Final Exam Study Guide

Question 1

Chemolithotrophy involves the… a. reduction of organic compounds b. metabolic autotrophy c. oxidation of inorganic compounds d. oxidation or organic compounds

Answer 1

c. oxidation of inorganic compounds

Question 2

The greatest source of biomass on Earth comes from… a. animals b. prokaryotic cells c. plants d. plants and animals together

Answer 2

b. prokaryotic cells

Question 3

Koch’s greatest accomplishment in the field of medical bacteriology was with… a. bacillus anthracis b. bacillus cereus. c. escherichia coli d. bacillus subtilis

Answer 3

a. bacillus anthracis

Question 4

The ultimate downfall of the theory of spontaneous generation was the result of work by… a. Koch b. Pasteur c. Hooke d. leeuwenhoek

Answer 4

b. Pasteur

Question 5

According to our pre send understanding, mitochondria and chloroplasts are probably _____ in origin… a. eukaryotic b. viral c. prokaryotic. d. archaeal

Answer 5

c. prokaryotic

Question 6

What type of energy-yielding metabolism is only found in prokaryotes? a. phototrophy b. autotrophy c. chemoorganotrophy d. chemolithotrophy

Answer 6

d. chemolithotrophy

Question 7

Which of the following are made up of prokaryotic cells? a. bacteria and archaea b. protozoa and animals c. archaea and fungi d. bacteria and fungi

Answer 7

a. bacteria and archaea

Question 8

Early branching Eukarya lack… a. genetic material b. mitochondria c. ribosomes. d. nuclei

Answer 8

b. mitochondria

Question 9

The presence of membrane-enclosed organelles is a characteristic of… a. eukaryotic cells b. viruses c. prokaryotic cells d. all cels

Answer 9

a. eukaryotic cells

Question 10

Carbohydrates have a general carbon, hydrogen, oxygen ratio of… a. 1:2:2 b. 1:2:1 c. 1:2:3 d. 2:1:2

Answer 10

b. 1:2:1

Question 11

As monomeric units of glucose are joined by an alpha 1-4 linkage, the resultant product might be ____ or _____; while if these glucose units are joined by a beta 1-4 linkage, the product will be_____ a. starch/glycogen/cellulose b. cellulose/starch/glycogen c. glycogen/cellulose/starch d. A or B, depending on the length of the polysaccharide

Answer 11

a. starch/glycogen/cellulose

Question 12

D-form amino acids are typically found in what bacterial structure(s)? a. proteins b. peptidoglycan c. cytoplasmic membrane d. ribosomes

Answer 12

b. peptidoglycan

Question 13

which statement is true? a. the average cell contains more RNA than DNA b. the average cell contains more DNA than RNA c. the average cell contains approximately equal amounts of DNA and RNA d. It is impossible to determine the relative amounts of DNA and RNA

Answer 13

a. the average cell contains more RNA than DNA

Question 14

Which of the following statements is/are true? a. Fimbriae are generally shorter and more numbers than flagella b. fimbriae probably function in surface adhesion c. pili serve as receptors and are involved in the process of conjugation d. all of the above

Answer 14

c. pili serve as receptors and are involved in the process of conjugation.

Question 15

Which of these statements is true? a. the gram-pos wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer but is less complex than the gram-negative wall. b. The gram-pos wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer and is more complex than the gram-neg wall c. the gram-pos wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer but is about as complex as the gram-neg wall d. the gram-neg wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer and is more complex than the gram-pos wall

Answer 15

a. the gram-pos wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer but is less complex than the gram-negative wall

Question 16

Regarding membrane linkages, which statement is true? a. eukarya have ester linkages; bacteria have ether linkages. b. bacteria have ester linkages; archaea have ether linkages c. archaea have ester linkages; eukarya have ether ether linkages d. bacteria and eukarya have ester linkages; archaea linkages are not yet known.

Answer 16

b. bacteria have ester linkages; archaea have ether linkages.

Question 17

the lipopolysaccharide layer (LPS) is a characteristic of the wall of… a. archaeal cells b. eukaryotic cells c. gram-negative bacteria d. gram-positive bacteria

Answer 17

c. gram-negative bacteria

Question 18

An endotoxin is… a. the toxic portion of the LPS b. a toxin produced within archaeal cells c. the toxin produced in the periplasm of most bacteria d. a toxin known for its primary attack on the epidermis of mammals.

Answer 18

a. the toxic portion or the LPS

Question 19

The periplasm is a(n)… a. part of the inner cell membrane of gram-negative organisms b. alternate name for the inner cell membrane of any prokaryotic cell c. part of the outer cell membrane of gram-neg organisms d. region between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria

Answer 19

d. region between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria.

