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Bio 210 -- Lecture > Final Exam Study Questions > Flashcards

Final Exam Study Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is an ___________.

A

Organ

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2
Q

______________ is the most abundant chemical substance in the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight.

A

Water

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3
Q

Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.

A

A dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances

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4
Q

Choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes

A

Visceral pericardium covers the heart’s outer surface, and parietal pericardium lines the heart’s internal walls

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5
Q

Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:
1. molecules 2. Atoms 3. Tissues 4. Cells 5. organs

A

2-1-4-3-5

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6
Q

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called?

A

Sagittal

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7
Q

The basic structural material of the body consists of ________.

A

Proteins

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8
Q

The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________.

A

sequence of the nucleotides

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9
Q

A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________.

A

the release of energy

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10
Q

The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels,
respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?

A

2, 8, 1

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11
Q

Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?

A

CH4

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12
Q

The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________.

A

carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

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13
Q

If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following?

A

74 protons

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14
Q

Which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three-dimensional shape?

A

Hydrogen

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15
Q

Which vesicular transport process occurs primarily in some white blood cells and macrophages?

A

phagocytosis

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16
Q

In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored in ________

A

the smooth ER

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17
Q

The RNA responsible for carrying amino acids to ribosomes for protein formation is_______.

A

tRNA

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18
Q

Which of the following describes the plasma membrane?

A

a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

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19
Q

Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?

A

microvilli

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20
Q

Which type of cell junction acts as anchors and distributes tension through a cellular sheet and reduces the
chance of tearing when it is subjected to great mechanical stress?

A

desmosomes

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21
Q

If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution with a solute impermeable to the cell membrane, what could
happen?

A

The cells will lose water and shrink

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22
Q

Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?

A

molecular transport through the membrane

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23
Q

If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is
ACGTT, then what would be the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA?

A

UGCAA

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24
Q

Passive membrane transport processes include ________.

A

movement of a substance down its concentration gradient

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25
Q

Mitochondria ________.

A

contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function

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26
Q

Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals known as
“second messengers”?

A

Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers

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27
Q

The functions of centrioles include ________.

A

organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division

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28
Q

A gene can best be defined as ________.

A

a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain

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29
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the generation of resting membrane potential (RMP)?

A

When the Na/K pump is activated 2 K+ ions are pumped into the cell for every 3 Na+ ions pumped out

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30
Q

Which of the following is a principle of the Fluid Mosaic Model of cell membrane structure?

A

Phospholipids form the bilayer that presents a hydrophobic barrier impermeable to H2O-soluble molecules

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31
Q

In the maintenance of the cell resting membrane potential _______________.

A

ATP must be expended to maintain high intracellular K+ vs. high extracellular Na+ concentrations

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32
Q

DNA replication that occurs before mitosis and cytokinesis occurs _______________.

A

in S phase of interphase

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33
Q

Within the majority of cells in the body, DNA is found _____________.

A

in the nucleus and mitochondria

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34
Q

Which of these cells are labile cells, that is, continue to divide throughout their entire lifespan?

A

stratum basale cells within the epidermis

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35
Q

Cells with the following characteristics: cylindrical in shape, a single nucleus, are often branched and are
connected by intercalated disk, would only be found in which tissue?

A

skeletal muscle

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36
Q

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium ________.

A

lines most of the respiratory tract

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37
Q

The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________.

A

collagen

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38
Q

Arteries, veins, and lymphatics keep clots from sticking as long as their ________ layer is intact and healthy.

A

endothelium

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39
Q

The first step in all tissue repair involves ________.

A

inflammation

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40
Q

What are the three main components of connective tissue in their respective order of composition?

A

ground substance, fibers, and cells

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41
Q

Epithelial cells that stretch from a cuboidal shape/columnar shape to a squamous shape are classified as?

A

transitional epithelium

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42
Q

Connective tissue cells that produce extracellular matrix are called _______________.

A

blasts

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43
Q

A type of connective tissue with collagen fibers, proteoglycans and chondrocytes is ____________

A

cartilage

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44
Q

Cells with the following characteristics: cylindrical in shape, a single nucleus, are often branched and are
connected by intercalated disk, would only be found in which tissue?

