Final ExamSum Flashcards

1
Q

What is a fracture?

A

Break in continuity of a bone, an epiphyseal plate, or a cartilaginous joint surface
(Trauma may also occur to adjacent tissue)

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2
Q

What is the healing process of a fracture?

A

Hematoma- clotting of blood
Fibrous network
Osteoblasts get to work, collagen expands, calcium is deposited
Callus formation-soft start- merges with bone
Remodeling - becomes bone

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3
Q

What are the treatments for a fracture?

A

Reduction (if bones are not in alignment-internal or external) and immobilization
External immobilization
Surgery
Supportive/comfort care- elevating, ice, non weight bearing, meds

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4
Q

What are the complications of a fracture?

A

Delayed healing- pain and tenderness longer than expected- 3-6 months after- this is not normal
Compartment syndrome-build up of pressure in soft tissue/fascia compartments, collapse of blood vessels- hypoxia and necrosis
DVT/PE- clotting
Fat emboli syndrome- fat released by long bones, acts as a clot- same symptoms as DVT by anti-coagulation will not work-supportive care

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5
Q

What is malunion?

A

healing when things are not aligned as they should be.

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6
Q

What is osteomylitis and how is it caused?

A

Severe pyogenic infection of bone and local tissue
Caused by: Organisms reach bone through bloodstream, adjacent soft tissue or direct introduction of organism into bone
Hematogenous osteomyelitis = most common

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7
Q

What are the treatments for Osteomylitis?

A

Pharmacological

Surgical

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8
Q

What is osteoporosis? How does it happen?

A

rate of bone resorption is greater than bone formation
bone mass decreased; fragile bone and fractures-prone to more fractures
-estrogen deficiency, post-menopausal poor calcium intake, lack of use

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9
Q

How do you diagnose osteoporosis? Treatment?

A

Bone scan
X-rays, CT scan

Treatment – calcium and vit D supp

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10
Q

What is osteoarthritis and how is it caused?

A

Definition – local degenerative joint disorder- loss of cartilage- bone spurs can occur-osteophytes

Pathogenesis – aging, wear & tear from repetitive stress

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11
Q

What is Rheumatoid arthritis and how is it caused?

A

Definition – systemic autoimmune inflammatory disease-Granulation tissue over cartilage- pannus –can erode and destroy cartilage
Swelling, enlargement, edema of joint
Damage to tendons and ligaments- contractures of joints

Pathogenesis – genetics,
? environmental, ? Lifestyle, smoking and stress- not 100% sure why

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12
Q

Manifestations of osteoarthritis

A

Joint pain, crepitus, bony enlargement, stiffness, Heberden and Bouchard nodes

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13
Q

Treatment for osteoarthritis

A

Exercise, PT, weight loss, medication, complementary therapies, surgery

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14
Q

Manifestations of RA

A

Pain (diffuse and in joints), malaise, fatigue(autoimmune

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15
Q

Treatment for RA

A

Medications, biological agents

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16
Q

Gout

A

disorder of uric acid metabolism leads to deposition of uric acid crystals in joints
hyperuricemia and urate crystal–induced arthritis

Pathogenesis
Greater production of uric acid than the kidney can remove

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17
Q

Treatments for gout

A

Pharmacological

Non-pharmacological- dietary changes

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18
Q

Alendronate (Fosamax) -Bisphosphonates

A
Decrease osteoclast activity
Causes osteoclast apoptosis
Inhibits bone resorption
Poor bioavailability
Distributes to bone w/lengthy retention time
Less frequent dosing
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19
Q

Alendronate (Fosamax) -Bisphosphonates use an d AE

A
Osteoporosis prevention & treatment
Paget’s disease
Hypercalcemia of malignancy
AE: *Esophagitis
Administration info!!!
Musculoskeletal pain
Ocular inflammation
*Osteonecrosis of the jaw- tell dentist**
Femur fractures
Hyperparathyroidism in Paget’s Disease
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20
Q

Alendronate (Fosamax) -Bisphosphonates administration info

A
Oral- very important **
AM before breakfast
Empty stomach
Full glass of water (no other drinks)
No food/Drinks x 30 – 60 minutes
Upright x 30 minutes
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21
Q