Question 20

pseudopeptidoglycan is a characteristic of the walls of… a. bacteria and archaea b. bacteria c. eukarya d. some archaea

Answer 20

d. some archaea

Question 21

Sterols are… a. virtually always absent in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic membranes b. virtually always present in eukaryotic membranes but absent in prokaryotic membranes c. virtually always absent in eukaryotic membranes but present in prokaryotic membranes. d. virtually always present in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic membranes

Answer 21

b. virtually always present in eukaryotic membranes but absent in prokaryotic membranes

Question 22

What is the biological function of endospores? a. they enable organisms to endure extremes of temperature, drying and nutrient depletion b. they are bacterial reproductive structures. c. they are formed as evaginations of bacterial cell walls d. all of the above

Answer 22

a. they enable organisms to endure extremes of temperature, drying, and nutrient depletion

Question 23

If the magnification of an ocular lens of a particular microscope is 10x and the magnification of the objective on the same microscope is 47x, the total magnification achieved is… a. 4.7x b. 4700x c. 470x d. 57x

Answer 23

c. 470x

Question 24

Prokaryotes stain as gram-positive or gram-negative because of differences in the cell… a. wall b. cytoplasm c. nucleus d. chromosome

Answer 24

a. wall

Question 25

Why is the presence of a cell wall significant from a clinical standpoint? a. because animal cells do not have cell walls, so antibiotics that target cell walls can destroy invading microorganisms b. because only gram-negative bacteria have cell walls c. because all types of cells have a cell wall and it makes identification of the causative agent of disease difficult

Answer 25

a. because animal cells do not have cell walls, so antibiotics that target cell walls can destroy invading microorganisms

Question 26

the tetraether molecule within the membrane structure of the ____ yields a lipid____… a. archaea/monolayer b. bacteria/bilayer c. bacteria/monolayer d. archaea/bilayer

Answer 26

a. archaea/monolayer

Question 27

Which statement is true? a. peritrichous flagella are all over the bacterial cells; lophotrichous flagella are tufts on the ends of bacterial cells. b. polar flagella are all over the bacterial cells; lophotrichous flagella are individual flagella on the “ends” of bacterial cells c. lophotrichous flagella are tufts on the “ends” of bacterial cells; peritrichous flagella are individual flagella on the “ends” of bacterial cells d. polar flagella are individual flagella on the ends of bacterial cells; peritrichous flagella are tufts on the ends of bacterial cells

Answer 27

a. peritrichous flagella are all over the bacterial cells; lophotrichous flagella are tufts on the “ends” of bacterial cells

Question 28

When does endospore formation commence? a. following bacterial death b. when the bacterium is undergoing binary fission. c. when bacteria are dividing exponentially d. when bacterial growth ceases due to exhaustion of an essential nutrient

Answer 28

d. when bacterial growth ceases due to exhaustion of an essential nutrient.

Question 29

A major function of prokaryotic gas vesicles is… a. to keep the cells organelles separated during flagellar motion b. to confer buoyancy on cells by decreasing their density c. to serves as a reservoir for oxygen and carbon dioxide d. none of the above

Answer 29

b. to confer buoyancy on cells by decreasing their density

Question 30

An organism of the genus staphylococcus will be____, wile an organism of the genus spirochete will be ____. a. spherical/coiled b. spherical/rodshaped c. rodshaped/coiled d. coiled/spherical

Answer 30

a. spherical/coiled

Question 31

Although the inner leaflet of the gram-negative outer membrane contains phospholipids, the outer leaflet of the outermsmbrane contains… a. lipoteichoid acids b. poly-B-hydroxybutyric acid (PHB) c. pseudopeptidoglycan d. lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

Answer 31

d. lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

Question 32

Which statement is true? a. micronutrients are organic but growth factors are metals b. both micronutrients and growth factors are essentially metals. c. both micronutrients and growth factors are organic compounds essential for cell growth d. micronutrients are metals but growth factors are organic

Answer 32

d. micronutrients are metals but growth factors are organic

Question 33

Chemoorganotrophs use which of the following as an energy source? a. inorganic compounds b. organic compounds c. both organic and inorganic compounds d. either organic or inorganic compounds depending on the environment

Answer 33

a. organic compounds

Question 34

Most prokaryotic cellular reproduction is the result of a. binary fission b. mitosis c. conjugation d. meiosis

Answer 34

a. binary fission

Question 35

The time between inoculation and the beginning of growth is usually called the… a. lag phase b. dormant phase c. log phase d. death phase

Answer 35

a. lag phase

Question 36

Which of the following is/are characteristic of cellular organisms? a. metabolism b. growth and reproduction c. communication d.all of the above

Answer 36

d. all of the above

Question 37

which criteria had to be satisfied to prove that spontaneous generation does not take place? a. the original broth had to be sterile b. air had to be able to get to the broth c. organisms in the air should be prevented from entering the broth d. all of the above

Answer 37

d. all of the above

Question 38

which structure do prokaryotes not have? a. cell wall b. mitochondria c. RNA d. ribosomes

Answer 38

b. mitochondria

Question 39

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is very difficult to kill because of the… a. presence of ribosomes in the cytoplasm b. location of the DNA within the cell c. large amounts of waxy my colic acid in its cell wall d. lack of a cell wall

Answer 39

c. large amounts of waxy my colic acid in its cell wall

Question 40

Disease-causing prokaryotes are found exclusively among the… a. archaea b. bacteria c. fungi d. viruses

Answer 40

b. bacteria

Question 41

From which of the following habitats might an extremophile be isolated? a. garden soil at neutral pH b. boiling hot springs c. human skin d. a freshwater pond

Answer 41

b. boiling hot springs

Question 42

Which type of cell wall would be affected by lysozyme? a. a gram-positive bacterial cell b. mycoplasma species c. archaea d. all of the above

Answer 42

a. a gram-positive bacterial cell

Question 43

Without microorganisms, all higher life forms on earth would cease to exist.

