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final for prin 2 Flashcards

1
Q

If an individual is suspected of acute fluoride toxicity in the dental chair, what should the clinician do immediately?

A

Induce vomiting

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2
Q

Which of the following best describes enamel?

A

Acid-soluble

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3
Q

Fluoride uptake is greatest in soft tissues of the body.

A

False

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4
Q

Dental caries is a multifactorial disease that may be caused by all of the following except:

A

Excess consumption of acidic beverages

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5
Q

What is the goal of dental caries management?

A

To restore and maintain a balance between protective factors and pathologic factors

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6
Q

1.23% APF gel contains _______ ppm of fluoride.

A

12,300 ppm

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7
Q

12,300 ppmFluoride is excreted from the body from which major organ?

A

Kidneys

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8
Q

A Caries risk factor that immediatley places an individual at severe risk for dental caries

A

Radiation therapy

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9
Q

Root surface deminerlization occurs at what PH

A

6-6.7

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10
Q 
All of the following bacteria are related to caries develeopment 
Except 
Streptococuss sobrinus 
Lactobacillus 
Streptococcus mutan 
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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11
Q

All are examples of clinical caries disease indicators except

White spots
Restoration placed in 6m
Decay into dentin
Xerostomia

A

Xerostomia

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12
Q

In caries risk assesment heavy biofilm formation is example of

A

Caries risk Factor

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13
Q

Biologic/ therputic influences that can collectevly offset the challenge presented by caries risk are known as

A

Caries protective factors

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14
Q

Optimal fluoride concentration for community water fluoridation is 1.2ppm.

A

False

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15
Q

Optimal fluoride concentration for community water fluoridation is 1.2ppm.

A

False

optimal= .7ppm

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16
Q

5% NaF varnish contains 1000-1100ppm in one unit dose

A

False

22,600ppm

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17
Q

Which of the following types of flouride hardens on the tooth structure in prescence of saliva

A

5% NaF varnish

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18
Q

Flouride :
Inhibits demineralization
Inhibition of biofilm:
Enhance remineralization:

A

Dose not

Enhance Biofil formation

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19
Q

Dental cares are reversable in the intial phase

A

True

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20
Q

Biological influences/factors that contribute to developing new caries are known as

A

Caries risk factors

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21
Q

Which professional used topical fluoride formulation has a PH of 3.5

A

1.23 APF

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22
Q

Slowly dissolving foods are able to clear the oral cavity easily and contribute minimally to caries development.

A

False

contribute alot to caries

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23
Q

Acid formation begins immediately when a cariogenic substance is taken into the biofilm.
Food particles are not needed for biofilm to form.

A

Both statements are true.

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24
Q

Sodium bicarbonate as a caries preventive agent is most effective for reducing acids in a toothpaste formulation.

A

False

SB= good for Xerostomia

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25
Q

Neutralizes acids produced by acidogenic bacteria

Severe caries risk patients with xerostomia benefit from sodium bicarbonate rinse

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

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26
Q

Example of low potency/ high frequency flouride mouth rinse for caries prevention?

A

0.05% NaF: 230ppm

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27
Q

Fluoride varnish is the primary source of fluoride for PTs of all level of caries risk.

A

False

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28
Q 
All maybe used as desensitizing agents for dental hypersensitivity except : 
5% NaF varnish 
Products containing potassium salts 
Dentifrice with added CPP-ACP
.12% CHX Gluconate
A

.12% CHX Gluconate

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29
Q

Naturally occurring 5-carbon sugar alcohol
Enhances remineralization and assists stimulate saliva
○ Xylitol should be listed as first ingredient : • Inhibits attachment and transmission of bacteria
Helps prevent erosion

A

Xylitol

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30
Q
  • 0.12% ….rinse 1x/daily for 1 week each month shown to reduce levels of caries causing bacteria
  • Cons: alters taste, stains teeth, increases calculus formation :High and severe caries risk patients
A

Chlorohexidine

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31
Q

According to the hydrodynamic theory, dentinal hypersensitivity is related to pressure from fluid movement across dental tubules to the pulp

A

True

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32
Q

Remineralization therapy is contraindicated for those with milk allergies

A

CPP-ACP

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33
Q

The most effective prevention for occlusion pit and fissure dental caries is use of 5% NaF varnish