RA Pharmacological Treatment

A

NSAIDs

Non-Biologic DMARDs

Biologic DMARDs

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22
Q

NSAIDS for RA treatment

A

Symptomatic relief
Do not prevent joint damage or disease progression
No longer 1st line treatment alone

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23
Q

Non-Biologic DMARDs for RA treatment

A

Reduce damage & slow progression
Methotrexate (MTX, first line)
Low-dose = Once Weekly
Mechanism of action = Decrease B & T lymphocytes
Adverse Effects: hepatic fibrosis, bone marrow suppression, GI ulceration

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24
Q

Biologic DMARDs for RA treatment

A

Affect specific processes in development of RA
TNF inhibitors = etanercept (Enbrel)
Adverse Effects: serious infections (fungal, TB); allergic rxns, HF, Cancer, Hematologic abnormalities, hepatotoxicity, CNS demyelinating d/o
Avoid live vaccines, immunosuppressant drugs

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25
Q

What are the differences in the current and evolving paradigm for RA treatment?

A

Evolving says to reduce the use of DMARDS and to use monotherapy with biologics

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26
Q

What drugs are used for short term gout therapy?

A

NSAIDs = 1st line agents (commonly indomethacin)
Glucocorticoids
Avoid in pts prone to hyperglycemia
Colchicine

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27
Q

What drug is used for long-term gout therapy?

A

Long-term = urate-lowering
> 3 times/year
Allopurinol

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28
Q

Colchicine

A

inhibition of leukocyte infiltration
used for: Gouty attack
Prophylaxis against attacks (at lower doses)
Aborts impending attacks

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29
Q

AE of colchicine

A
GI (25%) = N/V/Diarrhea, pain = stop therapy
Myelosuppression
Myopathy (rhabdomyolysis with long term tx)
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30
Q

What are the goals of therapy for hyperuricemia?

A
Dissolve urate crystals
Prevention of crystal formation
Prevention of disease progression
Reduce frequency of attacks
Reduce risk of nephropathy
Improve quality of life 
** NOT for gouty attack
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31
Q

What are the two ways drugs target hyperuricemia?

A

Inhibit uric acid formation: Allopurinol (Zyloprim) &Febuxostat (Uloric)
Increase uric acid excretion (uricosuric): Block renal reabsorption of uric acid & Probenacid (Benemid)

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32
Q

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

A
Mechanism of action: inhibition of xanthine oxidase
Effects:
Decreases production of uric acid
Lowers risk of crystal precipitation
Use
Chronic gout
Hyperuricemia due to cancer chemotherapy
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33
Q

AE of Allopurinol

A

Hypersensitivity syndrome
Initial treatment may precipitate gouty attack (start in combo with an NSAID)
Nausea

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34
Q

What are the three steps on the analgesic ladder?

A

mild pain–> non-opioid- NSAID, acetaminophen, aspirin
mild to moderate –> opioid- codene, tramadol
Severe –> opiod- morphine, fentanyl

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35
Q

What medications are opioid agonists?

A
Morphine – Gold standard
Hydrocodone
Oxycodone
Hydromorphone
Fentanyl
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36
Q

opioid toxicity

A

respiratory depression, urine retention, N/V, constipation

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37
Q

What are our drugs used for Parkinson’s?

A

Levodopa + Carbidopa
Ropinrole
Phenelzine

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38
Q

What are our drugs used for Alzheimer’s?

A

Donepezil

Memantine

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39
Q

What is the goal for Parkinson’s pharm therapy?

A

**No drugs to prevent neuronal damage or reverse damage already done

Improve patient’s ability to carry out activities of daily life
Help with bradykinesia, gait disturbances, postural instability

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40
Q

What are the two approaches to Parkinson’s pharm therapy?

A
Dopaminergic agents (activation of DA receptors)
Anticholinergic agents (block ACh)
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41
Q

What two types of metabolism does dopamine go through?

A

– COMT & MOA-B

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42
Q

Which drug is our dopamine replacement?

A

Levodopa/Carbidopa

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43
Q

What drug is our dopamine agonist?

A

Nonergotamine: Ropinirole

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44
Q

What is our MOA-B inhibitor?

