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Medical Physiology final exam > Final Exam Study Guide > Flashcards

Final Exam Study Guide Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What does gonads produce?

A

Gonads are the organs that produce gametes, the eggs and sperm that unite to form new individuals

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2
Q

What are the male gonads?

A

Testes which produce Sperm

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3
Q

What are the female gonads?

A

Ovaries which produces ova

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4
Q

What are germ cells?

A

The undifferentiated gonadal cells destined to produce eggs and sperm are called germ cells.

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5
Q

Name the male and female gonads and gametes.

A

Male: gonads –> testes Gametes—> sperm

Female: Gonads –> ovaries Gametes –> ovum

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6
Q

True/False: A zygote with one Y chromosome will live.

A

False

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7
Q

True/False: A zygote with one X chromosome will live.

A

True. they will have turner syndrome

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8
Q

True/False: Once the ovaries develop in the female fetus, one X chromosome in each cell of her body is inactivated and condenses into a clump of nuclear chromatin known as Barr body.

A

True

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9
Q

At what week in pregnancy does an embryo begin to develop and differentiate?

A

7 weeks

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10
Q

What are the two pairs of accessory ducts found in the bipotential internal genitalia?

A
  • Wolffian ducts
  • Mullerian ducts
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11
Q

Name the structures of the bipotential external genitalia.

A
  • Genital tubercle
  • Urethral folds
  • urethral groove
  • labioscrotal swellings
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12
Q

Sex determination depends on the presence or absence of the ——–gene.

A

SRY

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13
Q

T/F: Males always exhibit the traits associated with an X-linked gene. If that X-linked gene is defective, male offspring will exhibit the mutation.

A

True

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14
Q

List some X-linked diseases.

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy[p. 399], hemophilia[p. 527], and color-blindness.

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15
Q

What protein is produced by the SRY gene?

A

Testis- determining factor (TDF)

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16
Q

T/F: Testicular development requires male sex hormones such as testosterone.

A

False!

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17
Q

T/F: The developing embryo cannot secrete testosterone until after the gonads differentiate into testes.

A

T

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18
Q

What does interstitial (Leydig) cells secrete?

A

Androgens

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19
Q

What does the sertoli cells secrete?

A

Anti-Mullerian hormone

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20
Q

What does DHT stand for?

A

Dihydrotestosterone

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21
Q

What does anti-mullerian hormone do?

A

Cause the embryonic Mullerian ducts to regress

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22
Q

What does testosterone do in male development?

A

Testosterone converts the Wolffian ducts into male accessory structures: epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicle (male 3)

Later in fetal development, testosterone controls migration of the testes from the abdomen into the scrotum.

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23
Q

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of testosterone to DHT?

A

5 alpha - Reductase

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24
Q

In female embryos, which have no SRY gene, the cortex of the bipotential gonad develops into——.

A

Ovarian Tissue

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25
Q

2) Where in a target cell would you expect to find receptors for androgens? Where would you expect to find receptors for AMH?

A
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26
Q

3.) Why was King Henry VIII of England wrong to blame his wives when they were unable to produce a male heir to the throne?

A

Males have the SRY gene, they control the outcome of the sex of the child

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27
Q

4.) Which sex will a zygote become if it inherits only one X chromosome (XO)?

A

Female with turner syndrome

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28
Q

5.) If the testes are removed from an early male embryo, why does it develop a uterus and Fallopian tubes rather than the normal male accessory structures? Will the embryo have male or female external genitalia? Explain.

A
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29
Q

True/False: Eggs are motile.

A

False

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30
Q

How doe egg cells move through the reproductive tract?

A

Currents created by smooth muscle contraction of the beating of cilia

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31
Q

True/False: sperm are the only flagellated cell in the body.

A

True

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32
Q

What is gametogenesis?

A

The gamete production

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33
Q

When do men manufacture sperm?

A

During puberty

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34
Q

True/False: In both sexes, germ cells in the embryonic gonads first undergo a series of mitotic divisions to increase their numbers 1. After that, the germ cells are ready to undergo meiosis, the cell division process that forms gametes.

A

True

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35
Q

What is the first step of meiosis?

A

In the first step of meiosis 2, the germ cell’s DNA (2n) replicates until each chromosome is duplicated
46 chromosomes gets duplicated to 92 chromosomes.

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36
Q

What is spermatogonia?

A

At puberty, germ cell mitosis resumes. From that point onward, the germ cells, known as spermatogonia (singular spermatogonium),

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37
Q

How many sperm does each spermatocytes create?

A

4

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38
Q

In males what occurs during the first meiotic division?

A

, a primary spermatocyte (4n) divides into two secondary spermatocytes.

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39
Q

In males what occurs during the second meiotic division?

A

Each secondary spermatocyte divides into two spermatids

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40
Q

What are germ cells called in the embryonic ovary?

A

Oogonia

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41
Q

6.) The gametes in a newborn male are at what stage of development? Is it the same in a newborn female?

A
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42
Q

7.) Compare the amount of DNA in the first polar body with the amount of DNA in the second polar body.

A
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43
Q

8.) How many gametes are formed from one primary oocyte? From one primary spermatocyte?

A
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44
Q

In men, where is most testosterone secreted from.

A

In men, most testosterone is secreted by the testes, but about 5% comes from the adrenal cortex

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45
Q

True/False: The testes and ovaries both contain the enzyme aromatase.