A

False
Purpose of dental sealants
• To provide a physical barrier to “seal off” pit or fissure
• To prevent oral bacteria from collecting in the pit or fissure
To fill the pit or fissure as deep as possible and with a tight junction to the surface of the enamel

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34
Q

what Fluoride with concentration of 22,600ppm and is the fluoride choice for treating hypersensitivity

A

5% NaF Varnish

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35
Q

Type of sealant that doesn’t need occlusion adjustment

A

Unfilled

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36
Q

The best description on use of acid etch prior to sealants

A

To enhance penetration and retention of sealants

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37
Q

Naturally occurring 5- carbon sugar alcohol that inhibits biofilm attachment

A

Xylitol

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38
Q

Presence of white spots demineralization is a contraindication for the use of CPP-ACP

A

Flase

Milk allergies is

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39
Q

Age and eruption patterns must be considered when choosing remineralization therapy

A

True

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40
Q

For scute fluoride toxicity liquid that maybe used

A

Milk, lime water

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41
Q

CHX Gluconate for prevention of caries is recommended

A

Once daily, for a week, every month

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42
Q

Remineralization therapy solution that has the ability to stabilize calcium and phosphate in a solution to increase their levels in dental biofilm

A

CPP-ACP

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43
Q

Xylitol is more effective at remineralization the fluoride.

Xytol must be the first active ingredient

A

False

True

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44
Q

All Pt would benefit from using rinsing with .20 NaF; 905ppm BUT

PT with localized demineralization
PT with generalized demineralization
High caries risk
PT with orthodontic brackets/ moderate biofilm

A

PT with localized demineralization

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45
Q

Pain subsides or is alleviated with removal of the stimuli

A

Characteristic of dental hypersensitivity

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46
Q

Contraindication for sealant

A

Interproximal decay- on xray

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47
Q

Presence of pit and fissure with deep and irregular grooves on a tooth surface is

A

Caries risk

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48
Q

Preventive agent toothpaste clinically effective for reduction of root caries

A

Brushing daily with toothpaste 1.1% NaF 5,000ppm

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49
Q

Hypersensitivity is often difficult to diagnose because the presenting symptoms can be confused with other types of dental pain and different etiology

A

True

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50
Q
  • Teeth with clear cavitation or radiographic lesions that penetrate into dentin
    • Approximal radiographic lesions confined to enamel only
    • Visual white spots on smooth surfaces
    • ANY restorations placed in the last 3 years for a new patient OR in the last 12 months for a patient of record
A

Caries Disease Indicators
YOU CAN SEE IT

PAST/PRESENT
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51
Q 
Tobacco use,
mod-heavy biofilm 
deep pits/ fissures 
exposed roots 
frequent snacks/ sugar bevs 
radiation therapy*
drug use 
oral appliances
A

Caries Risk Factors

Factors of New desisaes that hasn’t happened yet!

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52
Q

contributes to progression of carious lesion

A

Lactobacilli

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53
Q

•what potency/ frequency for PT with
High caries rinse adolescents
• Generalized demineralization
• Patients with oral appliances contributing to biofilm accumulation
• Patients with significant root exposure

A

High Potency/Low frequency

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54
Q
  • Moderate caries risk patients
    • Newly erupted teeth
    • Adolescents and preteens
    • Areas of demineralizations

Patients with xerostomia*

A

Low potency/high frequency

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55
Q

Best describes fluorides mechanism of action in caries prevention

A

It is able to inhibit biofilm growth / deminerlization

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56
Q

Best describes S.Mutans and their ability to thrive in the oral cavity?

A

Have the ability to produce acid and live in low PH

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57
Q

may be used to arrest and remineralize caries

A

Best discription of 38% SDF

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58
Q

Flouride concentration of a 1.1% NaF prescription gel for at home use

A

5000ppm

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59
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is a fungal infection common in HIV patients.

A

True

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60
Q

An individual with uncontrolled HIV is classified as:

A

Asa 3

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61
Q

Acute infection

A

The initial exposure to the HIV virus prior to diagnosis is known as

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62
Q

What is the most common oral side effect related to the use of highly active antiretroviral therapy?