Answer 43

True

Question 44

Species of Archaea are more closely related to eukaryotes than to bacteria.

Answer 44

True

Question 45

The bacterial cell wall polymer peptidoglycan contains a glucose derivative.

Answer 45

True

Question 46

Surface/volume ratio is higher in larger cells than in smaller cells.

Answer 46

False

Question 47

All prokaryotes require an organic carbon source.

Answer 47

False

Question 48

In a chemostat, growth rate (doubling time) and bacterial cell density can be controlled independently.

Answer 48

True

Question 49

A microorganism that uses carbon dioxide as its source of cell carbon is a(n)_____.

Answer 49

autotroph

Question 50

Biochemical synthesis of new macromolecules is called… a. anabolism b. metabolism c. synthatabolism d. catabolism

Answer 50

a. anabolism

Question 51

For a carbon source, chemoorganotrophs generally use such compounds as… a. sunlight b. glucose c. triglycerides d. carbon dioxide

Answer 51

b. glucose

Question 52

The most important high energy phosphate compound in living organisms is… a. ATP b. GTP c. glucose d. RNA

Answer 52

a. ATP

Question 53

The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose fermented is… a. 1 b. 2 c. 8 d. 16

Answer 53

b. 2

Question 54

From the standpoint of the microorganism, in fermentation a. the crucial product is ATP; the fermentation products are waste products b. the crucial product is ethanol or lactate; ATP is a waste produce c. the crucial product is not relevant because fermentation is not a major pathway c. the crucial product is CO2; ATP is a waste product

Answer 54

a. the crucial product is ATP; the fermentation products are waste products

Question 55

As each molecule of pyruvate traverses the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle), how many molecules of CO2 are generated? a. 1 b. 3 c.4

Answer 55

b. 3

Question 56

The citric acid cycle (Krebs)… a. results in the oxidation of pyruvate b. deals with carbon metabolism c. produces NADH as it progresses d. all of the above

Answer 56

d. all of the above

Question 57

In an electron carrier system, the net energy change is determined by the difference is reduction potentials between the… a. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron donor b. primary electron donor and the terminal electron acceptor c. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron acceptor d. primary electron donor and the terminal electron donor

Answer 57

b. primary electron donor and the terminal electron acceptor.

Question 58

In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is… a. oxygen b. hydrogen c. ATP d. water

Answer 58

a. oxygen

Question 59

one example of an electron acceptor that can be used in anaerobic respiration is… a. oxygen b. nitrate c. pyruvate d. glucose

Answer 59

b. nitrate

Question 60

Which statement is true regarding nitrifying bacteria? a. the primarily berate ATP through fermentation b. they use ammonia as an electron donor c. many cannot live in the presence of oxygen d. they are chemoorganotrophs

Answer 60

b. they use ammonia as electron donor

Question 61

To describe a type of photosynthesis as “oxygenic” implies that a. oxygen is produced b. oxygen functions as a catalyst c. oxygen is consumed d. none of the above

Answer 61

a. oxygen is produced

Question 62

Whether an organism is classified as a photoheterotroph or a photoautotroph depends on its… a. energy source b. oxygen requirements c. carbon source d. all of the above

Answer 62

c. carbon source

Question 63

The calvin cycle… a. is responsible for the fixation of CO2 b. requires ribulose biphosphate and carboxylase c. utilizes both NADPH and ATP d. all of the above

Answer 63

d. all of the above

Question 64

Which of the following is an example of one codon? a. CUT b. ATT c. AUG d. GCCATT

Answer 64

c. AUG

Question 65

Promoters are specific sequences of _____ and in synthesizing RNA, the polymerase moves_____ the promoter. a. DNA/toward b. RNA/ toward c. RNA/away from d. DNA/away from

Answer 65

d. DNA/ away

Question 66

Which of the following is incorrect regarding DNA and RNA synthesis? a. the overall direction of chain growth is from the 5’end to the 3’ end b. both processes require an RNA primer to begin c. the template strand is antiparallel to the newly synthesized strand. d. DNA is the template for both DNA and RNA synthesis

Answer 66

b. both processes require an RNA primer to begin

Question 67

The amino acid alanine is coded for by these codons: GCU, GCC, GCG. This is an example of… a. the universality of the genetic code b. the degeneracy of the genetic code c. missense mutations

Answer 67

b. the degeneracy of the genetic code.