A

True

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46
Q

What does aromatase do?

A

Converts andorgens to estrogens

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47
Q

What do the ovaries produce?

A

The ovaries produce estradiol.

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48
Q

Where is the gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) found?

A

It is from the hypothalamus

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49
Q

Which hormones does GnRH control the secretion of?

A

controls secretion of two anterior pituitary gonadotropins: follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)

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50
Q

What does FSH and LH act on?

A

The gonads

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51
Q

True/False: FSH and LH in turn act on the gonads.

A

True

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52
Q

True/False: In recent years physiologists have determined that the control of GnRH is under the influence of several hypothalamic neuropeptides, including one named kisspeptin.

A

True

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53
Q

What inhibits FSH secretion?

A

Inhibins

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54
Q

What is the name of the peptide hormone form the gonads that stimulates FSH secretion.?

A

Activin

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55
Q

What is the role of activins?

A

Activins also promote spermatogenesis, oocyte maturation, and development of the embryonic nervous system.

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56
Q

What happens when circulating levels of gonadal steroids are low?

A

the pituitary secretes FSH and LH (Fig. 26.6b).

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57
Q

What happens to FSH and LH secretion as androgen levels increase?

A

as androgen levels go up, FSH and LH secretion decreases.

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58
Q

What is the GnRH pulse generator? What does it do?

A

It is the region of the hypothalamus that coordinates the pulsatile secretion of GnRH.

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59
Q

What does aromatase do? (9)

A
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60
Q

What do the following abbreviations stand for? (Spelling counts!) FSH, DHT, SRY, LH, GnRH, AMH (10)

A
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61
Q

Name the hypothalamic and anterior pituitary hormones that control reproduction. (11)

A
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62
Q

What makes up the male external genitalia?

A
  • penis
  • scrotum
  • urethra
  • corpus spongiousm
  • corpora cavernosa
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63
Q

What is the corpus spongiousm?

A

Surrounds the male urethra, it is a spongy column of tissue

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64
Q

What is the corpora cavernosa?

A

Constitutes the erectile tissue of the penis.

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65
Q

What is the tip of the penis called?

A

The glans

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66
Q

Where does the testes migrate during fetal development?

A

To the scrotum.

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67
Q

What temperature does sperm need need to be in?

A

2-3 °F lower than core body temperature.

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68
Q

What is the condition called when one or both testes fail to descend?

A

Crptorchidism

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69
Q

True/False: Testes that remain in the abdomen through puberty are fertile.

A

False! sterile

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70
Q

What are the male accessory glands and ducts?

A
  • prostate gland
  • seminal vesicles
  • Blulbourethral glands (cowper’s glands)
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71
Q

What problems can an enlarged prostate create?

A

Difficulty urinating by narrowing the passageway

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72
Q

True/False: DHT controls the fetal development of the prostate gland.

A

True

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73
Q

True/False: testes have a soft outer fibrous capsule

A

False! tough

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74
Q

Where are the seminiferous tubules?

A

The testes have a tough outer fibrous capsule that encloses masses of coiled seminiferous tubules

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75
Q

The seminiferous tubules leave the testis and join the—————–.

A

Epididymis

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76
Q

———————– single duct that forms a tightly coiled cord on the surface of the testicular capsule

A

Epididymis

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77
Q

The epididymis becomes the———— also known as the ductus deferens.

A

Vas deferens

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78
Q

Which duct passes the abdomen and empties into the urethra?

A

Vas deferens/ductus deferens

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79
Q

Where is the site of sperm production?

A

Seminiferous tubules

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80
Q

What are the two cells carried by the seminiferous tubules?

A

Sertoli cells and spermatogonia

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81
Q

Which direction does the apical ends of the sertoli cells face?

A

The tubule lumen

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82
Q

How are the Sertolic cells in a tubule linked to each other?

A

tight junctions that form an additional barrier between the lumen of the tubule and the interstitial fluid outside the basal lamina.

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83
Q

What is the function of sertoli cells?

A

The function of Sertoli cells is to regulate sperm development. Another name for Sertoli cells is sustentacular cells because they provide sustenance, or nourishment, for the developing spermatogonia.

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84
Q

What is ABP known as?

A

Androgn-binding protein

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85
Q

ABP is secreted into the -, where it binds to testosterone.

A

seminiferous tubule lumen

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86
Q

Testosterone bound to protein is —lipophilic and cannot diffuse out of the tubule lumen.

A

Less

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87
Q

Where are Leydig cells located?

A

Interstitial (Leydig) cells, located in the interstitial tissue between seminiferous tubules

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88
Q

What do Leydig cells secrete?

A

Testosterone

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89
Q

By the time spermatocytes reach the luminal ends of Sertoli cells, they have divided twice and become……..

A

primary spermatocytes

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90
Q

——- the germ cells that undergo meiotic division to become sperm, are found clustered near the basal ends of the Sertoli cells, just inside the basal lamina of the seminiferous tubules.

A

Spermatogonia

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91
Q

As spermatocytes differential into sperm, they move inward toward the——————, continuously surrounded by ——–cells.

A

tubule lumen

Sertoli

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91
Q

As spermatocytes differential into sperm, they move inward toward the——————, continuously surrounded by ——–cells.

A

tubule lumen

Sertoli

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92
Q

Spermatocytes that have divided twice become——-.

A

Spermatids

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93
Q

Define acrosome.