A

Xerostomia

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63
Q

The call HIV uses to replicate within the body

A

T lymphocytes

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64
Q

High viral load and CD4+ T cell count <200cells/mm

A

Which of the following best describes an individual with AIDS?

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65
Q

All of the following may present as opportunistic infections in uncontrolled HIV patients except:

A

Dental Caries

66
Q

The period of time after exposure to HIV where the blood changes from negative to positive for the serum marker is known as:

A

Seroconversion

67
Q

Infection disease that take advantage of a weakend immune system are known as

A

Opportunistic infection

68
Q

Infection disease that take advantage of a weakend immune system are known as

A

Opportunistic infection

69
Q

Asubstance capable of inducing a specific immune response and of reacting with the products of that specific antibody is known as

A

Antigen

70
Q

Protects individuals with HIV from discrimination based on HIV status

A

ADA; Amaericans with disabilities

Protects individuals with HIV from discrimination based on HIV status

71
Q

Viral supression

A

Low levels of HIV RNA copies making the virus undetctable

viral load count less than 200 copies of HIV/mm so it is undetectable in blood test

72
Q

Hairy leukoplakia often presents as curd like patches that may be wiped off

A

False

cant not be wiped off

73
Q

A viral load of less than 200 copies of HIV/mm indicates AIDS.

A

False
Positive HIV Test + Very low CD4 count (<200 cells) OR presence of specific cancers or infections = AIDS

healthy immune system normally has a CD4 count ranging from 500 to 1,600 cells per cubic millimeter of blood (cells/mm3),

74
Q

The ability of HIV to insert itself in the DNA of the CD4+ T cell is known as reverese transcription.

A

false.

Integration:

75
Q

Integration:

A
76
Q

Exposure to HIV is immediately detectable by blood tests.

A

true.

77
Q

Which of the following best describes thrombocytopenia?

A

Blood platelets less than 20,000 mcL

78
Q

Viral load

A

The amount of HIV RNA copies per millleter of blood

79
Q

Has roughness , not smooth
Can be bilateral, unilateral
-Asymptomatic, vertically corrugated, hyperkeratotic patches on lateral borders of tongue
-Cannot be wiped off!
-More common in male HIV patients than females
-More commonly associated with low CD4+ T cell count (<200)

A

Hairy Leukoplakia

80
Q
  • Most common HIV associated oral malignancy
  • Red, bluish, or purplish macular lesion often asymptomatic until ulceration
  • Most often occur on palate of gingiva
  • Caused by HHV-8
  • Can be unrelated to CD4+ T cell or viral load
  • Often establishes diagnosis of AIDS
A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

81
Q

-Fungal infection
-Typically presents as pseudomembranous candidiasis (thrush), erythematous candidiasis, or radiating fissures at the corner of the mouth w/ angular cheilitis
-Candida albicans most common type with HIV
Can be wiped off

A

Oral Candidiasis

82
Q

A patient with an A1C of 9% indicates which ASA classification:

A

ASA III

83
Q

Emergencies involving diabetic patients occur most frequently with which type of diabetes?

A

Type 1

84
Q

Uncontrolled diabetes is an example of a caries disease indicator.

A

False
well controlled= not a risk
uncontrolled = risk

85
Q

Individuals with poorly controlled diabetes are at low risk for poor wound healing and infection.

A

False

high risk*

86
Q

A1c from 5.7 to 6.4%

8% or higher

A

Healthy is less then 5.7
Prediabetes= 5.7 to 6.4%
• Diabetes diagnosis greater than or equal to 6.5%

8/higher = uncontrolled

87
Q

Happens over days :

underlying infection, disruption of insulin treatment, and new onset of diabetes.

A

Ketoacidosis

88
Q

body’s response to loss of excess glucose

A 
Polyuria= excess frequent urination 
Polydipsia= excess thirst 
Polyphagia= excess hunger
89
Q

sudden, confusion, drowsy, lack of coordination, weakness, sweaty skin, blurry vision, dilated pupils, normal or slightly elevated blood pressure
More common!