A

cardiac muscle

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45
Q

A tissue with matrix composed almost entirely of collagen fibers, that can be oriented all in one direction or
many different directions, and are able to withstand strong pulling forces in the direction of fiber orientation are
best described as which tissue?

A

dense regular or irregular connective tissue

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46
Q

Inflammation of the serous membranes associated with abdominopelvic cavity is termed _______.

A

peritonitis

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47
Q

Which of the following cell to cell connections attaches epithelial cells to the basement membrane?

A

desmosomes

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48
Q

Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?

A

microvilli

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49
Q

What tissue has lacunae, osteocytes, a high amount of calcium and phosphate salts, nerves and blood
vessels?

A

osseous tissue

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50
Q

Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following
changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison’s disease?

A

the skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance

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51
Q

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are classified into two distinct types: _____________.

A

eccrine and apocrine

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52
Q

The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.

A

99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

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53
Q

Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, are found in which locations
in the human body?

A

in the axillary and anogenital area

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54
Q

How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?

A

by using the “Rule of Nines”

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55
Q

What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?

A

catastrophic fluid loss

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56
Q

The outer covering of mature bone, made from fibrous connective tissue, is called the _______________.

A

periosteum

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57
Q

Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?

A

parathyroid hormone

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58
Q

Wolff’s law states that ________.

A

the thickness and shape of a bone is dependent on stresses placed upon it

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59
Q

Which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves?

A

provide resilience, flexibility and increased strength

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60
Q

Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________.

A

costal facets

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61
Q

What is the major function of the axial skeleton?

A

provide central support for the body and protect vital organs

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62
Q

The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?

A

radius and ulna

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63
Q

The “true wrist” or carpus consists of ________.

A

a group of eight short bones united by ligaments

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64
Q

Which bone forms the prominence of the cheek?

A

zygomatic bone

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65
Q

Which of the following is true about paranasal sinuses?

A

they enhance the resonance of the voice and lighten the skull

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66
Q

Which bone is a long bone and contains areas of diaphysis and epiphysis areas, a tuberosity near its middle,
and is proportionally more compact than spongy bone?

A

humerus

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67
Q

The articulation that most closely resembles a hinge in the body involves which bones?

A

humerus-ulna

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68
Q

The pelvic girdle, or os coxae, does not include the ________.

A

femur

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69
Q

Which of the following bones is not weight bearing?

A

fibula

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70
Q

Which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum?

A

perpendicular plate

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71
Q

Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.

A

melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing

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72
Q

The single most important risk for skin cancer is ________.

A

overexposure to UV radiation

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73
Q

A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which
layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured?

A

basale

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74
Q

Which of the following cutaneous receptors are specialized for touch or light pressure?

A

Meissner’s corpuscles

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75
Q

Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for pain?

A

free nerve ending

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76
Q

Vernix caseosa is a ________.

A

whitish material produced by fetal sebaceous glands to protect fetal skin

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77
Q

The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being,
and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?

A

stratum basale

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78
Q

The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the
epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function?

A

macrophages called dendritic cells (Langerhans Cell)

79
Q

Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the
following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?

A

lamellar granules in stratum granulosum cells, and a thick stratum corneum composed of dead keratinized cells

80
Q

The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be
found in the dermis?

A

fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells

81
Q

Which layer of the dermis constitutes 80% of its thickness and is responsible for tension lines in skin?

A

reticular layer

82
Q

Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis
has been previously stretched and/or torn?

A

appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis

83
Q

What makes up the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

84
Q

Calcium is vital to bone health, most importantly, because it …..

A

is a component of the calcium phosphate salts of hydroxyapatite

85
Q

The recommended daily intakes (RDI) of calcium for adult men and women (19-64, premenopausal) are

A

800 and 1000 mg respectively

86
Q

Exercise has many benefits to our bodies. Which type has the greatest benefit at increasing bone density?

A

walking, hiking or running

87
Q

The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.

A

is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone

88
Q

What is the most important stimulant of epiphyseal plate activity and thereby, long bone growth, during
infancy and childhood?

A

growth hormone

89
Q

The resilience of bone is primarily due to which of the following?

A

sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules, oriented in various directions in compact bone

90
Q

The functional unit of compact bone is the _________.

A

osteon

91
Q

During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid
for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.