A

Lysosome-like vesicle of sperm that contains powerful enzymes essential for fertilization.

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94
Q

Which cells does FSH target?

A

Sertoli cells

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95
Q

——– is essential for spermatogenesis, but its actions appear to be mediated by Sertoli cells, which have androgen receptors.

A

Testosterone

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96
Q

True/False: spermatocytes contain androgen receptors and can respond directly to testosterone.

A

False. Spermatocytes lack androgen receptors and cannot respond directly to testosterone.

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97
Q

What do Sertoli cells secrete? What do interstitial cells secrete? 12

A
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98
Q

Because GnRH agonists cause down-regulation of GnRH receptors, what would be the advantages and disadvantages of using these drugs as a male contraceptive (13)

A
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99
Q

Which cells of the testes have receptors for FSH? For LH? For androgens? 14

A
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100
Q

What are the three accessory glands of the male reproductive tract?

A
  • Bulbourethral glands
  • Seminal vesicles
  • Prostate
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101
Q

What are primary sex characteristics?

A

Internal sex organs that distinguish males from females.

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102
Q

What are secondary sex characteristics?

A

Characteristics that distinguish males and females but not sexual characteristics. Ex. hair growth, muscular development, thickening of vocal chords, libido.

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103
Q

What are the female external genitalia known as?

A

Vulva or pudendum

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104
Q

True/False: The cervical canal is lined with mucous glands whose secretions create a protective barrier between the vagina and the uterus.

A

True

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105
Q

How many chromosomes does the primary spermatocyte or oocyte contain?

A

Twice the normal amount of DNA 4n

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106
Q

True/False: in second meiotic division, the sister chromatids separate

A

True

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107
Q

True/false: in males, the cells split during the second meiotic division, resulting in 2 haploid sperm, one from each secondary spermatocyte.

A

True

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108
Q

In females, the second meiotic division creates one egg and one ——-.

A

Polar body

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109
Q

When does spermatogenesis occur?

A

Puberty

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110
Q

How many sperm does each spermatocyte create?

A

4 sperm

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111
Q

In the first meiotic division, a primary spermatocyte (4n) divides into ———-.

A

Two secondary spermatocytes

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112
Q

In the second meiotic division, each secondary spermatocyte divides into______.

A

Two spermatids

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113
Q

How many chromosome in a spermatic?

A

23

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114
Q

Which month of fetal development does oogonia complete mitosis and the DNA duplication stage of meiosis

A

5th month

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115
Q

The ovary releases the mature egg during a process known as ————-.

A

Ovulation

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116
Q

The gametes in a newborn male are at what stage of development? Is it the same as a newborn female?

A
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117
Q

Compare the amount of DNA in the first polar body with the amount of DNA in the second polar body

A
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118
Q

How many gametes are formed from one primary oocyte? From one primary spermatocyte?

A
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119
Q

Testosterone is converted in peripheral tissues to its more potent derivative ——-.

A

DHT

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120
Q

Both testes and ovaries contain the enzyme ————.

A

Aromatase

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121
Q

What does aromatase do?

A

Convert androgens to estrogen

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122
Q

What secretes Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)?

A

Hypothalamus

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123
Q

What are the two hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gonadotropins?

A

FSH and LH

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124
Q

What is kisspeptin?

A

The control of GnRH is under the influence of several hypothalamic neuropeptides

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125
Q

Kisspeptin signals —— to release LH and FSH

A

GnRH

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126
Q

—— inhibit FSH secretion.

A

Inhibins

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127
Q

—— stimulates FSH secretions.

A

Activins

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128
Q

As steroid secretion increases, negative feedback usually inhibits —— release.

A

Gonadotropin release

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129
Q

As androgens goes up, FSH and LH secretion——-.

A

Decreases

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130
Q

Why is it called the GnRH pulse generator?

A

Because it coordinates the periodic pulsatile secretion of GnRH.

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131
Q

Which structure secretes melatonin?

A

Pineal gland

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132
Q

What does aromatase do?

A

Converts androgens to estrogen

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133
Q

What did the following abbreviations stand for? LSH, DHT, SRY, LH, GnRH, AMH.

A
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134
Q

Name the hypothalamic and anterior pituitary hormones the control reproduction.

A
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135
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

A

The failure of one or both tested to descend.

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136
Q

What are the male accessory glands and ducts called?

A

Prostate gland, seminal vesicles, and the bulbourethral glands.

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137
Q

What is the function of Sertoli cells?

A

Regulate development

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138
Q

What is androgen-binding protein (ABP) ?

A

Sertoli cell protein that binds testosterone to keep it in the lumen of the seminiferous tubules.

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139
Q

What did interstitial cells also known as Leydig cells secrete?

A

Testosterone

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140
Q

As spermatocytes differentiate into sperm, they move toward the tubule lumen, continuously surrounded by——— cells.

A

Sertoli

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141
Q

By the time spermatocytes have reached the luminal ends of Sertoli cells, they have divided —- and become ——

A

Twice, spermatids

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142
Q

How does FSH target Sertoli cells?

A

In males, FSH does not have FSH receptors, instead FSH stimulates Sertoli synthesis of paracrine molecules needed for spermatogonia mitosis and spermatogenesis.

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143
Q

What do Sertoli cells secrete? What do interstitial cells secrete?