A

Selegiline

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45
Q

Levodopa + Carbidopa

A

increases synthesis of DA –> turns into dopamine
Enters brain- update into few dopaminergic nerve terminals that remain
Only a small amount reaches the brain ** carbidopa enhances effects of levodopa

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46
Q

Levodopa with and without carbidopa

A

70% of levodopa excreted out- 2-3% to brain without carbidopa
With carbidopa= about 10% to brain instead of 2-3%

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47
Q

Levodopa + Carbidopa response

A

quick response an gradual loss of effect

“off-on” phenomenon regardless of dosing

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48
Q

AE of Levodopa + Carbidopa

A

N/V, postural hypotension, Head bobbing, tics, grimacing, tremors, psychosis, Darken sweat and urine
Activate malignant melanoma

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49
Q

What are the drug interaction categories for Levodopa + Carbidopa?

A

Increase beneficial effects of levodopa

Decrease beneficial effects of levodopa

Increase levodopa toxicity

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50
Q

What are the drugs that increase the beneficial effects of levodopa?

A

Carbidopa, entacapone, tolcapone, apomorphine, bromocritpine, amantadine, anticholinergic drugs

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51
Q

What are the drugs that decrease the beneficial effects?

A

Antipsychotic drugs

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52
Q

What drugs increase levodopa toxicity?

A

MAO inhibitors

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53
Q

Which dopamine agonists are preferred?

A

Non-Ergotamine-ropinirole

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54
Q

Ropinirole (Requip)

A

Highly selective
Can be used early in diagnosis
monotherapy or as adjunct to levodopa-carbidopa
Dosed 3 x day

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55
Q

AE of Ropinirole (Requip)

A

Common adverse effects: nausea, dizziness, somnolence, hallucinations, insomnia

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56
Q

Selegiline

A

MAO-B inhibitor - can reduce “wearing off” effect

Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion

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57
Q

AE//drug interactions of Selegiline?

A

AE: hypertensive crisis (remember tyramine)
Intensifies levodopa
Meperidine (stupor, rigidity, agitation, hyperthermia, death) due to serotonin syndrome
Fluoxetine (reports of fatalities with nonselective MOA-Is)

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58
Q

What is our Cholinesterase Inhibitors for Alzheimer’s Disease ?

A

Donepezil (Aricept)

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59
Q

Donepezil

A

Approved for mild, moderate and severe AD
Modest improvements in cognition, behavior, and function
Prevent breakdown of ACh by AChE

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60
Q

AE of donepezil

A

GI effects: nausea, vomiting, dyspepsia, diarrhea = If it’s bad, stop therapy and reassess
Neuro: dizziness and headache
Pulmonary: can see bronchoconstriction (use caution in severe COPD)
CF: symptomatic bradycardia

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61
Q

Drug interactions with donepezil?

A

watch anticholinergic agents like antihistamines, TCAs and antipsychotics

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62
Q

Memantine (Namenda)

A

NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) antagonist
Modulates effect of glutamate (major excitatory CNS transmitter
* fairly new

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63
Q

AE of memantine// drug interactions

A

Dizziness, headache, confusion, constipation

Taking with alkanizing drugs could lead to increased levels of memantine
Sodium bicarbonate, aluminum hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide (Think Antacids)

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64
Q

What are the three mechanisms of brain injury?

A

Primary brain
Secondary injury
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) depletion

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65
Q

What is primary brain injury?

A

direct result of insult- acute-irreversible with tissue necrosis

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66
Q

What is Secondary brain injury?

A

Development of further injury after primary-more gradual- apoptosis

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67
Q

What is brain injury due to ATP depletion?

A

shared factor of primary and secondary- ischemia or hypoxia –if ATP drops quickly or a lot= necrosis. Gradual or less significant=apoptosis *can be reversible

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68
Q

What are the Neuron energy needs?

A

oxygen and glucose – 5-10 mins of ischemia or hypoxia before permanent damage
Calcium- intracellular – during ischemia//hypoxia=not enough energy to move the calcium-

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69
Q

What are 4 Additional mechanisms of brain injury?

A

Reperfusion Injury

Abnormal Autoregulation

Cerebral Edema

Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)

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70
Q

What is reperfusion injury?

A

sudden improvement in oxygen – free radicals and inflammation

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71
Q

What are the two abnormal autoregulations?

A

hypotension

hypertension

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72
Q

What are the two types of cerebral edema?

A

Vasogenic

Cytotoxic

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73
Q

What is vasogenic and cytotoxic cerebral edema?