A

Insulin Shock/Hypoglycemia

WHAT TO DO: GIVE SUGAR (juice, frosting, glucose tablets), revival is prompt if not, then IV glucose

90
Q

develops slowly, flushed skin, abdominal pain, dry mouth, fruity smelling breath, low blood pressure, rapid but weak pulse

A

Ketoacidosis
Only type 1
• WHAT TO DO: activate EMS, monitor vital signs, keep patient warm, insulin injection AFTER medical assessment
DO NOT GIVE SUGAR

91
Q

The most common condition of coronary artherosclerotic heart disease is:

A

Angina pectoris

92
Q 
Which of the following is not a congenital heart disease
Pulmonary stenosis 
Ventricular septal defect 
Myocardial infraction
Patent ductus arteriosus
A

Myocardial infraction

93
Q

The chronic condition related to abnormal cardiac fundtion that may result from ischemic heart disease is known as:

A

Congestive heart failure

94
Q

What is the recommendation for use of the ultrasonic for a patient with an implantable cardiac pacemaker?

A

It is necessary to consult with the cardiologist

95
Q

A patient is taking the medication warfarin. What adverse reaction would the clinician consider with tis patient

A

Excessive bleeding

96
Q

Which of the following os an example of a medication used as part of antiplatelet therapy?

A

Plavix

97
Q

Secondary hypertension may result from sedentary lifestyle and poor diet.
Diet and lifestyle are modifiable risk factors for hypertension.

A

The first statement is false.
The second statement is true.

diet= primary
Secound= underlying conditions
sleep apnea, renal , drug/ alcohol

98
Q

Most congenital anomalies originate between the fifth and eighth week of life.

A

True

99
Q

A semi-supine position is contraindicated for a patient with congestive heart failure

A

False

it is good

100
Q

Atrial fibrillation is a type of cardiac arrhythmia

A

True

101
Q

Gingival enlargement, xerostomia, and poor diet in the cardiac patient are example of

A

Caries risk factors

102
Q

What medications is used to treat a patient experiencing symptoms of angina pectoris

A

nitroglycerin

103
Q

medications for cardiac conditions may relate to gingival enlargement due to

A

Calcium channel blockers

104
Q

The eithology of rhemuatic fever is related to what cells

A

Beta- hemolytic group A streptococci

105
Q

coronary artery disease

A

Conditions arising from reduction or arrest of blood flow to myocrdium

106
Q

What is the target INR value for a patient taking anticoagulant therapy

A

2.0-3.0

107
Q

A myocardial infraction results from

A

Sudden arest of coronary blood flow

108
Q

Chew tobacco users are at an increased risk for root caries due to:

A

Fermentable carbohydrates contained in smokeless tobacco

109
Q

Type of tobacco cessation provided should be based on a patients readines to quit.

A

True

110
Q

Tobacco use decreases the risk of peri implantitis after implant placement.

A

False

111
Q

Nicotine replacement therapy comes in all of the following forms except:

A

Injection

112
Q

What is the purpose of nicotine replacement therapy?

A

to provide some blood concentration of nicotine to reduce withdrawal

113
Q

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the pH of a tobacco product and the availability of free nicotine?

A

The more alkaline the pH the more available free nicotine

114
Q

Tobacco users are at greater risk for increased bleeding during dental hygiene treatment then non tobacco users.

A

False

115
Q 
FalseAll of the following are complications related to tobacco use and periodontal conditions  EXCEPT:
Increased tissue vascularity
Alteration of IgG production
Decreased host immune response 
Decreassed vascularization of tissue
A

Increased tissue vascularity

116
Q

After completing nonsurgical periodontal therapy on an individual who is daily smoker, what is a necessary part of patient education

A

The patients healing and progression of clinical attachment loss is related to continued smoking and tobacco use

117
Q

Which of the following chemicals is not released from the brainwith exposure to nicotine

A

Arsenic

118
Q

Vaping as a form of tobacco use in an example of what caries factor

A

Caries risk factor

119
Q

Term carcinogenic means caner causing

A

true

120
Q

Nicotine withdrwal may present as all symptoms Except

Depression
Increased irritability
Decreased hunger
insomia

A

Decreased hunger

121
Q

Hookah smoking is less harmful use of tobacco because there is no metabolism of nicotine

A

False

1 session = 100 cigs

122
Q

Which of the following is an example of a pharmacotherapy used for tobacco cessation?