A
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144
Q

Because GnRH agonists cause down-regulation of GnRH receptors, what would be the advantages and disadvantages of using these drugs as a male contraceptive?

A
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145
Q

Which cells of the testes have receptors for FSH? For LH? For androgens?

A
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146
Q

What are the three accessory glands of the male reproductive tract?

A

Bulbourethral glands, seminal vesicles, and prostate

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147
Q

What do the bulbourethral glands contribute to semen?

A

Mucus for lubrication plus buffers to neutralize the acidic environment of the vagina

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148
Q

What are primary characteristics?

A

Internal sex organs and external genitalia that distinguish females from males.

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149
Q

What are secondary sex characteristics?

A

Other disguising traits between male and female. Ex. Females have a wider pelvis

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150
Q

Which cells secrete AMH?

A

Granulosa cells

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151
Q

Thecal cells synthesize androgens that diffuse into neighboring——- cells.

A

granulosa

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152
Q

Describe follicular phase

A
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153
Q

Describe mid to late follicular phase

A
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154
Q

What is corpus albicans?

A

Remnants of corpus luteum

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155
Q

What happens to the corpus luteum if pregnancy doesn’t occur?

A

It undergoes apoptosis

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156
Q

Name the phases of the ovarian cycle and corresponding phases of the uterine cycle.

A
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157
Q

What side effects would you predict in female athletes who take anabolic steroids to build muscles?

A
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158
Q

Aromatase converts testosterone to estrogen. What would happen to the ovarian cycle of a woman given Aromatase inhibitor?

A
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159
Q

On what day of the menstrual cycle will a woman with the following cycle lengths ovulate ?

a.) 28 days
b.) 23 days
c.) 31 days

A

A.)14 days before the next period

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160
Q

Human sexual response in both sexes is divided into four phases. What are those phases?

A
  1. Excitement
  2. Plateau
  3. Orgasm
  4. Resolution
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161
Q

What is capacitation?

A

Sperm deposited in the female reproductive tract must go through their final maturation step.

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162
Q

Where does capitation take place?

A

In the female reproductive tract.

163
Q

An egg can be fertilized for only about———— hours after ovulation.

A

12 - 24

164
Q

To fertilize the egg, a sperm must penetrate both an outer layer of loosely connected ————- cells and a protective glycoprotein coat called the ———————.

A

Granulosa

zona pellucida

165
Q

What is the acrosomal reaction?

A

Capacitated sperm release powerful enzymes from the the sperm head

166
Q

How long does it take for the embryo to move through the Fallopian tube?

A

4 or 5 days

167
Q

Define blastocyst

A

Early embryo, consisting of hollow ball of cells

168
Q

What is the chorion?

A

An extraembryonic membrane that will enclose the embryo and form the placenta.

169
Q

What does the amnion secrete?

A

Secretes the amniotic fluid in which the developing embryo floats

170
Q

What is the allantois?

A

Extraembryonic membrane that becomes part of the umbilical cord.

171
Q

What are the three extraembryonic membranes that enclose the embryo and form the placenta?

A

1.) Yolk Sac
2.) Chorion
3.) Amnion

172
Q

How long after does the blastocyst implant on the uterine wall?

A

7 days

173
Q

What is chorionic villi?

A

Tiny projections of placental tissue that look like fingers and contain the same genetic material as the fetus.

174
Q

How long is the corpus luteum life span?

A

12 days

175
Q

Why does the corpus luteum remain active during pregnancy?

A

Because of the HcG

176
Q

Corpus luteum keeps producing ———- to keep the endometrium intact.

A

Progesterone

177
Q

What does hCS stand for ?

A

Human chorionic somatomammotropin.

178
Q

What does hPL stand for?

A

Human placental lactogen hPL

179
Q

Which hormone is necessary for breast development during pregnancy and for milk production?

A

Prolactin

180
Q

What does hCS do?

A

Contributes to lactation and alters the mother’s glucose and fatty acid metabolism to support fetal growth.

181
Q

Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the endometrium?

A

Progesterone

182
Q

When does parturition occur in gestation?

A

38th and 40th week

183
Q

True/False: Oxytocin is a labor trigger.

A

True

184
Q

True/False: women with elevated CRH levels as early as 15 weeks of gestation are more likely to go into premature labor.

A

True

185
Q

What is relaxin?

A

A peptide hormone secreted by ovaries and the placenta

186
Q

The cervix stretch starts a ———— feedback cycle of escalating contractions.

A

positive

187
Q

___________ are produced in the uterus in response to oxytocin and CRH secretions.

A

Prostaglandin

188
Q

What is the primary cause of menstrual cramps?

A

Prostaglandin

189
Q

__________ clamp the maternal blood vessels and help prevent excessive bleeding.

A

Uterine contractions

190
Q

During puberty, the breasts begin to develop under the influence of ________.

A

Estrogen

191
Q

Milk production is stimulated by?

A

Prolactin

192
Q

Prolactin is released from the _______ pituitary.

A

Anterior

193
Q

Which hormone controls prolactin?

A

Prolactin - inhibiting hormone (PIH)

194
Q

What is colostrum?

A

Thin, low-fat secretion produced by mammary glands

195
Q

What are the proteins in colostrum?

A

Maternal immunoglobulins, secreted into the duct and absorbed by the infant’s intestinal epithelium.

196
Q

Suckling, the mechanical stimulus of the infant nursing at the breast, also inhibits ______ production.