A

Vasogenic-blood vessels leak fluid

Cytotoxic- ischemic tissue swell (both can happen together)

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74
Q

What three things would you test for manifestations of brain injury?

A

Level of Consciousness
Glasgow Coma Scale
Cranial Nerves

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75
Q

What three things does glasgow coma scale check for?

A

Eye opening
Verbal response
Motor response

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76
Q

What two parts of the brain effect speech?

A

Broca’s area

Wernicke’s area

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77
Q

You have a patient who is having a lot of trouble understanding what you are saying to them, which part of the brain would they most likely have damage to?

A

Wernicke’s area

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78
Q

When someone has damage to the Broca’s area, what would they have trouble with in language?

A

Making or expressing language

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79
Q

What two types of strokes are there?

A

Ischemic and Hemorrhagic

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80
Q

Ischemic strokes are caused by what two things?

A

Thrombotic and Embolic

81
Q

What two places do hemorrhagic strokes occur?

A

intracerebral and subarachnoid

82
Q

What is the circle of willis?

A

where major arteries connect in brain

83
Q

What is a TIA?

A

transient ischemic accident- symptoms only last short time

84
Q

What are two ways ischemic strokes occur?

A

Atherosclerosis

Arterial clots

85
Q

What are the two types of treatments for ischemic strokes?

A

Thrombolytic

Save the penumbra!

86
Q

What is the penumbra?

A

hurting but not yet dead- function can be regained

87
Q

Intracerebral hemorrhage ?

A

Same clinical manifestation of hemorrhagic- acute-headache
Severe chronic HTN
May recover but mortality is more common if they don’t recover
Treatments: manage BP- can’t be too low because we need blood flow- permissive hypertension
ICP? Blood-monitor

88
Q

What are two types of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage?

A

Primary injury
Secondary injury
Vasospasm
Hydrocephalus

89
Q

What is an Aneurysm? What happens when it’s ruptured?

A

weakening or out-pouching of blood vessel
-blood spreads into cerebral spinal fluid- meningeal irritation – blood can plug and cause hydrocephalus – headache, vasospasms-obstructed blood flow- can lead to second ischemic stroke

90
Q

What can cause an aneurysm? What are some treatments?

A

High BP, cocaine use, acute alcohol intoxication can cause a rupture – stroke

Can clip, or embolize – preventative treatment for vasospasms – manage BP

91
Q

What is Arteriovenous Malformation? What happens with rupture? What are some treatments?

A

blood vessels not formed right- large and fragile ball of blood vessels- seizure and stroke with rupture
Treatment:removal- kill off a little of them at a time, radiation, embolization,

92
Q

What are stroke complications?

A

Motor and sensory deficits
Language deficits
Cognitive deficits

93
Q

What are the motor manifestations of Parkinson’s?

A
Tremor
Rigidity-cogwheel, halting
Bradykinesia
Postural changes
Shuffling
Decreased facial expression
Micrographia
94
Q

What are the non-motor manifestations of Parkinson’s?

A
Depression
Personality changes
Cognitive dysfunction, dementia
Sleep disturbance
Urinary retention
95
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

demyelination anywhere in the central nervous system, caused by autoimmune process

96
Q

What is are the clinical manifestations of multiple sclerosis?

A
Fatigue
Visual impairment/changes
Depression
Spasticity
Sexual dysfunction
Neuropathic pain
Ataxia and tremor
Cognitive dysfunction
Dizziness and vertigo
Bladder, bowel dysfunction
97
Q

What are some treatments for multiple sclerosis?

A

interrupting the autoimmune process with medications, symptomatic/supportive treatment. some small doses of chemo

98
Q

What are the four types of MS subtypes: Symptom patterns?

A

Relapsing-remitting
Secondary progressive
Primary progressive
Progressive -relapsing

99
Q

How would relapsing-remitting pattern be described?

A

Drastic increases with drastic decreases and some coming back down to base-line, some don’t

100
Q

Esophageal pain–> Heartburn and Chest pain

A

When people com in for chest pain they want to make sure it’s not heart issue
Acidic gastric fluid come up- muscular spasms from reflux- can radiate to neck or throat. Can be similar to angina–> esophageal spasm

101
Q

What are the differences in Visceral, Somatic, and Referred abdominal pain

A

Visceral diffused, not localized, cramping or irritation and inflammation- gnawing or burning
Somatic Sharp intense pain, more localized, from injury to specific place.
Referred feels like it’s in a different area than it is.

102
Q

What are causes of emesis?

A

Coordinated sequence of abdominal muscle contraction with reverse esophageal peristalsis
Alterations in the integrity of GI tract wall (gastroenteritis)
Alterations in motility (obstruction)

103
Q

What is intestinal gas and how is it caused?

A

Results from altered motility or lack of digestive enzymes
Normal causes
Swallowing of air
Bacterial and digestive action on intestinal contents
Neutralization of acids by bicarbonate in upper GI tract

104
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of intestinal gas?

A

Belching
Abdominal distention
Excessive flatus

105
Q

What are some causes of constipation?

A

Dietary (low in fiber); cellulose (preventive)
Lack of exercise
Aging: slowed rate of peristalsis
Pathologic conditions that alter motility (ex: diverticulitis, obstruction)

106
Q

What are the 4 types of diarrhea?

A

Osmotic
Secretory
Exudative (mucus, blood, protein)
Motility disturbances

107
Q

How does osmotic and secretory diarrhea work?

A

Osmotic- lactose intolerance- increased amount of substances that are not being absorbed well

Secretory- toxin in intestines – an infection – stimulates fluid and inhibits absorption

108
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease?

A

Upper GI disorders caused by hydrochloric acid and pepsin

109
Q

What is PUD associated with?

A
H. pylori
NSAIDs 
Stress (glucocorticoids)
Smoking
Genetics
110
Q

What are destructive aspects of PUD?

A

Hydrochloric acid
H. pylori
NSAIDs

111
Q

What are protective aspects to PUD?

A

Intact mucosal lining

Mucosal regeneration

112
Q

Why is H. pylori so damaging to the mucosa?

A

promotes ulcers and prevents healing

113
Q

What are clinical manifestations of PUD?

A

Epigastric burning –> relieved with intake of food
Nausea
Abdominal upset
Chest discomfort
Can be asymptomatic and present with complications

114
Q

What are the complications of PUD?

A

Perforation

Bleeding

115
Q

What diagnostic tools are used for PUD?

A

Upper GI barium contrast radiography
Endoscopy
H. pylori testing (on biopsy)

116
Q

What is the treatment for PUD?

A

Focus: Ulcer healing
Medications: PPI, Sucralfate, Antibiotics for H pylori

117
Q

What are the two main causes of liver disease?

A

Hepatocellular- cells of liver not working

Portal hypertension- poor or inadequate blood flow/perfusion

118
Q

Hepatocellular failure

A
Jaundice
Decreased clotting factors
Hypoalbuminemia
Decrased vitamins D and K (Osteomalacia―vitamin D; poor blood-clotting factor production – vitamin K)
Feminization
poor BG control
119
Q

What is jaundice and what are the 3 causes?

A

dysfunction in process of bilirubin metabolism
Prehepatic
Hepatic
Posthepatic

120
Q

Prehepatic
Hepatic
Posthepatic

A

Prehepatic- hemolysis (excessive breakdown of blood cells), hematoma, ineffective erythropoietin
Hepatic - dysfunction of liver cells, ex) newborn jaundice
Posthepatic - mechanical obstruction

121
Q

What is portal hypertension and what are the clinical manifestations?

A

Results in varices throughout the GI tract and ascites
* Gastroesophageal varices
Bleeding with varices, vomiting with blood, rectal bleeding, bloody stool, anemia, shock? Loss of blood

122
Q

What is the treatment for portal hypertension?

A
Fluid resuscitation
Blood replacement
Clotting factors
Medications
Surgical interventions
vitamins
Balloon tamanade – inflated to apply pressure
123
Q

Portal systemic encephalopathy

A

Excessive ammonia – exact cause unknown
Can cause neurologic and psychiatric problems- could look like dementia, psychosis, lethargy, coma
Asterixis – “flapping tremor”

124
Q

Treatment for portal systemic encephaopathy

A

lactulose – helps eliminate nitrogenous waste- antibiotics, low protein diet, high fiber

125
Q

What are some complications of liver disease?

A

Ascites
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Hepatorenal syndrome

126
Q

What is Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

gut bacteria moves through wall into peritoneal- start can be very vague, can have fever, test peritoneal fluid, positive culture and elevated WBC, antibiotics- poor prognosis

127
Q

What is hepatorenal syndrome?

A

acute, progressive- kidneys were normal until the liver is so bad that it effects them

128
Q

Diagnosing liver disease

A
AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
ALT (alanine aminotransferase)
ALP (alkaline phosphatase)
Bilirubin 
Albumin
PT (prothrombin time)
129
Q

What two types of hepatitis are transmitted through food?

130
Q

How are hepatitis B, C, and D transmitted?

A

Blood

B=sexual contact

131
Q

How do you treat hepatitis B,C and D?

A

Immunoglobulins and antiviral

132
Q

What is chronic persistent hepatitis?

A

mild and asymptomatic- no treatment needed

133
Q

What is chronic active hepatitis?

A

progressive and destructive- can lead to cirrhosis, fatigue, malaise, N, anorexia, ascites, jaundice, abd pain- liver enzymes- treatment based on cause

134
Q

What is autoimmune hepatitis?

A

chronic active, diagnosed by antibodies, treated differently

135
Q

What causes cirrhosis of the liver?

A

Liver diseases including hepatitis
Biliary cirrhosis
Alcoholic cirrhosis

136
Q

Clinical manifestations of cirrhosis

A

All of the symptoms resulting from hepatocellular failure and portal hypertension.

137
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

Fibrotic, nodules- permanent damage – poor blood flow

138
Q

Which medications eradicate the H Pylori infection?

what are their AE?

A

Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Nausea and diarrhea

139
Q

What is our Histamine2-Receptor Antagonists drug?

A

Ranitidine (Zantac):

140
Q

How does Ranitidine work?

A

Suppresses the secretin of gastric acid by selective blocking H2 receptors in parietal cells lining the stomach

141
Q

What are the AE of ranitidine?

A

Caution in pregnancy
Multiple drug interactions with cimetidine (P450 inhibitor – avoid with theophylline, warfarin, phenytoin, lidocaine, etc.)
Doses needs to be adjusted in renal insufficiency

142
Q

What are the AE of Omeprazole?

A

*Long-term use increases risk of osteoporosis
Increased fracture risk due to decreased absorption of calcium
*Increased risk of:
Pneumonia
Clostridium difficile infection

143
Q

What drug interactions does omeprazole have?

A

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

144
Q

What is motion sickness caused by?

A

*stimulation of the vestibular system–which has many histaminic (H1) and muscarinic cholinergic receptors

145
Q

What are the four parts of the brain that affect vomiting?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
Cerebral cortex
Vestibular system and
GI tract - visceral afferents

146
Q

When you think motion sickness, you think_____?

A

vestibular mechanism

147
Q

What is our serotonin antagonist?

A

Ondansetron (Zofran):

148
Q

What does Ondansetron do?

A

Blocks 5HT3 receptors in CTZ & afferent vagal neurons in the upper GI tract
**prevention of chemo induced and post-op N/V

149
Q

What are the AE of Ondansetron?

A

QTc prolongation, headache, dizziness, lightheadedness

150
Q

What does Promethazine (Phenergan); do?

A

block dopamine2 receptors in CTZ

151
Q

What are the AE of promethazine?

A

respiratory depression, sedation, local tissue injury with extravasation, EPS

152
Q

What is Metoclopramide (Reglan)

and how does it work?

A

Prokinetic/Dopamine Antagonists
Controls N/V by blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors
Augments action of acetylcholine, which causes an ↑ in GI motility
Good for gastroparesis (diabetes)

153
Q

What are the AE of Metoclopramide?

A

Contraindicated in clinical with GI perforation, bleeding or obstruction
Can cause diarrhea and tardive dyskinesia-EPS

154
Q

What is normal transit (functional) constipation?

A

Normal rate of stool passage, but difficulty with stool evacuation from low-residue, low-fluid diet

155
Q

What is slow-transit constipation?

A

Impaired colonic motor activity with infrequent bowel movements and straining

156
Q

What type of laxative is Psyllium (Metamucil)?

A

Bulk-Forming Laxatives

157
Q

Psyllium (Metamucil)

A

Functions like dietary fiber- soften fecal mass and increase mass
Used for diverticulosis and irritable bowel syndrome
**48 – 72 hours for clinical effect
AE:Esophageal obstruction

158
Q

What type of laxative is Docusate sodium (Colace)?

A

Surfactant Laxatives

159
Q

Docusate sodium (Colace)

A
  • Alter stool consistency, water into feces = stool softener
  • Stimulate intestinal motility
  • Increase quantities of water and electrolytes in the intestinal lumen
  • Widely used and abused

Legitimately used for opioid-induced constipation and for constipation from slow intestinal transit

160
Q

What type of laxatives are Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) & Senna (Senokot)?

A

Stimulant laxatives

161
Q

Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) & Senna (Senokot

A

-selective action on the nerve plexus of intestinal smooth muscle leading to enhanced motility
-Rapid effects, but harsh cramping, depending on dosage ** don’t take with antacids, milk, PPIs
Castor oil is a member of this class (Pregnancy Category X)

162
Q

What are the AE of laxative salts?

A

Dehydration: substantial water loss
Renal decline: toxicity
Sodium retention: exacerbated heart failure, hypertension, edema

163
Q

What are the osmotic laxitives?

A
Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
Lactulose
164
Q

Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

A

Miralax, glycolax, Peglax
Nonabsorbable
Effect in 2 -4 days
AE: nausea, bloating, cramping, flatulence
PEG + electrolytes – used for bowel preps
Golytely
Colyte

165
Q

Lactulose

A

Semisythethic dissacharide
Galactose + fructose
Metabolized by colonic bacteria to lactic, formic, & acetic acids
Also used for hepatic encephalopathy
Acids exert mild osmotic action
Effect in 1 – 3 days
AE: significant flatulence & cramping

166
Q

What is the difference between a allergy and autoimmune hypersensitivity?

A

Allergy – the antigen attacked is foreign

Autoimmune – the antigen attacked is self

167
Q

What is the Antigenic mimicry theory

theory?

A

foreign antigen is similar to self so small alterations can look like the antigen= body attacks

168
Q

What is the Release of sequestered antigens theory?

A

during fetal development self antigen have not been exposed to lymphocytes and then meet later which causes an attack

169
Q

What is the T-cell theories
B-cell theories
Mast cell theory?

A

T-Cell- Suppressor t-cell function altered- something in process that’s not working
B-cells- Same for t cells but for Bcells
Mast cells- Same as t cell for mast

170
Q

What are some examples of Genetic factors and Environmental triggers for autoimmunity?

A

Genetic- genes that are associated with autoimmune- women are more likely
Environmental- viruses or bacteria- toxins in soil

171
Q

Hypersensitivity 1-3 are mediated by what type of cells? What are some examples?

A

B-cells
1-anaphylactic reaction
2- rheumatic heart disease
3- systemic lupus erythematosis

172
Q

Hypersensitivity 4 is mediated by what type of cell?

Example

A

T-cells

4- contact dermatitis

173
Q

How do you get Type I Hypersensitivity and what does it do?

A

Genetic
exposure to an antigen, IgE receptors link on mast cell in area of exposure, mast cells release proinflammatory mediators (e.g. histamine) with immediate 15-30 min reaction

174
Q

Histamine

A
Increased vascular permeability
Vasodilation
Urticaria
Smooth muscle constriction
Increased mucus secretion
Pruritus (H1 receptor stimulated)
Has different receptors (H1-H4); each receptor causes different responses
175
Q

What are some local responses for type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Urticarial (hives)
Sinusitis
Asthma

176
Q

What are some systemic responses to type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Vasodilation
Bronchoconstriction
Shock

177
Q

What happens with type 2 hypersensitivity?

A

Also known as tissue-specific, cytotoxic, or cytolytic hypersensitivity
Often immediate reaction, but some occur over time
Antibodies attack antigens on surface of specific cells or tissues causing lysis
**works on antigens or tissues of another human- blood, transplants

178
Q

Rheumatic Heart Disease

A

Group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection
Rheumatic fever, inflammation, tissue damage:
Skin
Joints
Heart: endocardium, valves, muscle
Central Nervous System

179
Q

What would someone present with if they had rheumatic heart disease?

A
Sore throat
Aching joints
Fever
Swollen lymph nodes
Nausea
Vomiting
Skin nodules
Rash
180
Q

What lab/clinical findings would you find with rheumatic heart disease?