Question 68

What is the direct cause of catabolite repression? a. the synthesis of B-galactosidase b. the presence of lactose in a growth medium c. binding of CRP to the DNA d. the presence of glucose in a growth medium and cellular deficiency of cyclic AMP

Answer 68

d. the presence of glucose in a growth medium and cellular deficiency of cyclic AMP

Question 69

When packaged in the vision, the complete complex of nucleic acid and protein is known as the virus… a. envelope b. capsid c. nucleocapsid d. capsomer

Answer 69

c. nucleocapsid

Question 70

Viral size is generally measured in a. inches b. attommeters c. nanometers d. picometers

Answer 70

c. nanometers

Question 71

A prophage replicates… a. independent of its host as long as the lytic genes are not being expressed. b. independent of its host as long as the lytic genes are being expressed c. along with its host as long as the lytic genes are not being expressed d. along with its host as long as the lytic genes are going expressed.

Answer 71

c. along with its host as long as the lytic genes are not being expressed.

Question 72

Which of the following are the hosts for most enveloped viruses? a. archaea b. bacteria c. fungi d. animals

Answer 72

d. animals

Question 73

Lambda is a… a. one of the best studied lysogenic phages b. temperate phage that infects E. coli. c. linear double-stranded DNA phage d. all of the above

Answer 73

d. all of the above

Question 74

The most common type of bacteriophage (T4) is though to have a ______ genome. a. ds DNA b. ss RNA c. SS DNA d. dsRNA

Answer 74

a. DS DNA

Question 75

Viral replication occurs in the… a. extracellular state only b. intracellular state only. c. both intracellular state and the extracellular state d. either in the intracellular state or the extracellular state, depending on the virus involved.

Answer 75

b. intracellular state only

Question 76

Membranes of enveloped viruses are generally _____ with associated virus-specific _____. a. protein-bilayers/lipids b. lipid-bilayers/proteins c. lipid-bilayers/phospholipids

Answer 76

b. lipid-bilayers/proteins

Question 77

Which statement is true? a. viruses do not contain their own nucleic acid polymerases. b. some viruses contain their own nucleic acid polymerases. c. all viruses contain their own nucleic acid polymerases.

Answer 77

b. some viruses contain their own nuclei acid polymerases

Question 78

HIV and influenza virus are similar in that a. they both use reverse transcriptase b. they both are slow progressing viruses c. they both have envelopes and ssRNA genomes d. all of the above

Answer 78

c. they both have envelopes and ssRNA genomes

Question 79

A mutant that has a nutritional requirement for growth is an example of a(n)… a. auxotroph b. heterotroph c. organotroph d. autotroph

Answer 79

a. auxotroph

Question 80

A plasmid may… a. be integrated into the chromosome b. be transferred cell-to-cell during conjugation c. replicate independent of the chromosome d. be involved in any of the above

Answer 80

d. be involved in any of the above

Question 81

Regarding plasmids… a. most replicate in conjugation with the chromosome b. most are linear though a few are circular c. most are found in eukaryotic cells, though a few are found in prokaryotic cells d. most are dsDNA, though a few are not

Answer 81

d. most are dsDNA though a few are not

Question 82

The killing of cells by UV irradiation involves… a. formation of the purine dimers b. formation or pyrimidine (eg. thymine) dimers c. absorption at 260 nm by proteins only d. absorption at 260 nm by RNA only

Answer 82

b. formation of pyrimidine (e.g. thymine) dimers

Question 83

Consider a mutation in which the change is from UAC to UAU. Both codons specify the amino acid tyrosine. which term best describes this event? a. frameshift mutation b. nonsense mutation c. silent mutation d. missense mutation

Answer 83

c. silent mutation

Question 84

A plasmid may… a. be transferred cell-to-cell during conjugation b. replicate independently of the chromosome c. be integrated into the chromosome d. be involved in any of the above

Answer 84

d. be involved in any of the above

Question 85

Which of the following statements is false regarding the ames test? a. it is used to determine potential mutagens or carcinogens b. it detects the number of back mutations or reversions c. it detects non-lethal frame-shift mutations d. it uses HIS auxotrophs of salmonella

Answer 85

c. it detects non-lethal frame-shift mutations

Question 86

DNA fragments may be introduced into a recipient by which of the following? a. transformation b. transduction c. conjugation d. all of the above

Answer 86

d. all of the above

Question 87

The uptake of DNA released from a cell would most likely be the result of ___, while cell-to-cell contact would most likely result in _____. a. conjugation/transformation b. transformation/transduction c. transduction/conjugation d. transformation/conjugation

Answer 87

d. transformation/conjugation

Question 88

Which of the following features are common to transformation, transduction, and conjugation? 1. unidirectional transfer of genes 2. incomplete gene transfer 3. homologous recombination 4. meiosis occurring in the recipient