A

PIH

197
Q

In the absence of PIH, prolactin secretion———

A

Increases

198
Q

Let down reflex

A

Ejection of milk from the glands

199
Q

Let down reflex requires…

A

The presence of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary.

200
Q

What is hypercapnia?

A

Elevated CO2 in blood

201
Q

Does hypoxia and hyercapnia usually go hand in hand?

A

Yes

202
Q

Hypoxic hypoxia

A

Low arterial oxygen

203
Q

What causes hypoxia?

A

High altitude, alveolar hypoventilation, decreased lung diffusion capacity, abnormal ventilation-perfusion ratio.

204
Q

What is anemic hypoxia ?

A

Decreased total amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin.

205
Q

What causes anemic hypoxia?

A

Blood loss, anemia, carbon monoxide poisoning

206
Q

What is ischemic hypoxia?

A

Reduced blood flow

207
Q

What are some causes of ischemic hypoxia?

A

Heart failure, shock, thrombosis

208
Q

Histotoxic hypoxia

A

Failure of cells to use oxygen because cells have been poisoned

209
Q

Histotoxic hypoxia

A

Failure of cells to use oxygen bc cells have been poisoned.

210
Q

What is a common cause of Histotoxic hypoxic

A

Cyanide and other metabolic poisons

211
Q

Arterial oxygen delivery to the cells must be adequate to support _________ respiration and ATP production

A

Aerobic

212
Q

What is produced as a waste product in the citric acid cycle?

A

carbon dioxide

213
Q

Why is excretion of CO2 by the lungs important?

A

1.) high levels of CO2 are a central nervous system depressant

2.) elevated CO2 causes of acidosis (low pH)

214
Q

Elevated CO2 causes a state of (acidosis/alkalosis).

A

Acidosis ! Low Ph, think bicarbonate buffer system

215
Q

What is the average blood pH?

A

7.35 to 7.45

216
Q

What is the normal oxygen arterial pressure and venous pressure?

A

95 mmHg

40 mmHg

217
Q

What is the arterial and venous pressure of CO2?

A

40 mmHg

46 mmHg

218
Q

What is the normal venous pH?

A

7.37

219
Q

Gas moves from ____ partial pressure to regions of ________ partial pressure.

A

Higher , Lower

220
Q

CO2 is ____ in tissues than in systemic capillary blood bc of CO2 production during metabolism.

A

Higher

221
Q

Which of the following 3 metabolic pathways glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and the electron transport system is directly associated with a.) oxygen consumption b.) carbon dioxide production.

A
222
Q

Why doesn’t the movement of oxygen from the alveoli to the plasma decrease the partial pressure of oxygen

A
223
Q

If nitrogen is 78% of atmospheric air, what is the partial pressure of this gas when the dry atmospheric pressure is 720 mmHg?

A

.78 x 720 = 561.6 mmHg

224
Q

What happens with emphysema?

A

Destruction of the alveoli means less surface area for gas exchange.

Normal or low oxygen in the alveoli

225
Q

What occurs in fibrotic lung disease?

A

Thickened Alveolar membrane slows gas exchange. loss of lung compliance may decrease alveolar ventilation.

  • normal or lower O2
226
Q

What is pulmonary edema ?

A

Too much fluid in the lungs

227
Q

What occurs in the gas exchange for an individual with pulmonary edema?

A

Fluid in the interstitial space increases diffusion distance. Arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide may be normal due to higher carbon dioxide solubility in water.

228
Q

What is asthma?

A

A disease that affects your lungs. It causes repeated episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and nighttime or early morning coughing. 

229
Q

What happens with gas exchange in asthma?

A

Increased airway resistance, decreases, alveolar ventilation. Bronchioles constricted the partial pressure of oxygen is low in capillaries and partial pressure of oxygen is low in alveolar.

230
Q

What are the two possible causes of low alveolar partial pressure of oxygen?

A

1.) inspired air has low oxygen content
2.) alveolar ventilation is inadequate

231
Q

What is the main factor that affects atmospheric oxygen?

A

Altitude 

232
Q

What happens to the partial pressure of oxygen in the air along with the total atmospheric pressure as you move from sea level to higher altitudes?

A

It decreases

233
Q

What happens to the total pressure in the lungs as you go higher altitudes?

A

It becomes more important

234
Q

______ is the primary problem that people experience when ascending to high altitude?

A

Hypoxia 

235
Q

Define hypoventilation

A

Low alveolar ventilation is notice hypoventilation, and it is characterized by lower than normal volumes of fresh air entering the alveoli.

236
Q

What are the pathological changes that can result in alveolar hypoventilation? 

A

Decreased lung compliance, increased airway resistance, or central nervous system depression, that slows ventilation rate, and decreases depth.

237
Q

What are some common causes of central nervous system depression in young people? 

A

Alcohol poisoning and drug overdoses. 

238
Q

At the summit of Mount Everest, in altitude of 8850 m, atmospheric pressure is only 250 mmHg. What is the partial pressure of oxygen of dry atmospheric air a top Everest? If water vapor attitude inhaled air at the summit. Has a partial pressure of 47 mmHg, what is the partial pressure of oxygen of inhaled air when it reaches the alveoli?

A
239
Q

If the composition of inspired air is normal for alveolar, partial pressure of oxygen is low, then the problem is lie with________.