A
Hx of group A strep throat infection
Heat, redness, swelling in large joints
Pink-red macular rash on trunk and arms
Chorea (rare)
 Serum c-reactive protein
 White blood cell count (WBC)
 Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
181
Q

Type III Hypersensitivity

A

Possible etiologies: infection, environmental antigen, autoimmune process
Pathogenesis: deposit of antigen-antibody complexes in tissues results in activation of complement and self-sustaining inflammation (ongoing)
Mechanism of injury: the ongoing inflammation causes tissue injury

182
Q

What is the difference between small and large deposits with type 3 hypersensitivity?

A

Smaller- can circulate longer in boy which can cause increased immune response but can also be removed by kidneys
Large- phagocytized more readily- if they circulate they can be stuck in kidney

183
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Occurs more frequently in women (7 to1)
Individual develops antibodies against nuclear antigens such as DNA, DNH, and RNA
Variety of signs and symptoms
Diagnosis may be difficult

184
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus and patient reports

A
Relapsing/remitting symptoms
Fatigue
Weight loss
Fever
Dyspnea 
Chest pain
Joint pain
Muscle pain
Facial rash
Bruising
185
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus and clinical findings

A
Serum antinuclear antibody titer ≥ 1:80
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Pleural friction rub
Pericardial friction rub
186
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity

A

Delayed hypersensitivity
Pathogenesis: sensitized T cells react with antigen and initiate inflammation and cell destruction – antibodies are not necessary produced

187
Q

Contact hypersensitivity

A

Most familiar type (poison ivy)
Epidermal phenomenon
Peaks in 48 to 72 hours
Slow reaction; hapten very small, incomplete antigen; becomes complete antigen when attaches to a carrier

188
Q

What are our 2 antihistamines-1?

A

Diphenhydramine

Cetirizine

189
Q

What is our Beta-adrenergic agonists

?

A

Epinephrine

190
Q

What are our Corticosteroids?

A

Prednisone

Methylprednisolone

191
Q

Histamine 1 effects

A

Vasodilation
Increased capillary permeability
Bronchoconstriction
Activation of sensory nerve production of itching and pain
Promotes secretion of mucus
CNS: role in cognition, memory, sleep-wake cycle

192
Q

Diphenhydramine

A

Use: Allergic Reactions, Sleep, Motion Sickness, Common Cold
*Injectable, Oral, Topical
Take with food
Interactions-Look for concomitant antimuscarinic agents
Look for concomitant sedating agents

193
Q

Diphenhydramine AE

A
Sedation- 1st gen, across BBB
CNS - Dizziness, incoordination, confusion, fatigue
CNS stimulation
Severe: Respiratory depression
Severe local tissue injury
194
Q

Cetirizine

A

2nd Generation/Non Sedating Antihistamine
Incidence is < 10%…could argue if this is truly “non-sedating”
Advantages:Dosed daily vs. q 4 – 6 hours

195
Q

Glucocorticoid Pharmacologic Effects

A

Interrupt inflammatory process via many mechanisms
Inhibit synthesis of mediators: prostaglandins, leukotrienes, histamine
Suppress infiltration of phagocytes
Suppress proliferation of lymphocytes

196
Q

AE of Glucocorticoid

A

Adrenal insufficiency, Osteoporosis: suppresses bone formation by osteoclasts, Infection, Glucose intolerance,
Myopathy, Fluid & electrolyte abnormalities, Growth retardation, Psychologic disturbances, Cataracts and glaucoma, Peptic ulcer disease

197
Q

Epinephrine AE

A

Hypertension
Dysrhythmias
Angina (increased cardiac work and oxygen demand)
Necrosis following extravasation
Hyperglycemia: activation of beta receptors breaking down glycogen

198
Q

Epinephrine formulations

A
1:1000 (0.3)
	1 mg/1 mL concentration
	SC, IM dosing
1:10,000 (3)
	1 mg/10 mL
	IV &amp; intracardiac administration
199
Q

Epi Pen Counseling Points

A

Discuss triggers and when to use
Show proper technique with holding pen
Do not put your thumb over the top!!
Inject in outer thigh at a 90 degree angle through clothes and HOLD in place for at least 10 seconds