A

lactic acid

92
Q

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.

A

changes in length and moves the “load”

93
Q

The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.

A

actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

94
Q

What is the primary function, and thereby the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?

A

the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy

95
Q

Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of
the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?

A

long distance running

96
Q

If a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.

A

no muscle tension could be generated

97
Q

Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________.

A

provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints

98
Q

Connective tissue sacs, lined with synovial membranes, that cushion where friction develops, are called _______.

A

bursae

99
Q

In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?

A

all synovial joints are freely movable

100
Q

Menisci are _________________?

A

semilunar cartilage pads

101
Q

Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________.

A

rare because of the ligament reinforcement, muscle placement and reinforcement of the acetabulum

102
Q

Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged
as a result?

A

medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate

103
Q

Which of the following statements best describes angular movements?

A

they change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones

104
Q

Most skeletal muscles contain ________.

A

a mixture of fiber types

105
Q

Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances?

A

Ca2+ and ATP

106
Q

Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.

A

storing energy in the form of a phosphate group, that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

107
Q

What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell?

A

the arrangement of myofilaments in sarcomeres

108
Q

The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.

A

myoglobin

109
Q

The contractile functional units of skeletal muscles are ________.

A

sarcomeres

110
Q

What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?

A

bind to regulatory sites on troponin to allow tropomyosin to move and reveal actin binding sites

111
Q

Tendon sheaths ________.

A

act as friction-reducing structures

112
Q

Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors?

A

a first-class lever

113
Q

What is the major factor controlling how levers work?

A

the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

114
Q

Which of the following is not a muscle involved in the breathing process?

A

latissimus dorsi

115
Q

What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?

A

the total number of muscle cells or fiber available for contraction

116
Q

What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?

A

an agonist

117
Q

When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps is part of a muscle’s name, what does it indicate?

A

the muscle has 2, 3, or 4 origins, respectively

118
Q

The most powerful muscle, that is, the one that can generate the most contractile force in the body is the
________.

A

quadriceps femoris

119
Q

The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean?

A

the muscle elevates or lifts up

120
Q

The supraspinatus is located on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action?

A

to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction

121
Q

Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?

A

the frontal belly of the epicranius

122
Q

Which of the following muscles inserts into the calcaneal tendon?

A

gastrocnemius

123
Q

If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________.

A

load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum

124
Q

A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a (n) ________.

A

antagonist

125
Q

What muscle type aids an agonist by causing a like movement or stabilizing a joint upon which an agonist
acts?

A

a synergist

126
Q

Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings?

A

gracilis

127
Q

Spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis

A

sternocleidomastoid

128
Q

Which general statement concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true?

A

during contraction, the two articulating bones move exactly the same

129
Q

Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles?

A

the type of skeletal muscle fibers

130
Q

Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?

A

it closes, purses, and protrudes the lips

131
Q

What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called?

A

power levers

132
Q

Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is
usually strained under these conditions?

A

the brachioradialis

133
Q

Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants?

A

vastus lateralis

134
Q

Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?

A

hamstring muscles

135
Q

Each muscle cell is a _________________.

A

muscle fiber

136
Q

________ are invaginations of the sarcolemma that facilitate the conduct of action potentials in muscle
fiber.

A

T-tubules

137
Q

A motor unit is made up of _______________.

A

a motor neuron and skeletal muscle fibers

138
Q

The type of muscle found in the irises of the eyes and in the blood vessels is called _______________.

A

multiunit smooth muscle

139
Q

When an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction, the most immediate result is __________.

A

the release of acetylcholine from the motor neuron

140
Q

Continued mild or partial contraction of a muscle that keeps it healthy and ready to respond is known as
muscle __________.

A

tone

141
Q

The sequence of electrical changes that occurs along the sarcolemma when a muscle fiber is stimulated is
known as the __________.

A

muscle action potential

142
Q

The refractory period in which the muscle will NOT contract if stimulated occurs during __________ of the
muscle cell.

A

repolarization

143
Q

The type of muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension although the muscle
neither shortens nor lengthens is called __________.

A

isometric

144
Q

An overlap of actin and myosin filaments occurs in the:

A

A Band

145
Q

Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart’s rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will
most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?