A

Alveolar ventilation, 

240
Q

Low alveolar ventilation is known as blank ?

A

 Hypoventilation.

241
Q

Is hypoxia is not caused by hyperventilation, then the problem usually lies with some aspects of gas exchange between blank and blank.

A

Alveoli and blood

242
Q

True or false if hypoxia is not caused by hyperventilation than the alveolar partial pressure of oxygen is not normal.

A

False! Areolar partial pressure may be normal, but the partial pressure of arterial blood leaving the leaving the lungs is low. 

243
Q

What is the diffusion rate proportional to?

A

 Available surface area, the concentration gradient of gas and the permeability of the barrier 

244
Q

What is diffusion inversely proportional to
?

A

Diffusion is inversely proportional to the square, or the distance, or in simpler terms. Diffusion is most rapid over short distances.

245
Q

List three of the pathological changes that adversely affect gas exchange.

A

1.) a decrease in the amount of alveolar surface area available for gas exchange.
2.) an increase in the thickness of alveolar capillary exchange barrier.
3.) an increase in the diffusion distance between the alveolar air space in the blood.

246
Q

The irritating effect of smoke chemicals and tar in the alveoli activates alveolar macrophages that release, ______ and other proteolytic enzymes.

A

Elastase

247
Q

What does emphysema cause in relation to compliance in recoil of lung?


A

emphysema causes a high compliance and low elastic recoil long with fewer and larger alveoli in less surface area for gas exchange. 

248
Q

What effect does fibrotic lung diseases have on the actual alveolar wall?

A

Fibrotic lung diseases scar tissue thickens the alveolar wall

249
Q

Which clinical condition causes the accumulation of interstitial fluid to increase the diffusion distance in slow gas exchange?

A

Pulmonary edema

250
Q

True or false when capillary hydrostatic pressure increases, more fluid filters out of the capillary.

A

True

251
Q

What happens if filtration increases too much?

A

If filtration increases too much, the lymphatics are unable to remove all the fluid and excess accumulates in the pulmonary interstitial space, creating pulmonary edema 

252
Q

Why would left ventricular failure or mitral valve dysfunction cause elevated pulmonary blood pressure?

A
253
Q

If alveolar ventilation increases what happens to arterial partial pressure of oxygen? To arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide? To Venus partial pressure of oxygen? And to Venus partial pressure of carbon dioxide?

A
254
Q

What does it mean in terms of physiology the oxygen has low solubility in aqueous solutions?

A

The answer is the oxygen, low solubility in aqueous solutions means a very little oxygen can be carried dissolved in plasma. 

255
Q

Is the arterial partial pressure of oxygen, low or high in pulmonary edema? Is the arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide, high or low in the pulmonary edema? Why?

A

In some cases of pulmonary edema, arterial partial, oxygen pressure is low, but arterial. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide is normal because of the different solubility of the two gases. 

256
Q

True or false plasma with a partial pressure of oxygen of 40 and a partial pressure of carbon dioxide of 40 has the same concentrations of oxygen and carbon dioxide?

A

False the partial pressure of carbon dioxide would have a higher concentration in the plasma than the oxygen, because carbon dioxide is more soluble in aqueous solutions than oxygen is.

257
Q

A saline solution is exposed to a mixture of nitrogen, gas and hydrogen gas in which the partial pressure of hydrogen equals the partial pressure of nitrogen. What information do you need to predict whether equal amounts of hydrogen and nitrogen dissolve in the solution? 

A
258
Q

What is the mass flow equation?

A

Mass flow = concentration x volume flow 

259
Q

What is the molecular structure of hemoglobin?

A

Hemoglobin is a touch your mirror with for globular proteins chains, each senator around and iron containing heme group

260
Q

What is oxyhemoglobin?

A

Hemoglobin bound to oxygen it is abbreviated as HbO2

261
Q

What is the hemoglobin binding reaction? 

A

Hi + O2 <=> HbO2

262
Q

What is HAPE stand for?

A

High altitude
pulmonary edema

263
Q

Why would someone with HAPE be short of breath?

A
264
Q

Based on what you learned about the mechanisms for matching ventilation and perfusion in the lung can you explain why patience with HAPE have elevated pulmonary arterial blood pressure?

A
265
Q

True or false the alveolar partial pressure determines how much can be dissolved of oxygen in the plasma?

A

True

266
Q

What happens to the amount of hemoglobin in the body when someone hikes at a high altitude?

A

The amount of hemoglobin increases

267
Q

True or false cells require at least 250 mL of oxygen per minute, so that the small number of oxygen that dissolves in plasma cannot meet the needs of the tissues at rest.

A

 True

268
Q

Will a pH of 7.6 have a higher or lower binding affinity then ph 7.2?

A

A pH of 7.6 will have a higher oxygen binding affinity. As the pH decreases, the less the oxygen binding affinity.

269
Q

Does a temperature of 20°C have a higher or lower binding affinity for oxygen than a temperature of 43°C?

A

20°C has a higher binding affinity than the 43°C temperature. As the temperature increases the binding affinity for oxygen decreases.

270
Q

Does the partial pressure of carbon dioxide affect oxygen binding affinity to hemoglobin?

A

Yes

271
Q

If the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 20 will this have a higher or lower oxygen binding affinity for hemoglobin, then the partial pressure of carbon dioxide at 80?

