Final Exam Study Guide Flashcards
Microbiology study guide for cumulative final.
Chemolithotrophy involves the… a. reduction of organic compounds b. metabolic autotrophy c. oxidation of inorganic compounds d. oxidation or organic compounds
c. oxidation of inorganic compounds
The greatest source of biomass on Earth comes from… a. animals b. prokaryotic cells c. plants d. plants and animals together
b. prokaryotic cells
Koch’s greatest accomplishment in the field of medical bacteriology was with… a. bacillus anthracis b. bacillus cereus. c. escherichia coli d. bacillus subtilis
a. bacillus anthracis
The ultimate downfall of the theory of spontaneous generation was the result of work by… a. Koch b. Pasteur c. Hooke d. leeuwenhoek
b. Pasteur
According to our pre send understanding, mitochondria and chloroplasts are probably _____ in origin… a. eukaryotic b. viral c. prokaryotic. d. archaeal
c. prokaryotic
What type of energy-yielding metabolism is only found in prokaryotes? a. phototrophy b. autotrophy c. chemoorganotrophy d. chemolithotrophy
d. chemolithotrophy
Which of the following are made up of prokaryotic cells? a. bacteria and archaea b. protozoa and animals c. archaea and fungi d. bacteria and fungi
a. bacteria and archaea
Early branching Eukarya lack… a. genetic material b. mitochondria c. ribosomes. d. nuclei
b. mitochondria
The presence of membrane-enclosed organelles is a characteristic of… a. eukaryotic cells b. viruses c. prokaryotic cells d. all cels
a. eukaryotic cells
Carbohydrates have a general carbon, hydrogen, oxygen ratio of… a. 1:2:2 b. 1:2:1 c. 1:2:3 d. 2:1:2
b. 1:2:1
As monomeric units of glucose are joined by an alpha 1-4 linkage, the resultant product might be ____ or _____; while if these glucose units are joined by a beta 1-4 linkage, the product will be_____ a. starch/glycogen/cellulose b. cellulose/starch/glycogen c. glycogen/cellulose/starch d. A or B, depending on the length of the polysaccharide
a. starch/glycogen/cellulose
D-form amino acids are typically found in what bacterial structure(s)? a. proteins b. peptidoglycan c. cytoplasmic membrane d. ribosomes
b. peptidoglycan
which statement is true? a. the average cell contains more RNA than DNA b. the average cell contains more DNA than RNA c. the average cell contains approximately equal amounts of DNA and RNA d. It is impossible to determine the relative amounts of DNA and RNA
a. the average cell contains more RNA than DNA
Which of the following statements is/are true? a. Fimbriae are generally shorter and more numbers than flagella b. fimbriae probably function in surface adhesion c. pili serve as receptors and are involved in the process of conjugation d. all of the above
c. pili serve as receptors and are involved in the process of conjugation.
Which of these statements is true? a. the gram-pos wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer but is less complex than the gram-negative wall. b. The gram-pos wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer and is more complex than the gram-neg wall c. the gram-pos wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer but is about as complex as the gram-neg wall d. the gram-neg wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer and is more complex than the gram-pos wall
a. the gram-pos wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer but is less complex than the gram-negative wall
Regarding membrane linkages, which statement is true? a. eukarya have ester linkages; bacteria have ether linkages. b. bacteria have ester linkages; archaea have ether linkages c. archaea have ester linkages; eukarya have ether ether linkages d. bacteria and eukarya have ester linkages; archaea linkages are not yet known.
b. bacteria have ester linkages; archaea have ether linkages.
the lipopolysaccharide layer (LPS) is a characteristic of the wall of… a. archaeal cells b. eukaryotic cells c. gram-negative bacteria d. gram-positive bacteria
c. gram-negative bacteria
An endotoxin is… a. the toxic portion of the LPS b. a toxin produced within archaeal cells c. the toxin produced in the periplasm of most bacteria d. a toxin known for its primary attack on the epidermis of mammals.
a. the toxic portion or the LPS
The periplasm is a(n)… a. part of the inner cell membrane of gram-negative organisms b. alternate name for the inner cell membrane of any prokaryotic cell c. part of the outer cell membrane of gram-neg organisms d. region between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria
d. region between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria.
pseudopeptidoglycan is a characteristic of the walls of… a. bacteria and archaea b. bacteria c. eukarya d. some archaea
d. some archaea
Sterols are… a. virtually always absent in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic membranes b. virtually always present in eukaryotic membranes but absent in prokaryotic membranes c. virtually always absent in eukaryotic membranes but present in prokaryotic membranes. d. virtually always present in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic membranes
b. virtually always present in eukaryotic membranes but absent in prokaryotic membranes
What is the biological function of endospores? a. they enable organisms to endure extremes of temperature, drying and nutrient depletion b. they are bacterial reproductive structures. c. they are formed as evaginations of bacterial cell walls d. all of the above
a. they enable organisms to endure extremes of temperature, drying, and nutrient depletion
If the magnification of an ocular lens of a particular microscope is 10x and the magnification of the objective on the same microscope is 47x, the total magnification achieved is… a. 4.7x b. 4700x c. 470x d. 57x
c. 470x
Prokaryotes stain as gram-positive or gram-negative because of differences in the cell… a. wall b. cytoplasm c. nucleus d. chromosome
a. wall
Why is the presence of a cell wall significant from a clinical standpoint? a. because animal cells do not have cell walls, so antibiotics that target cell walls can destroy invading microorganisms b. because only gram-negative bacteria have cell walls c. because all types of cells have a cell wall and it makes identification of the causative agent of disease difficult
a. because animal cells do not have cell walls, so antibiotics that target cell walls can destroy invading microorganisms
the tetraether molecule within the membrane structure of the ____ yields a lipid____… a. archaea/monolayer b. bacteria/bilayer c. bacteria/monolayer d. archaea/bilayer
a. archaea/monolayer
Which statement is true? a. peritrichous flagella are all over the bacterial cells; lophotrichous flagella are tufts on the ends of bacterial cells. b. polar flagella are all over the bacterial cells; lophotrichous flagella are individual flagella on the “ends” of bacterial cells c. lophotrichous flagella are tufts on the “ends” of bacterial cells; peritrichous flagella are individual flagella on the “ends” of bacterial cells d. polar flagella are individual flagella on the ends of bacterial cells; peritrichous flagella are tufts on the ends of bacterial cells
a. peritrichous flagella are all over the bacterial cells; lophotrichous flagella are tufts on the “ends” of bacterial cells
When does endospore formation commence? a. following bacterial death b. when the bacterium is undergoing binary fission. c. when bacteria are dividing exponentially d. when bacterial growth ceases due to exhaustion of an essential nutrient
d. when bacterial growth ceases due to exhaustion of an essential nutrient.
A major function of prokaryotic gas vesicles is… a. to keep the cells organelles separated during flagellar motion b. to confer buoyancy on cells by decreasing their density c. to serves as a reservoir for oxygen and carbon dioxide d. none of the above
b. to confer buoyancy on cells by decreasing their density
An organism of the genus staphylococcus will be____, wile an organism of the genus spirochete will be ____. a. spherical/coiled b. spherical/rodshaped c. rodshaped/coiled d. coiled/spherical
a. spherical/coiled
Although the inner leaflet of the gram-negative outer membrane contains phospholipids, the outer leaflet of the outermsmbrane contains… a. lipoteichoid acids b. poly-B-hydroxybutyric acid (PHB) c. pseudopeptidoglycan d. lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
d. lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
Which statement is true? a. micronutrients are organic but growth factors are metals b. both micronutrients and growth factors are essentially metals. c. both micronutrients and growth factors are organic compounds essential for cell growth d. micronutrients are metals but growth factors are organic
d. micronutrients are metals but growth factors are organic
Chemoorganotrophs use which of the following as an energy source? a. inorganic compounds b. organic compounds c. both organic and inorganic compounds d. either organic or inorganic compounds depending on the environment
a. organic compounds
Most prokaryotic cellular reproduction is the result of a. binary fission b. mitosis c. conjugation d. meiosis
a. binary fission
The time between inoculation and the beginning of growth is usually called the… a. lag phase b. dormant phase c. log phase d. death phase
a. lag phase
Which of the following is/are characteristic of cellular organisms? a. metabolism b. growth and reproduction c. communication d.all of the above
d. all of the above
which criteria had to be satisfied to prove that spontaneous generation does not take place? a. the original broth had to be sterile b. air had to be able to get to the broth c. organisms in the air should be prevented from entering the broth d. all of the above
d. all of the above
which structure do prokaryotes not have? a. cell wall b. mitochondria c. RNA d. ribosomes
b. mitochondria
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is very difficult to kill because of the… a. presence of ribosomes in the cytoplasm b. location of the DNA within the cell c. large amounts of waxy my colic acid in its cell wall d. lack of a cell wall
c. large amounts of waxy my colic acid in its cell wall
Disease-causing prokaryotes are found exclusively among the… a. archaea b. bacteria c. fungi d. viruses
b. bacteria
From which of the following habitats might an extremophile be isolated? a. garden soil at neutral pH b. boiling hot springs c. human skin d. a freshwater pond
b. boiling hot springs
Which type of cell wall would be affected by lysozyme? a. a gram-positive bacterial cell b. mycoplasma species c. archaea d. all of the above
a. a gram-positive bacterial cell
Without microorganisms, all higher life forms on earth would cease to exist.
True
Species of Archaea are more closely related to eukaryotes than to bacteria.
True
The bacterial cell wall polymer peptidoglycan contains a glucose derivative.
True
Surface/volume ratio is higher in larger cells than in smaller cells.
False
All prokaryotes require an organic carbon source.
False
In a chemostat, growth rate (doubling time) and bacterial cell density can be controlled independently.
True
A microorganism that uses carbon dioxide as its source of cell carbon is a(n)_____.
autotroph
Biochemical synthesis of new macromolecules is called… a. anabolism b. metabolism c. synthatabolism d. catabolism
a. anabolism
For a carbon source, chemoorganotrophs generally use such compounds as… a. sunlight b. glucose c. triglycerides d. carbon dioxide
b. glucose
The most important high energy phosphate compound in living organisms is… a. ATP b. GTP c. glucose d. RNA
a. ATP
The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose fermented is… a. 1 b. 2 c. 8 d. 16
b. 2
From the standpoint of the microorganism, in fermentation a. the crucial product is ATP; the fermentation products are waste products b. the crucial product is ethanol or lactate; ATP is a waste produce c. the crucial product is not relevant because fermentation is not a major pathway c. the crucial product is CO2; ATP is a waste product
a. the crucial product is ATP; the fermentation products are waste products
As each molecule of pyruvate traverses the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle), how many molecules of CO2 are generated? a. 1 b. 3 c.4
b. 3
The citric acid cycle (Krebs)… a. results in the oxidation of pyruvate b. deals with carbon metabolism c. produces NADH as it progresses d. all of the above
d. all of the above
In an electron carrier system, the net energy change is determined by the difference is reduction potentials between the… a. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron donor b. primary electron donor and the terminal electron acceptor c. primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron acceptor d. primary electron donor and the terminal electron donor
b. primary electron donor and the terminal electron acceptor.
In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is… a. oxygen b. hydrogen c. ATP d. water
a. oxygen
one example of an electron acceptor that can be used in anaerobic respiration is… a. oxygen b. nitrate c. pyruvate d. glucose
b. nitrate
Which statement is true regarding nitrifying bacteria? a. the primarily berate ATP through fermentation b. they use ammonia as an electron donor c. many cannot live in the presence of oxygen d. they are chemoorganotrophs
b. they use ammonia as electron donor
To describe a type of photosynthesis as “oxygenic” implies that a. oxygen is produced b. oxygen functions as a catalyst c. oxygen is consumed d. none of the above
a. oxygen is produced
Whether an organism is classified as a photoheterotroph or a photoautotroph depends on its… a. energy source b. oxygen requirements c. carbon source d. all of the above
c. carbon source
The calvin cycle… a. is responsible for the fixation of CO2 b. requires ribulose biphosphate and carboxylase c. utilizes both NADPH and ATP d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Which of the following is an example of one codon? a. CUT b. ATT c. AUG d. GCCATT
c. AUG
Promoters are specific sequences of _____ and in synthesizing RNA, the polymerase moves_____ the promoter. a. DNA/toward b. RNA/ toward c. RNA/away from d. DNA/away from
d. DNA/ away
Which of the following is incorrect regarding DNA and RNA synthesis? a. the overall direction of chain growth is from the 5’end to the 3’ end b. both processes require an RNA primer to begin c. the template strand is antiparallel to the newly synthesized strand. d. DNA is the template for both DNA and RNA synthesis
b. both processes require an RNA primer to begin
The amino acid alanine is coded for by these codons: GCU, GCC, GCG. This is an example of… a. the universality of the genetic code b. the degeneracy of the genetic code c. missense mutations
b. the degeneracy of the genetic code.
What is the direct cause of catabolite repression? a. the synthesis of B-galactosidase b. the presence of lactose in a growth medium c. binding of CRP to the DNA d. the presence of glucose in a growth medium and cellular deficiency of cyclic AMP
d. the presence of glucose in a growth medium and cellular deficiency of cyclic AMP
When packaged in the vision, the complete complex of nucleic acid and protein is known as the virus… a. envelope b. capsid c. nucleocapsid d. capsomer
c. nucleocapsid
Viral size is generally measured in a. inches b. attommeters c. nanometers d. picometers
c. nanometers
A prophage replicates… a. independent of its host as long as the lytic genes are not being expressed. b. independent of its host as long as the lytic genes are being expressed c. along with its host as long as the lytic genes are not being expressed d. along with its host as long as the lytic genes are going expressed.
c. along with its host as long as the lytic genes are not being expressed.
Which of the following are the hosts for most enveloped viruses? a. archaea b. bacteria c. fungi d. animals
d. animals
Lambda is a… a. one of the best studied lysogenic phages b. temperate phage that infects E. coli. c. linear double-stranded DNA phage d. all of the above
d. all of the above
The most common type of bacteriophage (T4) is though to have a ______ genome. a. ds DNA b. ss RNA c. SS DNA d. dsRNA
a. DS DNA
Viral replication occurs in the… a. extracellular state only b. intracellular state only. c. both intracellular state and the extracellular state d. either in the intracellular state or the extracellular state, depending on the virus involved.
b. intracellular state only
Membranes of enveloped viruses are generally _____ with associated virus-specific _____. a. protein-bilayers/lipids b. lipid-bilayers/proteins c. lipid-bilayers/phospholipids
b. lipid-bilayers/proteins
Which statement is true? a. viruses do not contain their own nucleic acid polymerases. b. some viruses contain their own nucleic acid polymerases. c. all viruses contain their own nucleic acid polymerases.
b. some viruses contain their own nuclei acid polymerases
HIV and influenza virus are similar in that a. they both use reverse transcriptase b. they both are slow progressing viruses c. they both have envelopes and ssRNA genomes d. all of the above
c. they both have envelopes and ssRNA genomes
A mutant that has a nutritional requirement for growth is an example of a(n)… a. auxotroph b. heterotroph c. organotroph d. autotroph
a. auxotroph
A plasmid may… a. be integrated into the chromosome b. be transferred cell-to-cell during conjugation c. replicate independent of the chromosome d. be involved in any of the above
d. be involved in any of the above
Regarding plasmids… a. most replicate in conjugation with the chromosome b. most are linear though a few are circular c. most are found in eukaryotic cells, though a few are found in prokaryotic cells d. most are dsDNA, though a few are not
d. most are dsDNA though a few are not
The killing of cells by UV irradiation involves… a. formation of the purine dimers b. formation or pyrimidine (eg. thymine) dimers c. absorption at 260 nm by proteins only d. absorption at 260 nm by RNA only
b. formation of pyrimidine (e.g. thymine) dimers
Consider a mutation in which the change is from UAC to UAU. Both codons specify the amino acid tyrosine. which term best describes this event? a. frameshift mutation b. nonsense mutation c. silent mutation d. missense mutation
c. silent mutation
A plasmid may… a. be transferred cell-to-cell during conjugation b. replicate independently of the chromosome c. be integrated into the chromosome d. be involved in any of the above
d. be involved in any of the above
Which of the following statements is false regarding the ames test? a. it is used to determine potential mutagens or carcinogens b. it detects the number of back mutations or reversions c. it detects non-lethal frame-shift mutations d. it uses HIS auxotrophs of salmonella
c. it detects non-lethal frame-shift mutations
DNA fragments may be introduced into a recipient by which of the following? a. transformation b. transduction c. conjugation d. all of the above
d. all of the above
The uptake of DNA released from a cell would most likely be the result of ___, while cell-to-cell contact would most likely result in _____. a. conjugation/transformation b. transformation/transduction c. transduction/conjugation d. transformation/conjugation
d. transformation/conjugation
Which of the following features are common to transformation, transduction, and conjugation? 1. unidirectional transfer of genes 2. incomplete gene transfer 3. homologous recombination 4. meiosis occurring in the recipient
1,2, 3
In Frederick Griffith’s experiments (discovery of transformation), the donor DNA originated from… a. the R strain of s. pneumonia b. the S strain of s. pneumonia c. a combination of both R and S strains of S. pneumoniae d. a mouse
b. the S strain of s. pneumoniae
In generalized transduction a phage vector… a. enters a lysogenic cycle before induction b. incorporates its genome into the bacterial chromosome c. packages random DNA from the host into new phages d. none of the above
c. packages random DNA from the host into new phages
F+ strains of E. Coli… a. have the F factor as a plasmid b. have an integrated F factor c. do not have an F factor
a. have the F factor as a plasmid
Which is a characteristic of an F- cell? a. the cell can synthesize an F pills b. the cell can participate as a donor in conjugation c. the cell can take up DNA from an F-containing donor cell
c. the cell can take up DNA from an F-containing donor cell
You carry out the following experiment. You mis large populations of two mutant strains of e. coli, each requiring a different, single amino acid. after plating them out on a minimal medium, you note that 45 colonies have grown. Which of the following may explain this result? a. the colonies may be due to lateral gene transfer/recombination b. the colonies may be due to back mutation c. either a or b is possible d. neither a or b is possible
c. either a or b is possible
All prokaryotes require an organic carbon source.
False
All fermentations involve the production of ethanol
False
The net result of electron transport is the generation of a proton gradient and an electrochemical potential across the membrane.
True
In photosynthesis, light energy is used to oxidize CO2 in order to form organic compounds
False
The genetic material in a virus is technically called a plasmid.
False
According to RNA world hypothesis, the earliest RNA probably function in… a. catalysis b. self-replication c. neither catalysis nor self-replication d. both catalysis and self replication
d. both catalysis and self-replication
The most abundant gases in the early atmosphere of the earth were probably… a. CH4, CO2, O2, N2 b. CH4, H2,O2, N2 c. H2, CO2, O2, N2 d. CH4, CO2, N2, NH3
d. CH4, CO2, N2, NH3
Which is not a property one would associate with a “primitive” state of microbial evolution? a. hyperthermophilic b. aerobic metabolism c. small genome d. branching near the root of the evolutionary tree of life
b. aerobic metabolism
The earliest stromatolites were probably formed by a. anoxygenic phototrophs b. anoxygenic lithotrophs c. oxygenic lithotrophs d. oxygenic phototrophs
a. anoxygenic phototrophs
The cyanobacteria probably evolved from… a. anoxygenic phototrophs b. anoxygenic lithotrophs c. oxygenic lithotrophs d. oxygenic phototrophs
a. anoxygenic phototrophs
The most widely used molecular chronometer is… a. fatty acid b. ATPase c. cytochrome C d. ribosomal RNA
d. ribosomal RNA
The focus of sequencing efforts for prokaryotic evolutionary studies has been on which rRNA subunit? a. 18s b.16s c. 23s d. 5s
b. 15s
Which of the following is not a trait of the chlamydias? a. transmitted by arthropod vectors b. have limited biosynthetic capabilities c. contain both DNA and RNA obligately parasitic bacteria
a. transmitted by arthropod vectors
Which of the following characterizes the actinomycetes? a. filamentous growth b. common inhabitant of soil c. spores on aerial hyphae d. all of the above
d. all of the above
A gram-positive soil microorganism has the following traits: filamentous, forms spores at the end of mycelia, produces antibiotics, is nutritionally versatile, yields low “dusty” colonies on agar culture media. These traits describes the genus… a. chlamydia b. staphylococcus c. serratia d. streptomyces
d. streptomyces
You have isolated a gram-positive coccus from your inner nose. The organism appears in cell clusters when viewed microscopically and grows well on a rich medium containing 7.5% sodium chloride. This organism is most likely a member of the genus… a. staphylococcus b. serratia c. chlamydia
A. Staphylococcus
Chlamydia and Rickettsia are bacterial genera that share the following trait(s) a. are both intracellular parasites b. both are thermophiles c. both are gram-positive d. all of the above
a. are both intracellular parasites
A dense layer of my colic acids is a characteristic of the genus_____. a. bacillus b. serratia c. mycobacterium d. mycoplasma
c. mycobacterium
Which of the following does not apply to predatory bdellovibrio? a. obligate aerobe b. attacks gram-positive bacteria c. replicates in periplasmic space d. widespread in soil and water
b. attacks gram-positive bacteria
The organisms that are most universal inhabitants of the intestinal tract of humans and warm-blooded animals are members of the genus… a. escherichia b. actinomyces c. chlamydia d. staphylococcus
a. escherichia
Bacteriorhodospin is a _____found in _______. a. photosynthetic pigment/cyanobacteria b. non-photosynthetic pigment/archaea c. photosynthetic pigment/bacteria d. non-photosynthetic pigment/ bacteria
b. non-photosynthetic pigment/archaea
Methanogens… a. process and store methane as a part of their repair mechanism b. utilize methane as an energy source c. produce methane as a part of their energy metabolism d. do none of the above
c. produce methane as part of their energy metabolism
In methanogenic archaea, a common electron donor is… a. glucose b. carbon dioxide c. hydrogen d. water
c. hydrogen
One factor which seems to aid in maintaining heat resistance is hyperthermophilic archaea is that dibiphytanyl tetra ether lipids form… a. a pseudomembrane immediately inside the cytoplasmic membrane b. a monolayer cytoplasmic membrane c. an interlocking lattice with the cell wall d. an interlocking bilayer cytoplasmic membrane
b. a monolayer cytoplasmic membrane
Which of the following bioenergetic processes cannot occur in hyperthermophiles? a. electron transport b. glycolysis c. photosynthesis d. all of the above
c. photosynthesis
An organism that produces methane only from H2 and CO2 and grows rapidly at an optimum temperature of 100C, would most probably be a member of the genus… a. methanopyrus b. bacillus c. chlamydia d. serratia
a. methanopyrus
All eukaryotes contain… a. a membrane-enclosed nucleus b. mitochondria c. hydrogenosomes d. all of the above
a. a membrane-enclosed nucleus
Which of the following is not a member of the Eukarya? a. algae b. protozoa c. slime molds d. archaea
d. archaea
Which statement is true? a. ascospores are sexual spores b. basidiospores are sexual spores c. conidia are asexual spores d. all of the above are true
d. all of the above are true
How many spores are typically pro dues per ascus is ascomycetes and per basidium in basidiomycetes? a. 2 and 4 b. 8 and 4 c. 4 and 8 d. 4 and 4
b. 8 and 4
All yeasts belong to… a. basidiomycetes b. ascomyscetes c. zygomycetes d. yeasts are not a taxonomic group
d. yeasts are not a taxonomic group
Which statement best describes the habitats of the fungi? a. most terrestrial fungi are animal parasites. b. most fungi are aquatic, primarily freshwater aquatic. c. most terrestrial fungi dwell in the soil or on dead plant matter d. most fungi are aquatic, primarily marine aquatic
c. most terrestrial fungi dwell in the soil or on dead plant matter
The earliest diverging and most primitive lineage of fungi are the… a. chytridiomycetes b. basidiomycetes c. ascomycetes d. zygomycetes
a. chytridiomycetes
Mycorrhizal fungi obtain their carbon from____ and their inorganic minerals from ______. a. the soil/root sections b. the soil/particles produces by the photosynthetic actions of other parts of the plant c. root secretions/the soil d. root secretions/particles produces by the photosynthetic actions of other parts of the plant
c. root secretions/the soil
Which of the following would not aid in the enrichment of the sulfate reducers which are widely distributed in nature? a. ferrous iron b. ascorbate or thioglycollate c. incubation under aerobic conditions d. lactate-sulfate medium
c. incubation under aerobic conditions
Which molecular method allows for the detection of specific organisms within a community? a. FISH b. fluorescent straining using DAPI c. viability staining d. enrichment techniques
a. FISH
A biofilm is enclosed in an adhesive matrix that it excretes that is typically a mixture of… a. nucleic acids b. polysaccharides c. fats d. proteins
b. polysaccharides
A notorious biofilm former, implicated in cystic fibrosis, is… a. fungus humongous b. pseudomonas aeruginosa c. bacillus anthracis d. escherichia coli
b. pseudomonas aeruginosa
Primary primary producers in the surface waters of the ocean consist of… a. oxygenic phototrophs b. chemolithotrophs c. chemoheterotrophs
a. oxygenic phototrophs
What are the anaerobic organisms that carry out biological methanogenesis? a. archaea b. cyanobacteria c. protozoans d. bacteria
a. archaea
Chitin is a characteristic component of the cell walls of _____, which are a type of fungi. a. oomycetes b. green algae c. archaea d. yeasts
d. yeasts
bacillus anthracis produces endospores as a result of mitosis.
False
The hyperthermophilic members of the crenarchaeota branch very close to the root of the universal tree.
True
Microbial community structure in soils can often be assessed through an analysis of the types and proportions of the fatty acids present in the phospolipids/membrane. The methodology employed is known as PLFA.
True
The primary substrate of methanogens is glucose.
False
Many hyperthermophiles are chemolithotrophic auxotrophs.
True
Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA but use the ribosomes of the host cell.
False
Phyogenetic community analyses of environmental samples generally show a multitude of distinct microorganisms whose RNA sequences do not match any of those in present databases.
True
More dense populations of phototrophic microorganisms would be found in inshore ocean areas than in open ocean waters.
True
In fungi, asexual spores are produced as a result of ______, while sexual spores are produced by following ____.
mitosis/meiosis
A lichen consists of a ______ in a symbiotic relationship with a(n) _______ or a(n) ______.
Fungus, alga, cyanobacterium
As a microbial examination technique, FISH stands for______
Fluorescent in Situ Hybridization
Organisms that are suspended freely in the water column are known as _______.
Plankton
Chemolithotroph
An organism that obtains its energy from the oxidation of inorganic compounds.
chemoorganotroph
An organism that obtains its energy from the oxidation of organic compounds.
phototroph
An organism that obtains energy from light.
autotroph
An organism able to grown on CO2 as a sole source of carbon.
heterotroph
An organism that requires organic carbon as its carbon source; also a chemoorganotroph.
auxotroph
An organism that has developed a nutritional requirement through mutation.
prototroph
The parent from which an auxotrophic mutant has been derived.
nosocomial infection
An infection contracted in a healthcare setting.
extremophiles
An organism that grows under one or more chemical or physical extremes, such as high or low temperature or pH
methanogens
A methan-producing member of the Archaea
plasmid
An extrachromosomal genetic element that is not essential for growth and has no extracellular form.
axenic culture
A culture in which only a single species, variety, or strain of organism is present. Entirely free of all other contaminating organisms.
selective medium
A growth medium that enhances the growth of certain organisms while inhibiting the growth of others due to an added media component.
differential medium
A growth medium that allows identification of microorganisms based on phenotypic properties.
Catabolism
The biochemical processes involved in the breakdown of organic or inorganic compounds, usually leading to the production of energy.
Anabolism
The biochemical processes involved in the synthesis of cell constituents from simpler molecules, usually requiring energy.
Proton-motive force
A source of energy resulting from the separation of protons from hydroxyl ions across the cytoplasmic membrane, generating a membrane potential.
Fermentation
Anaerobic catabolism of an organic compound in which the compound serves as both an electron donor and an electron acceptor and in which ATP is usually produced by substrate level phosphorylation.
Anaerobic Respiration
Use of an electron acceptor other than O2; some may even be killed by O2 (obligate or strict anaerobes)
Gene
A unit of heredity; a segment of DNA (or RNA in some viruses) specifying a particular protein or polypeptide chain, or a tRNA or an rRNA.
Promoter
The site on DNA where the RNA polymerase binds and begins transcription.
Operon
One or more genes transcribed into a single RNA and under the control of a single regulatory site.
Splicing
The RNA-processing step by which introns are removed and exons joined.
Catabolite Repression
The suppression of Alternative catabolic pathways by a preferred source of carbon and energy.
Virulent Virus
A virus that lyses or kills the host cell after infection; a non temperate virus.
Temperate Virus
A virus whose genome is able to replicate along with that of its host without causing cell death in a state called lysogeny.
Provirus
The genome of a temperate virus when it is replicating in step with and often integrated into, the host chromosome.
Mutation
An inheritable change in the base sequence of the genome of an organism.
Recombination
The process by which DNA molecules from two separate sources exchange sections or are brought together into a single DNA molecule.
Transformation
(1) The transfer of genetic information via free DNA (2) A process, sometimes initiated by infection with certain viruses, whereby a normal animal cell becomes a cancer cell.
Transduction
The transfer of host genes from one cell to another by a virus.
Conjugation
The transfer of genes from one prokaryotic cell to another by a mechanism involving cell-to-cell contact.
Stromatolite
A laminated microbial mat, typically built from layers of filamentous and other microorganisms; may fossilize.
Bacteriorhodospin
A protein containing retinal that is found in the membranes of certain extremely halophilic archaea and that is involved in light-mediated ATP synthesis.
Hyperthermophile
A prokaryote having a growth temperature optimum of 80C or higher.
Methanogenesis
The biological production of methane (CH4)
Hypha
The long branching filamentous structure of a fungus. Walled tubes that contain cytoplasm. Penetrate into the substrate (soil), forms lateral branches that form at the tip.
Mycelium
The vegetative part of a fungus, consisting of a mass of branching thread-like hyphae.
Sporangium
A sporangium is an enclosure in which spores are formed. Part of the asexual production of chytridiomycota. Zoospores are produced here.
Plasmogamy
Portion of the life cycle of fungi. Divided into two parts of sexual reproduction. Fusion of the cytoplasm, starts dikaryotic (n+n) phase.
Dikaryotic
Part of the life cycle of Fungi. The state in certain fungi in which each compartment of hypha contains two nuclei, each derived from a different parent (n+n)
Karyogamy
Part of the life cycle of fungi, the second part of fertilization. Fusion of nuclei, starts the diploid (2N) phase.
Saprotroph, biotroph, necrotroph
Types of fungal nutrition depending on the material saprotrophs- dead organic matter (leaf litter, wood) biotrophs-need a live host (plant or animal) necrotrophs- kill tissues of the host and use them as a source of energy and nutrients.
Lichen
A fungus and an alga (or a cyanobacterium) living in symbiotic association, mutualistic.
Mycorrhiza
A symbiotic association between a fungus and the roots of a plant.
Mycosis
Any infection caused by a fungus.
Plankton, benthos, periphyton
Oxygenic phototrophs such as cyanobacteria and eukaryotic algae reside in those regions of freshwater. Communities of organisms. Benthos- ocean floor plankton- water column, cannot swim in current periphyton- organisms attached to submerged surfaces in most aquatic ecosystems.
FISH
Fluorescent in situ hybridization; a method employing a fluorescent dye covalently bonded to a specific nucleic acid probe for identifying or tracking organisms in the environment.
Microbial Biofilm
Assemblage of microbial cells attached to a surface and enclosed in a polysaccharide matrix secreted by the cells.
Sterilization
The killing or removal of all living organisms and viruses from a growth medium.
Disinfection
The elimination of pathogens from inanimate objects or surfaces.
Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
The minimum concentration of a substance necessary to prevent microbial growth.
Normal microbial Flora
Microorganisms that are usually found associated with healthy body tissue.
Infection
Growth of an organism within a host.
Disease
An injury to host organism, caused by a pathogen or other factor, that affects the host organism’s function.
Virulence
The relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease.
Exotoxin
A protein that is released extracellularly by a microorganism as it grows and that produces immediate host cell damage.
Enterotoxin
A protein that is released extracellularly by a microorganism as it grows and that produces immediate damage to the small intestine of the host.
Endotoxin
The lipopolysaccharide portion of the cell envelope of certain gram-negative bacteria, which is a toxin when solubilized.
Reservoir
A source of viable infectious agents from which individuals may be infected.
Carrier
Subclinically infected individual who may spread a disease.
Vector
(1) A self-replicating DNA molecule that carries DNA segments between organisms and can be used as a cloning vector to carry cloned genes or other DNA segments for genetic engineering. (2) A living agent, usually an insect or other animal, able to carry pathogens from one host to another.