Answer 88

1,2, 3

Question 89

In Frederick Griffith’s experiments (discovery of transformation), the donor DNA originated from… a. the R strain of s. pneumonia b. the S strain of s. pneumonia c. a combination of both R and S strains of S. pneumoniae d. a mouse

Answer 89

b. the S strain of s. pneumoniae

Question 90

In generalized transduction a phage vector… a. enters a lysogenic cycle before induction b. incorporates its genome into the bacterial chromosome c. packages random DNA from the host into new phages d. none of the above

Answer 90

c. packages random DNA from the host into new phages

Question 91

F+ strains of E. Coli… a. have the F factor as a plasmid b. have an integrated F factor c. do not have an F factor

Answer 91

a. have the F factor as a plasmid

Question 92

Which is a characteristic of an F- cell? a. the cell can synthesize an F pills b. the cell can participate as a donor in conjugation c. the cell can take up DNA from an F-containing donor cell

Answer 92

c. the cell can take up DNA from an F-containing donor cell

Question 93

You carry out the following experiment. You mis large populations of two mutant strains of e. coli, each requiring a different, single amino acid. after plating them out on a minimal medium, you note that 45 colonies have grown. Which of the following may explain this result? a. the colonies may be due to lateral gene transfer/recombination b. the colonies may be due to back mutation c. either a or b is possible d. neither a or b is possible

Answer 93

c. either a or b is possible

Question 94

All prokaryotes require an organic carbon source.

Answer 94

False

Question 95

All fermentations involve the production of ethanol

Answer 95

False

Question 96

The net result of electron transport is the generation of a proton gradient and an electrochemical potential across the membrane.

Answer 96

True

Question 97

In photosynthesis, light energy is used to oxidize CO2 in order to form organic compounds

Answer 97

False

Question 98

The genetic material in a virus is technically called a plasmid.

Answer 98

False

Question 99

According to RNA world hypothesis, the earliest RNA probably function in… a. catalysis b. self-replication c. neither catalysis nor self-replication d. both catalysis and self replication

Answer 99

d. both catalysis and self-replication

Question 100

The most abundant gases in the early atmosphere of the earth were probably… a. CH4, CO2, O2, N2 b. CH4, H2,O2, N2 c. H2, CO2, O2, N2 d. CH4, CO2, N2, NH3

Answer 100

d. CH4, CO2, N2, NH3

Question 101

Which is not a property one would associate with a “primitive” state of microbial evolution? a. hyperthermophilic b. aerobic metabolism c. small genome d. branching near the root of the evolutionary tree of life

Answer 101

b. aerobic metabolism

Question 102

The earliest stromatolites were probably formed by a. anoxygenic phototrophs b. anoxygenic lithotrophs c. oxygenic lithotrophs d. oxygenic phototrophs

Answer 102

a. anoxygenic phototrophs

Question 103

The cyanobacteria probably evolved from… a. anoxygenic phototrophs b. anoxygenic lithotrophs c. oxygenic lithotrophs d. oxygenic phototrophs

Answer 103

a. anoxygenic phototrophs

Question 104

The most widely used molecular chronometer is… a. fatty acid b. ATPase c. cytochrome C d. ribosomal RNA

Answer 104

d. ribosomal RNA

Question 105

The focus of sequencing efforts for prokaryotic evolutionary studies has been on which rRNA subunit? a. 18s b.16s c. 23s d. 5s

Answer 105

b. 15s

Question 106

Which of the following is not a trait of the chlamydias? a. transmitted by arthropod vectors b. have limited biosynthetic capabilities c. contain both DNA and RNA obligately parasitic bacteria

Answer 106

a. transmitted by arthropod vectors

Question 107

Which of the following characterizes the actinomycetes? a. filamentous growth b. common inhabitant of soil c. spores on aerial hyphae d. all of the above

Answer 107

d. all of the above

Question 108

A gram-positive soil microorganism has the following traits: filamentous, forms spores at the end of mycelia, produces antibiotics, is nutritionally versatile, yields low “dusty” colonies on agar culture media. These traits describes the genus… a. chlamydia b. staphylococcus c. serratia d. streptomyces

Answer 108

d. streptomyces

Question 109

You have isolated a gram-positive coccus from your inner nose. The organism appears in cell clusters when viewed microscopically and grows well on a rich medium containing 7.5% sodium chloride. This organism is most likely a member of the genus… a. staphylococcus b. serratia c. chlamydia

Answer 109

A. Staphylococcus

Question 110

Chlamydia and Rickettsia are bacterial genera that share the following trait(s) a. are both intracellular parasites b. both are thermophiles c. both are gram-positive d. all of the above

Answer 110

a. are both intracellular parasites

Question 111

A dense layer of my colic acids is a characteristic of the genus_____. a. bacillus b. serratia c. mycobacterium d. mycoplasma

Answer 111

c. mycobacterium

Question 112

Which of the following does not apply to predatory bdellovibrio? a. obligate aerobe b. attacks gram-positive bacteria c. replicates in periplasmic space d. widespread in soil and water

Answer 112

b. attacks gram-positive bacteria

Question 113

The organisms that are most universal inhabitants of the intestinal tract of humans and warm-blooded animals are members of the genus… a. escherichia b. actinomyces c. chlamydia d. staphylococcus

Answer 113

a. escherichia

Question 114

Bacteriorhodospin is a _____found in _______. a. photosynthetic pigment/cyanobacteria b. non-photosynthetic pigment/archaea c. photosynthetic pigment/bacteria d. non-photosynthetic pigment/ bacteria

Answer 114

b. non-photosynthetic pigment/archaea

Question 115

Methanogens… a. process and store methane as a part of their repair mechanism b. utilize methane as an energy source c. produce methane as a part of their energy metabolism d. do none of the above

Answer 115

c. produce methane as part of their energy metabolism

Question 116

In methanogenic archaea, a common electron donor is… a. glucose b. carbon dioxide c. hydrogen d. water

Answer 116

c. hydrogen

Question 117

One factor which seems to aid in maintaining heat resistance is hyperthermophilic archaea is that dibiphytanyl tetra ether lipids form… a. a pseudomembrane immediately inside the cytoplasmic membrane b. a monolayer cytoplasmic membrane c. an interlocking lattice with the cell wall d. an interlocking bilayer cytoplasmic membrane

Answer 117

b. a monolayer cytoplasmic membrane

Question 118

Which of the following bioenergetic processes cannot occur in hyperthermophiles? a. electron transport b. glycolysis c. photosynthesis d. all of the above

Answer 118

c. photosynthesis

Question 119

An organism that produces methane only from H2 and CO2 and grows rapidly at an optimum temperature of 100C, would most probably be a member of the genus… a. methanopyrus b. bacillus c. chlamydia d. serratia

Answer 119

a. methanopyrus

Question 120

All eukaryotes contain… a. a membrane-enclosed nucleus b. mitochondria c. hydrogenosomes d. all of the above

Answer 120

a. a membrane-enclosed nucleus

Question 121

Which of the following is not a member of the Eukarya? a. algae b. protozoa c. slime molds d. archaea

Answer 121

d. archaea

Question 122

Which statement is true? a. ascospores are sexual spores b. basidiospores are sexual spores c. conidia are asexual spores d. all of the above are true

Answer 122

d. all of the above are true

Question 123

How many spores are typically pro dues per ascus is ascomycetes and per basidium in basidiomycetes? a. 2 and 4 b. 8 and 4 c. 4 and 8 d. 4 and 4

Answer 123

b. 8 and 4

Question 124

All yeasts belong to… a. basidiomycetes b. ascomyscetes c. zygomycetes d. yeasts are not a taxonomic group

Answer 124

d. yeasts are not a taxonomic group

Question 125

Which statement best describes the habitats of the fungi? a. most terrestrial fungi are animal parasites. b. most fungi are aquatic, primarily freshwater aquatic. c. most terrestrial fungi dwell in the soil or on dead plant matter d. most fungi are aquatic, primarily marine aquatic

Answer 125

c. most terrestrial fungi dwell in the soil or on dead plant matter

Question 126

The earliest diverging and most primitive lineage of fungi are the… a. chytridiomycetes b. basidiomycetes c. ascomycetes d. zygomycetes

Answer 126

a. chytridiomycetes

Question 127

Mycorrhizal fungi obtain their carbon from____ and their inorganic minerals from ______. a. the soil/root sections b. the soil/particles produces by the photosynthetic actions of other parts of the plant c. root secretions/the soil d. root secretions/particles produces by the photosynthetic actions of other parts of the plant

Answer 127

c. root secretions/the soil

Question 128

Which of the following would not aid in the enrichment of the sulfate reducers which are widely distributed in nature? a. ferrous iron b. ascorbate or thioglycollate c. incubation under aerobic conditions d. lactate-sulfate medium

Answer 128

c. incubation under aerobic conditions

Question 129

Which molecular method allows for the detection of specific organisms within a community? a. FISH b. fluorescent straining using DAPI c. viability staining d. enrichment techniques

Answer 129

a. FISH

Question 130

A biofilm is enclosed in an adhesive matrix that it excretes that is typically a mixture of… a. nucleic acids b. polysaccharides c. fats d. proteins

Answer 130

b. polysaccharides

Question 131

A notorious biofilm former, implicated in cystic fibrosis, is… a. fungus humongous b. pseudomonas aeruginosa c. bacillus anthracis d. escherichia coli

Answer 131

b. pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 132

Primary primary producers in the surface waters of the ocean consist of… a. oxygenic phototrophs b. chemolithotrophs c. chemoheterotrophs

Answer 132

a. oxygenic phototrophs

Question 133

What are the anaerobic organisms that carry out biological methanogenesis? a. archaea b. cyanobacteria c. protozoans d. bacteria

Answer 133

a. archaea

Question 134

Chitin is a characteristic component of the cell walls of _____, which are a type of fungi. a. oomycetes b. green algae c. archaea d. yeasts

Answer 134

d. yeasts

Question 135

bacillus anthracis produces endospores as a result of mitosis.

Answer 135

False

Question 136

The hyperthermophilic members of the crenarchaeota branch very close to the root of the universal tree.

Answer 136

True

Question 137

Microbial community structure in soils can often be assessed through an analysis of the types and proportions of the fatty acids present in the phospolipids/membrane. The methodology employed is known as PLFA.

Answer 137

True

Question 138

The primary substrate of methanogens is glucose.

Answer 138

False

Question 139

Many hyperthermophiles are chemolithotrophic auxotrophs.

Answer 139

True

Question 140

Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA but use the ribosomes of the host cell.

Answer 140

False

Question 141

Phyogenetic community analyses of environmental samples generally show a multitude of distinct microorganisms whose RNA sequences do not match any of those in present databases.

Answer 141

True

Question 142

More dense populations of phototrophic microorganisms would be found in inshore ocean areas than in open ocean waters.

Answer 142

True

Question 143

In fungi, asexual spores are produced as a result of ______, while sexual spores are produced by following ____.

Answer 143

mitosis/meiosis

Question 144

A lichen consists of a ______ in a symbiotic relationship with a(n) _______ or a(n) ______.

Answer 144

Fungus, alga, cyanobacterium

Question 145

As a microbial examination technique, FISH stands for______

Answer 145

Fluorescent in Situ Hybridization

Question 146

Organisms that are suspended freely in the water column are known as _______.

Answer 146

Plankton

Question 147

Chemolithotroph

Answer 147

An organism that obtains its energy from the oxidation of inorganic compounds.

Question 148

chemoorganotroph

Answer 148

An organism that obtains its energy from the oxidation of organic compounds.

Question 149

phototroph

Answer 149

An organism that obtains energy from light.

Question 150

autotroph

Answer 150

An organism able to grown on CO2 as a sole source of carbon.

Question 151

heterotroph

Answer 151

An organism that requires organic carbon as its carbon source; also a chemoorganotroph.

Question 152

auxotroph

Answer 152

An organism that has developed a nutritional requirement through mutation.

Question 153

prototroph

Answer 153

The parent from which an auxotrophic mutant has been derived.

Question 154

nosocomial infection

Answer 154

An infection contracted in a healthcare setting.

Question 155

extremophiles

Answer 155

An organism that grows under one or more chemical or physical extremes, such as high or low temperature or pH

Question 156

methanogens

Answer 156

A methan-producing member of the Archaea

Question 157

plasmid

Answer 157

An extrachromosomal genetic element that is not essential for growth and has no extracellular form.

Question 158

axenic culture

Answer 158

A culture in which only a single species, variety, or strain of organism is present. Entirely free of all other contaminating organisms.

Question 159

selective medium

Answer 159

A growth medium that enhances the growth of certain organisms while inhibiting the growth of others due to an added media component.

Question 160

differential medium

Answer 160

A growth medium that allows identification of microorganisms based on phenotypic properties.

Question 161

Catabolism

Answer 161

The biochemical processes involved in the breakdown of organic or inorganic compounds, usually leading to the production of energy.

Question 162

Anabolism

Answer 162

The biochemical processes involved in the synthesis of cell constituents from simpler molecules, usually requiring energy.

Question 163

Proton-motive force

Answer 163

A source of energy resulting from the separation of protons from hydroxyl ions across the cytoplasmic membrane, generating a membrane potential.

Question 164

Fermentation

Answer 164

Anaerobic catabolism of an organic compound in which the compound serves as both an electron donor and an electron acceptor and in which ATP is usually produced by substrate level phosphorylation.

Question 165

Anaerobic Respiration

Answer 165

Use of an electron acceptor other than O2; some may even be killed by O2 (obligate or strict anaerobes)

Question 166

Gene

Answer 166

A unit of heredity; a segment of DNA (or RNA in some viruses) specifying a particular protein or polypeptide chain, or a tRNA or an rRNA.

Question 167

Promoter

Answer 167

The site on DNA where the RNA polymerase binds and begins transcription.

Question 168

Operon

Answer 168

One or more genes transcribed into a single RNA and under the control of a single regulatory site.

Question 169

Splicing

Answer 169

The RNA-processing step by which introns are removed and exons joined.

Question 170

Catabolite Repression

Answer 170

The suppression of Alternative catabolic pathways by a preferred source of carbon and energy.

Question 171

Virulent Virus

Answer 171

A virus that lyses or kills the host cell after infection; a non temperate virus.

Question 172

Temperate Virus

Answer 172

A virus whose genome is able to replicate along with that of its host without causing cell death in a state called lysogeny.

Question 173

Provirus

Answer 173

The genome of a temperate virus when it is replicating in step with and often integrated into, the host chromosome.

Question 174

Mutation

Answer 174

An inheritable change in the base sequence of the genome of an organism.

Question 175

Recombination

Answer 175

The process by which DNA molecules from two separate sources exchange sections or are brought together into a single DNA molecule.

Question 176

Transformation

Answer 176

(1) The transfer of genetic information via free DNA (2) A process, sometimes initiated by infection with certain viruses, whereby a normal animal cell becomes a cancer cell.

Question 177

Transduction

Answer 177

The transfer of host genes from one cell to another by a virus.

Question 178

Conjugation

Answer 178

The transfer of genes from one prokaryotic cell to another by a mechanism involving cell-to-cell contact.

Question 179

Stromatolite

Answer 179

A laminated microbial mat, typically built from layers of filamentous and other microorganisms; may fossilize.

Question 180

Bacteriorhodospin

Answer 180

A protein containing retinal that is found in the membranes of certain extremely halophilic archaea and that is involved in light-mediated ATP synthesis.

Question 181

Hyperthermophile

Answer 181

A prokaryote having a growth temperature optimum of 80C or higher.

Question 182

Methanogenesis

Answer 182

The biological production of methane (CH4)

Question 183

Hypha

Answer 183

The long branching filamentous structure of a fungus. Walled tubes that contain cytoplasm. Penetrate into the substrate (soil), forms lateral branches that form at the tip.

Question 184

Mycelium

Answer 184

The vegetative part of a fungus, consisting of a mass of branching thread-like hyphae.

Question 185

Sporangium

Answer 185

A sporangium is an enclosure in which spores are formed. Part of the asexual production of chytridiomycota. Zoospores are produced here.

Question 186

Plasmogamy

Answer 186

Portion of the life cycle of fungi. Divided into two parts of sexual reproduction. Fusion of the cytoplasm, starts dikaryotic (n+n) phase.

Question 187

Dikaryotic

Answer 187

Part of the life cycle of Fungi. The state in certain fungi in which each compartment of hypha contains two nuclei, each derived from a different parent (n+n)

Question 188

Karyogamy

Answer 188

Part of the life cycle of fungi, the second part of fertilization. Fusion of nuclei, starts the diploid (2N) phase.

Question 189

Saprotroph, biotroph, necrotroph

Answer 189

Types of fungal nutrition depending on the material saprotrophs- dead organic matter (leaf litter, wood) biotrophs-need a live host (plant or animal) necrotrophs- kill tissues of the host and use them as a source of energy and nutrients.

Question 190

Lichen

Answer 190

A fungus and an alga (or a cyanobacterium) living in symbiotic association, mutualistic.

Question 191

Mycorrhiza

Answer 191

A symbiotic association between a fungus and the roots of a plant.

Question 192

Mycosis

Answer 192

Any infection caused by a fungus.

Question 193

Plankton, benthos, periphyton

Answer 193

Oxygenic phototrophs such as cyanobacteria and eukaryotic algae reside in those regions of freshwater. Communities of organisms. Benthos- ocean floor plankton- water column, cannot swim in current periphyton- organisms attached to submerged surfaces in most aquatic ecosystems.

Question 194

FISH

Answer 194

Fluorescent in situ hybridization; a method employing a fluorescent dye covalently bonded to a specific nucleic acid probe for identifying or tracking organisms in the environment.

Question 195

Microbial Biofilm

Answer 195

Assemblage of microbial cells attached to a surface and enclosed in a polysaccharide matrix secreted by the cells.

Question 196

Sterilization

Answer 196

The killing or removal of all living organisms and viruses from a growth medium.

Question 197

Disinfection

Answer 197

The elimination of pathogens from inanimate objects or surfaces.

Question 198

Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

Answer 198

The minimum concentration of a substance necessary to prevent microbial growth.

Question 199

Normal microbial Flora

Answer 199

Microorganisms that are usually found associated with healthy body tissue.

Question 200

Infection

Answer 200

Growth of an organism within a host.

Question 201

Disease

Answer 201

An injury to host organism, caused by a pathogen or other factor, that affects the host organism’s function.

Question 202

Virulence

Answer 202

The relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease.

Question 203

Exotoxin

Answer 203

A protein that is released extracellularly by a microorganism as it grows and that produces immediate host cell damage.

Question 204

Enterotoxin

Answer 204

A protein that is released extracellularly by a microorganism as it grows and that produces immediate damage to the small intestine of the host.

Question 205

Endotoxin

Answer 205

The lipopolysaccharide portion of the cell envelope of certain gram-negative bacteria, which is a toxin when solubilized.

Question 206

Reservoir

Answer 206

A source of viable infectious agents from which individuals may be infected.

Question 207

Carrier

Answer 207

Subclinically infected individual who may spread a disease.

Question 208

Vector

Answer 208

(1) A self-replicating DNA molecule that carries DNA segments between organisms and can be used as a cloning vector to carry cloned genes or other DNA segments for genetic engineering. (2) A living agent, usually an insect or other animal, able to carry pathogens from one host to another.