A

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide at 20 will have a higher oxygen binding affinity to hemoglobin then the partial pressure at 80. As the partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases the binding affinity for oxygen to hemoglobin decreases.

272
Q

Do you does fetal hemoglobin, have a higher or lower oxygen binding affinity, then adult hemoglobin?

A

Fetal hemoglobin has a higher oxygen binding affinity to hemoglobin. This occurs because the fetus must obtain the oxygen from the mother.

273
Q

How does the binding affinity of oxygen hemoglobin for 2,3 BPG compare to no 2,3BPG?

A

Normal 2,3BPG has a lower binding affinity for oxygen.

274
Q

Does fetal hemoglobin have 2,3BPG?

A

No

275
Q

How does adding erythrocytes to the blood help a person acclimate to high altitude?

A

Adding erythrocytes adds more hemoglobin, allowing more oxygen to bind, and increase the saturation. This allows more oxygen to get to the tissues of the body. 

276
Q

What does adding erythrocytes to the blood due to the viscosity of the blood? What effect will that change in viscosity having blood flow?

A
277
Q

What does chronic hypoxia due to the levels of 2,3BPG?

A

Chronic hypoxia triggers an increase in 2,3BPG production in red blood cells

278
Q

What direction does the oxygen saturation curve shift if the oxygen binding affinity decreases?

A

Right

279
Q

Can a person breathing 100% oxygen at sea level achieve 100% saturation of her hemoglobin?

A
280
Q

What effect does hyperventilation have on the percent saturation of arterial hemoglobin?

A
281
Q

A muscle that is actively contracting may have a cellular partial pressure of oxygen of 25. What happens to oxygen binding to hemoglobin at this low partial pressure of oxygen? What is the partial pressure of oxygen of the venous blood leaving the active muscle?

A
282
Q

In the bicarbonate buffer system what is the enzyme used to convert carbon dioxide into bicarbonate?

A

 Carbonic anhydrase

283
Q

What is the chloride shift?

A

Exchanges bicarbonate for chloride

284
Q

Define carboaminohemoglobin

A

Hemoglobin with bound carbon dioxide

285
Q

What happens to the plasma pH during hyperventilation?

A

When hyperventilation occurs pH increases this is because the hyperventilation eliminates carbon dioxide faster than it is being produced.  The bicarbonate buffer system shifts left towards the carbon dioxide.

286
Q

What happens to the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli when the venous blood reaches the lungs?

A

When venous blood reaches the lungs, the processes that took place in the systematic capillaries reverse. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide of the alveoli is lower than that of the venous blood in the pulmonary capillaries.  As carbon dioxide levels in the red blood cells, decreased, the equilibrium of the carbon dioxide. HCO3 reaction is disturbed, shifting the production towards more carbon dioxide.

287
Q

How would an obstruction of the airways, a fact, alveolar, ventilation, arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the body’s pH?

A

The obstruction would decrease, alveolar ventilation, increase arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide, and decrease pH of the body

288
Q

Which receptors does oxygen and pH stimulate?

A

Carotid, and aortic chemoreceptors

289
Q

Which receptors does carbon dioxide stimulate?

A

Medullary chemoreceptors

290
Q

Which muscles help with inspiration

A

Scaling and sternocleidomastoid, external intercostals and diaphragm

291
Q

What do somatic motor neurons (expiration) innervate?

A

Internal intercostals and abdominal muscles

292
Q

What is the nucleus tractus solitarius?

A

Contains the dorsal respiratory group of neurons that control, mostly muscles of inspiration

293
Q

Output from the dorsal respiratory group, DRG goes via the blank nerves to the diaphragm, and via the blank nerves to the intercostal muscles

A

Phrenic and intercostal

294
Q

What does the Pontine respiratory groups do?

A

The Pontine, respiratory groups and other Pontine neurons, provide tonic input to the medullary networks to help coordinate a smooth respiratory rhythm

295
Q

What is obstructive sleep apnea?

A

A sleeping disorder associated with snoring and excessive daytime sleeping

296
Q

True or false, many neurons of the VRG remain active during quiet respiration

A


False, they remain inactive

297
Q

True or false, enforced breathing increased activity of inspiratory, neuron, stimulates accessory muscles, such as the sternocleidomastoid

A

True

298
Q

What is the primary stimulus for changes in ventilation? Is it carbon dioxide, oxygen or plasma pH?

A

Carbon dioxide

299
Q

What happens to the rate and depth of breathing, if little oxygen is present in arterial blood destined for  brain, and other tissues

A

The rate and depth of breathing increases

300
Q

What are carotid bodies?

A

The carotid bodies in the carotid arteries are the primary peripheral chemoreceptors

301
Q

How are glomus cells activated?

A

Specialized type one or glomus cells in carotid. Bodies are activated by a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen or pH or by an increase in carbon dioxide partial pressure. 

302
Q

What do Glomus cells do?

A

The trigger a reflex increase in ventilation when there is an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide or buy a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen are pH.

303
Q

True or false any condition that reduces plasma, pH or increases partial pressure of carbon dioxide will activate the carotid and aortic glomus cells, and increase ventilation

A

True

304
Q

What happens when arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases?

A

The carbon dioxide crosses the blood brain barrier and activate central chemoreceptors. These receptors signal, the control networks to increase the rate and depth of ventilation, thereby enhancing, alveolar ventilation in removing carbon dioxide from the blood

305
Q

Based on your understanding of how the body controls ventilation, why do you think periodic breathing occurs most often during sleep?

