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Pharm 3 > Final Final Review > Flashcards

Final Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

AE of Glitazone (TZDs)?

A

AE - FLUID RETENTION, weight gain, edema, exacerbates CSF, contraindicated in pts with class III and IV heart failure, MONITOR LIVER FUNCTIONING

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2
Q

Effect of mercury?

A

Mercury reacts with -SH groups in vivo inhibiting enzymes and altering cell membranes.

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3
Q

Busiprone?

A

2nd line agent for GAD

  • partial 5-HT1a agonist
  • gradual onset of 2 weeks
  • no abuse potential
  • no withdrawal reaciton
  • no alcohol potentiation
  • no sedative-hypnotic effect
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4
Q

AE of amantadine?

A

Livedo reticularis [purple, mottled skin]

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5
Q

How do you treat anorexia in end of life care?

A

Dronabinol

Dexamethasone

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6
Q

Action of acamprosate?

A

NMDA antagonist

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7
Q

AE of tubocurarine?

A

Hypotension
Bronchospasm
Excessive secretions

**all of this is b/c it is Benzylisoquinolines which causes massive histamine release – DO NOT GIVE TO PATIENT WITH ASTHMA

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8
Q

How are ester anesthetics metabolized?

A

Via esterases - extrahepatically

Ex. procain

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9
Q

What is morphine used for in end of life care?

A

Pain and dyspnea

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10
Q

Other than anesthetic property, what else does propofol provide?

A

Anti-emetic effect

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11
Q

Primidone?

A

Phenobarbital analog used for ESSENTIAL TREMOR

AE - QT prolongation

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12
Q

Fulvestrant?

A

ER antagonist everywhere in the body used to treat estrogen receptive breast cancer that is unresponsive to other treatment

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13
Q

Levothyroxine vs Liothyronine?

A

Levothyroxine: T4, longer half-life
Liothyronine: T3, 10x more potent

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14
Q

What receptor does oxytocin bind to?

A

Gq (GPCR)

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15
Q

Tx theophylline-induced seizures?

A

Benzos and barbiturates

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16
Q

Pt has thyroid storm but has history of asthma?

A

Give CCB NOT B-blockers – aka give diltiazem and verapamil

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17
Q

Danazol?

A

Partial agonist at androgen receptors
Tx endometriosis and fibrocystic disease of the breast

AE - acne, weight gain, hepatotoxicity, decrease HDL

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18
Q

Tyramine?

A

Indirect-acting sympathomimetic that enhances catecholamine release from presynaptic neuron

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19
Q

Parathion?

A

Organophosphate that binds ACHE inhibiting it – reverse with pralidoxime or Atropine

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20
Q

Which SSRIs have the lowest potential for drug interactions?

A

Citalopram, escitalopram and sertraline

*fluoxetine, paroxetine and Fluvoxamine have lots of CYP interactions

21
Q

AE of Clozapine?

A

Agranulocytosis [continue to do blood draws]
Weight gain
Seizures

22
Q

Which insomnia medication has the least day after drowsiness?

A

Zaleplon

23
Q

Buprenorphine?

A

partial mu agonist and kappa antagonist used to treat opioid addiction

24
Q

Acrodynia?

A

pink discoloration of hands and feet due to exposure to heavy metals such as mercury – treat with acute (DUS) and chronic (US)

25
Q

Which corticosteroids do not have any mineralocorticoid activity?

A

Dexamethasone and Triamcinolone

26
Q

Antidote for non-depolarizing ACh blockers?

A

Endrophonium and Neostigmine

27
Q

Aripiprazole?

A

Atypical antipsychotic that is a PARTIAL agonist at D2 receptor – all other atypical antipsychotics are competitive antagonists

28
Q

AE metformin?

A
  • GI irritation
  • lactic acidosis
  • vit B12 deficiency
  • weight loss
29
Q

Which TCAs have less anticholinergic effects?

A

secondary amines - Desipramine and Nortryptilline

30
Q

Which antidepressants can cause orthostatic hypotension?

A

TCAs or MAOIs

31
Q

Adverse effects of Mirtazepine?

A

a2 blocker and 5HT2 agonist

AE - sedation, constipation, dry mouth, weight gain

32
Q

Which atypical antipsychotic causes the least amt of extrapyramidal effects?

A

Clozapine

33
Q

Oxandrolone?

A

anabolic-androgen steroid

34
Q

AE of somatropin?

A

Hyperglycemia
Weight gain
Muscle ache
Headache

35
Q

AE of octreotide?

A
  • hypothyroidism
  • cardiac conduction changes
  • GI reactions
  • GALLSTONES
  • hyperglycemia/hypoglycemia
36
Q

What form of vitamin D is found in milk?

A

cholecalciferol or ergocalciferol

37
Q

Metformin contraindications?

A

contraindicated in pts with renal disease, hepatic disease, hypoxia, alcoholism

38
Q

Parathion mechanism?

A

Inhibits AChE increasing amt of ACh in cleft – pt has pinpoint pupils!

39
Q

What benzo do you use for short term treatment of panic disorders?

A

Alprazolam

40
Q

Which medications have paradoxical reactions?

A
  • Benzo
  • barb
  • antipsychotics
  • antidepressants
  • antibiotics
41
Q

Which anesthetic decreases intracranial pressure?

A

Propofol

42
Q

Which anesthetics are pungent?

A

Desoflurane

Isoflurane

43
Q

Which anesthetics are non-pungent?

A

Halothane
Nitrous oxide
Sevoflurane

44
Q

AE of Thioamides?

A

nausea, gastrointestinal disturbances, rash, AGRANULOCYTOSIS, hepatitis, HYPOTHYROIDISM

45
Q

Lugol’s iodine?

A

Lugol’s solution and Potassium iodide

MOA - large doses of iodide inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis (decrease organification and release) via brief TPO inhibition. There is no long term-use b/c thyroid “escapes” from effects after 10-14 days [“Wolff-Chaikoff effect”]

Lugol’s solution - mixture of iodine and potassium iodide
Potassium iodide - saturation solution

Used prior to surgical thyroidectomy to reduce size, fragility and vascularity of thyroid gland. These are used in conjunction with PTU and B-blockers in thyrotoxic crises.

Oral admin -takes 2-7 days for onset of activity

AE - Wolkff-Chaikoff effect or Jod-Basedow phenomenon (hyperthyroidism at the onset of iodine admin?), anaphylactic reaction leading to angioedema, brassy taste, burning of teeth and gums, enlargement of parotid and maxillary glands (with chronic iodide intoxication)

46
Q

Which parkinsons drug may cause livedo reticularis?

A

Amantadine

47
Q

Stanozolol?

A

synthetic anabolic steroid derived from dihydrotestosterone

48
Q

Which sulfonyurea causes the worst hypoglycemic episodes?

A

Glyburide

49
Q

What does physostigmine administration to a pt with TCA toxicity lead to?

A

heart block and asystole (cardiotoxicity)

Pharm 3 (21 decks)

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