A

psoriosis small raised lesion

78
Q

plaque

A

large raised lesion

79
Q

nodule

A

dermafibroma firm, hard lesion, deeper than a papule, greater than 0.5 cm

80
Q

cyst

A

nodule filled with material, liquid or semi-solid.Often encapsulated.

81
Q

vesicles

A

herpes fluid filled lesions less than 1.0 cm.Single or in clusters.

82
Q

bulla

A

fluid filled lesion greater than 2.0 cm.

83
Q

wheal

A

urticariasuperficial localized raised area of skin.Blanche with pressure.

84
Q

scale

A

Ichthyosis vulgaris flaking of dead exfoliated epidermis.

85
Q

crust

A

impetigodried residue of skin exudates such as serum, pus or blood.

86
Q

fissure

A

tinea pedis

87
Q

ulcer

A

deep epidermis loss

88
Q

Lichenification

A

thickening of the epidermis and roughing of the skin surface often from rubbing or scratching.

89
Q

Excoriation

A

linear erosions caused by scratching.

90
Q

Koebner phenomena

A

skin trauma from scratching may cause new lesions spreading poisin ivy.

91
Q

KOH

A

fungus-hyphae

92
Q

tzanck

A

herpes (giant cells)

93
Q

oil mount

A

scabies

94
Q

BCC

A

80% of the skin cancersGrow slowly, rarely metastasize“rodent ulcer”pearly white with talengitelisis

95
Q

SCC

A

Arise from the upper layer of the epidermisCan metastasize actinic keratoses

96
Q

JNC-VII

A

pre=120-39/80-89stage 1= 140-59/90-99 Start drugs stage 2= >160/>100

97
Q

JNC-VIII

A

In general population, initiate pharmacologic tx when BP is 150/90 or greater ; adults age 60 or olderBP is 140/90 or greater; adults younger 60 yearsIn patients with HTN and diabetes, initiate pharm tx when BP is 140/90 or greater*, regardless of age.

98
Q

orthostatic hypotension

A

Drop of >20mm systolic or >10mm diastolic

99
Q

BMI

A

18.5-24.9=normal25-29.9=overweight30-39=obese>40= extreme obese

100
Q

most impt part of eye exam

A

visual acuity

101
Q

autophony

A

chronically open Eustachian Tube

102
Q

parts to see in ear

A

malleus, cone of light, incus, pars tensa and pars flaccida

103
Q

Nonmobile TM

A

fluid, mass, sclerosis

104
Q

Hypermobile TM:

A

ossicle bones disrupted

105
Q

conductive loss

A

BC>AC, external and middle ear, foreign body, ottits media, perforated eardrum, osteoclerosis

106
Q

sensoneurial loss

A

When the inner ear cochlear nerve is abnormal, this defines sensorineural hearing loss and both bone and air conduction is poor.loud noise, inner ear infxn, tumors, aging

107
Q

Sudden vision loss

A

retinal detachmentvitreous hemmorageCVA (stroke)

108
Q

gradual vision loss

A

cataractsglaucomaHIV-CMVDiabetesmacular degeneration

109
Q

presbyopia

A

aging vision- hard seeing close

110
Q

heterophoria

A

cross eye (bad eye moves in cover test)2 types esophoria-inward exophoria-outward

111
Q

anterior chamber

A

bw cornea and iris

112
Q

post chamber

A

bw iris and lens

113
Q

homonymous hemianopsia

A

w/b w/b left to right named for region you can’t see out of

114
Q

bitemporal hemianopsia

A

b/w w/b left to right caused by pituitary tumor

115
Q

horizontal defect

A

top to bottom difference

116
Q

blephoritis

A

inflamed lid margins

117
Q

entropion

A

eyelid inwards

118
Q

ectropion

A

eyelid outward

119
Q

Bulbar conjunctiva Palpebral conjunctiva

A

covers the anterior eyelines the eyelids

120
Q

anisocoria

A

unequal pupils

121
Q

accomadation

A

near and far

122
Q

convergence

A

near coming closer

123
Q

fundus

A

Optic disc (blind spot) in middle of physiologic cupRetinaRetinal vessels

124
Q

medial to lateral in eye

A

disc, macula, fovea

125
Q

Pinguecula

A

small nodule on the bulbar conjunctiva, does not cross over to the cornea.

126
Q

Pterygium

A

thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva which grows across the cornea.

127
Q

sty

A

infxn at margin of eyelid

128
Q

chalazion

A

painless nodule involving the meibomian gland

129
Q

bells palsy

A

CN 7

130
Q

conjunctivitis

A

bottom up

131
Q

ciliary injection

A

limbus to out;corneal injury, iritis, glaucomainflammation of the radiating vessels around the limbus. Very painful, vision affected. Can be a ocular emergency.

132
Q

papilledema

A

disc is swollen with blurred margins. Physiologic cup is not visible. Increased intracranial pressure.

133
Q

Glaucomatous cupping

A

Increased intraocular pressure. Causes increased disc cupping. The physiologic cup is enlarged occupying more than half of the Disc’s diameter.

134
Q

HTN eye chnages

A

AV nicking-veins taper as artery crossescopper wiring-thickened arteries Cotton wool patches – infarcted nerve fibers.Can also be seen in patients with diabetes.

135
Q

av nicking

A

veins taper as artery passes in HTN

136
Q

cotton wool patches

A

infarcted nerve fibers.Can be seen in patients with HTN or diabetes.

PCM (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions