Final Exam Study Questions Flashcards
1
Q
A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is an ___________.
A
Organ
2
Q
______________ is the most abundant chemical substance in the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight.
A
Water
3
Q
Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.
A
A dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances
4
Q
Choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes
A
Visceral pericardium covers the heart’s outer surface, and parietal pericardium lines the heart’s internal walls
5
Q
Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:
1. molecules 2. Atoms 3. Tissues 4. Cells 5. organs
A
2-1-4-3-5
6
Q
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called?
A
Sagittal
7
Q
The basic structural material of the body consists of ________.
A
Proteins
8
Q
The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________.
A
sequence of the nucleotides
9
Q
A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________.
A
the release of energy
10
Q
The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels,
respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?
A
2, 8, 1
11
Q
Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?
A
CH4
12
Q
The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________.
A
carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
13
Q
If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following?
A
74 protons
14
Q
Which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three-dimensional shape?
A
Hydrogen
15
Q
Which vesicular transport process occurs primarily in some white blood cells and macrophages?
A
phagocytosis
16
Q
In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored in ________
A
the smooth ER
17
Q
The RNA responsible for carrying amino acids to ribosomes for protein formation is_______.
A
tRNA
18
Q
Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?
A
a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
19
Q
Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?
A
microvilli
20
Q
Which type of cell junction acts as anchors and distributes tension through a cellular sheet and reduces the
chance of tearing when it is subjected to great mechanical stress?
A
desmosomes
21
Q
If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution with a solute impermeable to the cell membrane, what could
happen?
A
The cells will lose water and shrink
22
Q
Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?
A
molecular transport through the membrane
23
Q
If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is
ACGTT, then what would be the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA?
A
UGCAA
24
Q
Passive membrane transport processes include ________.
A
movement of a substance down its concentration gradient
25
Mitochondria ________.
contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function
26
Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals known as
"second messengers"?
Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers
27
The functions of centrioles include ________.
organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division
28
A gene can best be defined as ________.
a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain
29
Which of the following is true regarding the generation of resting membrane potential (RMP)?
When the Na/K pump is activated 2 K+ ions are pumped into the cell for every 3 Na+ ions pumped out
30
Which of the following is a principle of the Fluid Mosaic Model of cell membrane structure?
Phospholipids form the bilayer that presents a hydrophobic barrier impermeable to H2O-soluble molecules
31
In the maintenance of the cell resting membrane potential _______________.
ATP must be expended to maintain high intracellular K+ vs. high extracellular Na+ concentrations
32
DNA replication that occurs before mitosis and cytokinesis occurs _______________.
in S phase of interphase
33
Within the majority of cells in the body, DNA is found _____________.
in the nucleus and mitochondria
34
Which of these cells are labile cells, that is, continue to divide throughout their entire lifespan?
stratum basale cells within the epidermis
35
Cells with the following characteristics: cylindrical in shape, a single nucleus, are often branched and are
connected by intercalated disk, would only be found in which tissue?
skeletal muscle
36
Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium ________.
lines most of the respiratory tract
37
The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________.
collagen
38
Arteries, veins, and lymphatics keep clots from sticking as long as their ________ layer is intact and healthy.
endothelium
39
The first step in all tissue repair involves ________.
inflammation
40
What are the three main components of connective tissue in their respective order of composition?
ground substance, fibers, and cells
41
Epithelial cells that stretch from a cuboidal shape/columnar shape to a squamous shape are classified as?
transitional epithelium
42
Connective tissue cells that produce extracellular matrix are called _______________.
blasts
43
A type of connective tissue with collagen fibers, proteoglycans and chondrocytes is ____________
cartilage
44
Cells with the following characteristics: cylindrical in shape, a single nucleus, are often branched and are
connected by intercalated disk, would only be found in which tissue?
cardiac muscle
45
A tissue with matrix composed almost entirely of collagen fibers, that can be oriented all in one direction or
many different directions, and are able to withstand strong pulling forces in the direction of fiber orientation are
best described as which tissue?
dense regular or irregular connective tissue
46
Inflammation of the serous membranes associated with abdominopelvic cavity is termed _______.
peritonitis
47
Which of the following cell to cell connections attaches epithelial cells to the basement membrane?
desmosomes
48
Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?
microvilli
49
What tissue has lacunae, osteocytes, a high amount of calcium and phosphate salts, nerves and blood
vessels?
osseous tissue
50
Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following
changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?
the skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance
51
Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are classified into two distinct types: _____________.
eccrine and apocrine
52
The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.
99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C
53
Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, are found in which locations
in the human body?
in the axillary and anogenital area
54
How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?
by using the "Rule of Nines"
55
What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?
catastrophic fluid loss
56
The outer covering of mature bone, made from fibrous connective tissue, is called the _______________.
periosteum
57
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
parathyroid hormone
58
Wolff's law states that ________.
the thickness and shape of a bone is dependent on stresses placed upon it
59
Which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves?
provide resilience, flexibility and increased strength
60
Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________.
costal facets
61
What is the major function of the axial skeleton?
provide central support for the body and protect vital organs
62
The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?
radius and ulna
63
The "true wrist" or carpus consists of ________.
a group of eight short bones united by ligaments
64
Which bone forms the prominence of the cheek?
zygomatic bone
65
Which of the following is true about paranasal sinuses?
they enhance the resonance of the voice and lighten the skull
66
Which bone is a long bone and contains areas of diaphysis and epiphysis areas, a tuberosity near its middle,
and is proportionally more compact than spongy bone?
humerus
67
The articulation that most closely resembles a hinge in the body involves which bones?
humerus-ulna
68
The pelvic girdle, or os coxae, does not include the ________.
femur
69
Which of the following bones is not weight bearing?
fibula
70
Which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum?
perpendicular plate
71
Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.
melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing
72
The single most important risk for skin cancer is ________.
overexposure to UV radiation
73
A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which
layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured?
basale
74
Which of the following cutaneous receptors are specialized for touch or light pressure?
Meissner's corpuscles
75
Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for pain?
free nerve ending
76
Vernix caseosa is a ________.
whitish material produced by fetal sebaceous glands to protect fetal skin
77
The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being,
and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?
stratum basale
78
The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the
epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function?
macrophages called dendritic cells (Langerhans Cell)
79
Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the
following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?
lamellar granules in stratum granulosum cells, and a thick stratum corneum composed of dead keratinized cells
80
The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be
found in the dermis?
fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells
81
Which layer of the dermis constitutes 80% of its thickness and is responsible for tension lines in skin?
reticular layer
82
Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis
has been previously stretched and/or torn?
appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis
83
What makes up the axial skeleton?
the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
84
Calcium is vital to bone health, most importantly, because it .....
is a component of the calcium phosphate salts of hydroxyapatite
85
The recommended daily intakes (RDI) of calcium for adult men and women (19-64, premenopausal) are
800 and 1000 mg respectively
86
Exercise has many benefits to our bodies. Which type has the greatest benefit at increasing bone density?
walking, hiking or running
87
The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.
is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
88
What is the most important stimulant of epiphyseal plate activity and thereby, long bone growth, during
infancy and childhood?
growth hormone
89
The resilience of bone is primarily due to which of the following?
sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules, oriented in various directions in compact bone
90
The functional unit of compact bone is the _________.
osteon
91
During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid
for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.
lactic acid
92
In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.
changes in length and moves the "load"
93
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
94
What is the primary function, and thereby the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?
the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
95
Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of
the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?
long distance running
96
If a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.
no muscle tension could be generated
97
Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________.
provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
98
Connective tissue sacs, lined with synovial membranes, that cushion where friction develops, are called _______.
bursae
99
In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?
all synovial joints are freely movable
100
Menisci are _________________?
semilunar cartilage pads
101
Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________.
rare because of the ligament reinforcement, muscle placement and reinforcement of the acetabulum
102
Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged
as a result?
medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate
103
Which of the following statements best describes angular movements?
they change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones
104
Most skeletal muscles contain ________.
a mixture of fiber types
105
Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances?
Ca2+ and ATP
106
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
storing energy in the form of a phosphate group, that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
107
What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell?
the arrangement of myofilaments in sarcomeres
108
The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.
myoglobin
109
The contractile functional units of skeletal muscles are ________.
sarcomeres
110
What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?
bind to regulatory sites on troponin to allow tropomyosin to move and reveal actin binding sites
111
Tendon sheaths ________.
act as friction-reducing structures
112
Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors?
a first-class lever
113
What is the major factor controlling how levers work?
the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
114
Which of the following is not a muscle involved in the breathing process?
latissimus dorsi
115
What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?
the total number of muscle cells or fiber available for contraction
116
What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?
an agonist
117
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps is part of a muscle's name, what does it indicate?
the muscle has 2, 3, or 4 origins, respectively
118
The most powerful muscle, that is, the one that can generate the most contractile force in the body is the
________.
quadriceps femoris
119
The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean?
the muscle elevates or lifts up
120
The supraspinatus is located on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action?
to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction
121
Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?
the frontal belly of the epicranius
122
Which of the following muscles inserts into the calcaneal tendon?
gastrocnemius
123
If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________.
load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum
124
A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a (n) ________.
antagonist
125
What muscle type aids an agonist by causing a like movement or stabilizing a joint upon which an agonist
acts?
a synergist
126
Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings?
gracilis
127
Spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis
sternocleidomastoid
128
Which general statement concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true?
during contraction, the two articulating bones move exactly the same
129
Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles?
the type of skeletal muscle fibers
130
Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?
it closes, purses, and protrudes the lips
131
What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called?
power levers
132
Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is
usually strained under these conditions?
the brachioradialis
133
Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants?
vastus lateralis
134
Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?
hamstring muscles
135
Each muscle cell is a _________________.
muscle fiber
136
________ are invaginations of the sarcolemma that facilitate the conduct of action potentials in muscle
fiber.
T-tubules
137
A motor unit is made up of _______________.
a motor neuron and skeletal muscle fibers
138
The type of muscle found in the irises of the eyes and in the blood vessels is called _______________.
multiunit smooth muscle
139
When an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction, the most immediate result is __________.
the release of acetylcholine from the motor neuron
140
Continued mild or partial contraction of a muscle that keeps it healthy and ready to respond is known as
muscle __________.
tone
141
The sequence of electrical changes that occurs along the sarcolemma when a muscle fiber is stimulated is
known as the __________.
muscle action potential
142
The refractory period in which the muscle will NOT contract if stimulated occurs during __________ of the
muscle cell.
repolarization
143
The type of muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension although the muscle
neither shortens nor lengthens is called __________.
isometric
144
An overlap of actin and myosin filaments occurs in the:
A Band
145
Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart's rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will
most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?
parasympathetic division
146
The concentration of ions in the immediate chemical environment surrounding the neurons in the CNS must
be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this?
astrocytes
147
Bacteria in the blood can be prevented entry to the fluids surrounding the brain. Which cells are most
responsible for preventing bacteria from entering the fluids of the brain by helping to form the blood/brain
barrier?
astrocytes
148
Which brain nucleus is the body's "biological clock"?
suprachiasmatic nucleus
149
Nuclei of cranial nerves V (trigeminal), VI (abducens), and VII (facial) are found in the ________.
medulla
150
The brain stem consists of the ________.
midbrain, medulla, and pons
151
What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain?
ependymal cells
152
Vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.
medulla oblongata
153
Cell bodies of peripheral sensory neurons are located in ________
the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
154
The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________.
mainly myelinated, but some unmyelinated nerve fibers
155
An individual is accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in _______.
paraplegia
156
Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________.
pyramidal and corticospinal
157
An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a
bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the ________.
visual association area
158
The Frontal eye field and Wernicke’s area ___________.
control voluntary movements of the eyes, and reading, speech and language, respectively.
159
Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality?
prefrontal cortex
160
The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
metabolic waste such as urea
161
The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral
cortex is the ________.
reticular formation
162
Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
red blood cells
163
REM sleep is associated with ________.
temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm
164
Important nuclei of the indirect (multineuronal) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus
of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________.
vestibular nuclei
165
The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst
when you hold your breath too long is the ________.
visceral sensory area
166
Which statement about coma is true?
coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma
167
Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of ________.
Parkinson's disease
168
Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate?
epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection and tumor
169
2nd -order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the ________.
thalamus
170
Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in
specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________.
premotor cortex
171
The large structure composed of commissural fibers that connects the right and left sides of the brain is
called the ________.
corpus callosum
172
Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the _______ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson's disease
substantia nigra
173
If someone spills very hot coffee (200°F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the
following receptor types is causing this sensation
nociceptors
174
A person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it. Which of the
following receptors has initiated this reflex?
tendon organ
175
Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus' strength is transmitted to the central
nervous system from sensory nerves?
action potential frequency is increased as stimulus' strength increases
176
A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage
to which of the following?
olfactory nerve (I)
177
A patient has lost vision on the left side of both eyes. The patient has likely suffered damage to ________.
the right optic tract
178
An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient's eye.
She records the reactivity of the patents pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports
which of the following?
patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III)
179
A doctor asks her patient to follow the motion of her finger as she moves it up and down, left and right,
while watching the patient to observe if he/she maintains balance. Which of the following cranial nerves is not
being tested?
vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
180
Dermatome maps are useful to clinicians because ________.
they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury
181
A patient has an injury of the spine and is now suffering from a loss of motor function in his right arm.
However, he still has normal sensory function in the arm. Based on this information it is likely that the patient
has nervous tissue damage located at ________.
the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra
182
Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order) ________.
roots, trunks, divisions, and cords
183
After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.
Schwann cells
184
In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________.
extend
185
Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc – start to finish?
receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
186
The effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting. Which of the following gives the best
explanation for why this is so?
different post synaptic neurons will have different receptors connected to different cellular mechanisms.
187
When a sensory neuron is excited by a form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) _______.
generator potential
188
The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.
parasympathetic division
189
Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.
hypothalamus
190
Sympathetic responses are often widespread throughout the body because ________.
NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
191
The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the
lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision.
oculomotor (III)
192
Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation
and conduction of action potentials?
voltage-gated channels for Na and then K
193
Which of the following neurotransmitters inhibits pain and is mimicked by morphine, heroin & methadone?
endorphin