A

parasympathetic division

146
Q

The concentration of ions in the immediate chemical environment surrounding the neurons in the CNS must
be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this?

A

astrocytes

147
Q

Bacteria in the blood can be prevented entry to the fluids surrounding the brain. Which cells are most
responsible for preventing bacteria from entering the fluids of the brain by helping to form the blood/brain
barrier?

A

astrocytes

148
Q

Which brain nucleus is the body’s “biological clock”?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

149
Q

Nuclei of cranial nerves V (trigeminal), VI (abducens), and VII (facial) are found in the ________.

A

medulla

150
Q

The brain stem consists of the ________.

A

midbrain, medulla, and pons

151
Q

What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain?

A

ependymal cells

152
Q

Vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.

A

medulla oblongata

153
Q

Cell bodies of peripheral sensory neurons are located in ________

A

the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

154
Q

The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________.

A

mainly myelinated, but some unmyelinated nerve fibers

155
Q

An individual is accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in _______.

A

paraplegia

156
Q

Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________.

A

pyramidal and corticospinal

157
Q

An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a
bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the ________.

A

visual association area

158
Q

The Frontal eye field and Wernicke’s area ___________.

A

control voluntary movements of the eyes, and reading, speech and language, respectively.

159
Q

Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality?

A

prefrontal cortex

160
Q

The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.

A

metabolic waste such as urea

161
Q

The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral
cortex is the ________.

A

reticular formation

162
Q

Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?

A

red blood cells

163
Q

REM sleep is associated with ________.

A

temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm

164
Q

Important nuclei of the indirect (multineuronal) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus
of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________.

A

vestibular nuclei

165
Q

The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst
when you hold your breath too long is the ________.

A

visceral sensory area

166
Q

Which statement about coma is true?

A

coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma

167
Q

Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of ________.

A

Parkinson’s disease

168
Q

Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate?

A

epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection and tumor

169
Q

2nd -order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the ________.

A

thalamus

170
Q

Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in
specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________.

A

premotor cortex

171
Q

The large structure composed of commissural fibers that connects the right and left sides of the brain is
called the ________.

A

corpus callosum

172
Q

Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the _______ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson’s disease

A

substantia nigra

173
Q

If someone spills very hot coffee (200°F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the
following receptor types is causing this sensation

A

nociceptors

174
Q

A person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it. Which of the
following receptors has initiated this reflex?

A

tendon organ

175
Q

Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus’ strength is transmitted to the central
nervous system from sensory nerves?

A

action potential frequency is increased as stimulus’ strength increases

176
Q

A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage
to which of the following?

A

olfactory nerve (I)

177
Q

A patient has lost vision on the left side of both eyes. The patient has likely suffered damage to ________.

A

the right optic tract

178
Q

An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient’s eye.
She records the reactivity of the patents pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports
which of the following?

A

patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III)

179
Q

A doctor asks her patient to follow the motion of her finger as she moves it up and down, left and right,
while watching the patient to observe if he/she maintains balance. Which of the following cranial nerves is not
being tested?

A

vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)

180
Q

Dermatome maps are useful to clinicians because ________.

A

they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury

181
Q

A patient has an injury of the spine and is now suffering from a loss of motor function in his right arm.
However, he still has normal sensory function in the arm. Based on this information it is likely that the patient
has nervous tissue damage located at ________.

A

the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra

182
Q

Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order) ________.

A

roots, trunks, divisions, and cords

183
Q

After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.

A

Schwann cells

184
Q

In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________.

A

extend

185
Q

Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc – start to finish?

A

receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

186
Q

The effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting. Which of the following gives the best
explanation for why this is so?

A

different post synaptic neurons will have different receptors connected to different cellular mechanisms.

187
Q

When a sensory neuron is excited by a form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) _______.

A

generator potential

188
Q

The “resting and digesting” division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.

A

parasympathetic division

189
Q

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.

A

hypothalamus

190
Q

Sympathetic responses are often widespread throughout the body because ________.

A

NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response

191
Q

The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the
lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision.

A

oculomotor (III)

192
Q

Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation
and conduction of action potentials?

A

voltage-gated channels for Na and then K

193
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters inhibits pain and is mimicked by morphine, heroin & methadone?

A

endorphin

Bio 210 -- Lecture (1 decks)

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