A

Bupropion

123
Q

All of the following are potential intraoral manifestations associated with tobacco use except:

A

Apthous ulcer

124
Q

The most common oral manifestation associated with pregnancy is:

A

Pregnancy gingivitis

125
Q

Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated during pregnancy?

A

Phenolic-based essential oils

126
Q

Preclampsia during pregnancy indicates:

A

An increase in maternal blood pressure

127
Q

A patient with uncontrolled preclampsia during pregnancy is an ASA II.

A

False

128
Q

FalseReccomended amount of flouridated toothpaste for an infant 12 months of age for daily brushing.

A

A grain of rice sized amount

129
Q

Preagnant women with gestational diabetes are at higher risk of developing type 2 diabetes

A

True

130
Q

Goal of PT education for the pregnant pt

A

Educate on the risk of biofilm from mother to infact

131
Q

Risk factor that increases an infants risk for early childhood caries

A

Frequent exposure to cariogenic beverages

132
Q

Osteopina, the precursor to osteoporosis, is a risk factor for periodontal disease for

A

Post menopause women

133
Q

Use of anesthetics for pain control are dontradicted during pregnancy

A

False

134
Q

What age is the first infamt dental appointment recommended

A

12 months

135
Q

Which antibiotics is contraindicting during pregnancy

A

Tetracyclyin

136
Q

What teeth are offten effected by ECC in an infant PT

A

Maxialry anteriors

137
Q

Oral sympom that is the highest complaint by women in menopause

A

Xerstomia

138
Q

To relive pressure of uterus on the vena cave. Its recommended the PT rolls on the right side for DH treatment

A 
False= right side
LEFT!!= True
139
Q

Oral pyogenic granulomas are a malignant condition associated with pregnancy

A

True

140
Q

Women who have gingivitis before pregnancy are more prone to exacerbation during pregnancy

A

True

141
Q

Educateing the care givers on the infant care and what to expect from the childs current and net development stage is known as

A

Anticipatory guidance

142
Q

Medicationd that would be recommended for a pregnant women for pain management following an SRP

A

Acetaminophen

143
Q

The fluoride concentration for OTC childrens toothpaste is 1000-1100 ppm.

A

TRUE

144
Q

Which of the following steps is necessary to increase retentiveness on the surface of the enamel during sealant placement and orthodontic bracket placement?

A

Acid etch

145
Q

At what age is it recommended to begin cessation of nonnutritive sucking habits like thumb sucking?

A

3 years

146
Q

Best describes caries risk in the adolescent population.

A

Caries risk increases due to increased need for nutritional intake and frequent consumption of cariogenic substances

147
Q

Improper use of fluoridated toothpaste may result in mild fluorosis

A

TRUE

148
Q

Which preventive flouride treatment is recommended for the pediatric patient under the age of 6?

A

5% NaF Varnish

149
Q

What is best form patient education for a 5 year- old pt

A

Show, Tell, Do

150
Q

The first primary teeth to erupt into the oral cavity are:

A

Mandibular anterior central incisors

151
Q

Ultrasonic scaling is the most effective instrumentation for calculus removal on primary teeth.

A

False

152
Q

A tooth structure is most likely to be damaged during which stage of orthodontics.

A

During the debonding of bracketrs

153
Q

The shape of the interdental papilla of the primary dentition usually presents.

A

Flat or saddle shaped

154
Q

At which age is a pea- sized amount of toothpaste reccomended for twice daily use

A

3-6 years

155
Q

“Risk taking behavior” is a characteristic of which patient population

A

Adolescents

156
Q

Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is associated with which of the following communcable diseases

A

HSV-1

157
Q

All are childhood caries risk factors EXCEPT
Heavy biofilm and poor oral hygiene of parent caregiver
Prolonged bottle feeding with out cleaning tooth surface
Low socioeconomic status
Thumb sucking

A

Thumb sucking

158
Q

White lesions on primary teeth are an example of a caries risk factor for ECC

A

false

disease indicators

159
Q

Dental sealants may not be placed on permanent teeth until the child reaches 12 years of age

A

False

6 years

160
Q

period of time between conseption and birth

A

gestation

40 weeks

summer (3 decks)

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