A
306
Q

True or false the irritant receptors send signals through sensory neurons to integrating centers in the central nervous system, the trigger bronchodilation

A

False, it’s bronchoconstriction

307
Q

Blank, transfers, energy from its high energy phosphate, bond to ADP 

A

Phosphocreatine

308
Q

What are the primary substrates for energy production?

A

Carbohydrates and fats

309
Q

When the cell lacks oxygen for oxidative phosphorylation the final product of glycolysis, which is pyruvate, is converted to blank instead of acetylcoA

A

Lactate 3

310
Q

What happens to free fatty acid concentration in the blood after aerobic exercise?

A

It increases

311
Q

Where does glucose for aerobic and anaerobic ATP production come from?

A

The plasma, glucose, pool, intracellular, stores of glycogen and muscles and liver and nuclear codes made and liver through gluconeogenesis

312
Q

Endurance training also increases the activity of enzymes for b- oxidation and converts muscle fibers from blank to blank

A

Fast twitch glycolytic, too fast twitch oxidative glycolytic

313
Q

What happens to the plasma concentration of glucagon, cortisol and catecholamines and growth hormone during exercise

A

They all increase

314
Q

Cortisol and catecholamines, along with growth, hormone promote the conversion of triglycerides to blank and blank

A

Glycerol and fatty acids

315
Q

An increase in plasma glucose stimulates, blank release

A

Insulin

316
Q

True or false exercise that depends on anaerobic metabolism can be sustained for an extended period

A

False it cannot!

317
Q

Cells that obtain their ATP by anaerobic metabolism of glucose to lactate, are said to be caring out blank metabolism

A

Glycolytic metabolism

318
Q

What is the advantage of anaerobic metabolism compared to Aerobic?

A

Anaerobic metabolism has the advantage of speed, producing ATP 2.5 times faster than aerobic pathways do

319
Q

What are the disadvantages of anaerobic metabolism?

A

Since anaerobic metabolism is faster than aerobic metabolism, it does have some downfalls

1.) anaerobic metabolism provides only two ATP per glucose compared with an average of 30 to 32 ATP per glucose for oxidative metabolism

2.) anaerobic, metabolism, contributes to a state of metabolic acidosis by producing protons.

320
Q

True or false most of us only use aerobic metabolism during exercise

A

False, most of us use a combination of aerobic and anaerobic metabolism during exercise

321
Q

Which metabolism has the highest ATP production?

A

ATP production is highest with phosphocreatine than anaerobic metabolism, lastly, aerobic metabolism

322
Q

Which metabolism has the highest muscle endurance?

A

Aerobic because it can support exercise for hours

323
Q

Where does glucose for anaerobic and aerobic ATP production come from?

A

The body has three sources: the plasma, glucose pool, intracellular, stores of glycogen in muscles and liver, and gluconeogenesis (glucose made in liver)

324
Q

In reality, aerobic exercise of any duration uses both fatty acids and blank as substrates for ATP production

A

 Glucose

325
Q

What happens to the fatty acid concentration after 30 minutes of exercise?

A

The free fatty acids in the blood increases significantly. This indicates that the fats are being mobilized from adipose  tissue

326
Q

Chewer false, the breakdown of fatty acids through the process of 
Beta oxidation is slower than that of glucose metabolism through glycolysis

A

 True

327
Q

Why is walking a good way to lose weight?

A

At lower intensity is most of the energy for ATP production comes from fats

328
Q

Why is carbohydrates important in high intensity exercise?

A

As high intensity exercise increases, ATP is consumed when rapidly, the muscle fibers begin to use a larger portion of glucose when exercise exceeds that of about 70% of the maximum, carbohydrates become the primary source of energy

329
Q

True or false aerobic training, decreases both fat and glycogen stores within the muscle fibers

A

False, the it increases both fat and glycogen

330
Q

What is the major energy substrate for exercising muscle?

A

Glucose

331
Q

As plasma glucose, concentration rises with exercise what happens to the secretion of insulin?

A

Decreases

332
Q

What could be an advantage of lower insulin levels during exercise?

A

Cells other than muscle fibers reduce their glucose uptake there by sparing blood glucose for use by muscles

333
Q

True or false a persons, maximal rate of oxygen consumption is an indicator of the ability to perform endurance exercise

A

True

334
Q

True or false, the greater the maximum rate of oxygen consumption, the greater the persons predicted ability to do work

A

True

335
Q

Ventilation increases with exercise. Why does an arterial partial pressure of oxygen increase as well?

A
336
Q

What happens to oxygen delivery to cells with increasing exercise?

A
337
Q

Why does Venus partial pressure of oxygen decrease in the presence of exercise?

A
338
Q

Why does an arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide decrease with Maxximum exercise?

A
339
Q

Why does an arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide increase of exercise?

A
340
Q

What happens to cardiac output during strenuous exercise?

A

Increases

341
Q

Cardio output equals?

A

Cardiac output = heart rate x stroke volume

342
Q

Why is overfilling the ventricles potentially dangerous?

A

Because overstretching could damage the fibers

343
Q

What is the effect of sympathetic stimulation on the heart?

A

 It increases contractility so that the heart squeezes not more blood per stroke and increase heart rate to the heart has less time to relax

344
Q

 What does EPOC stand for?

A

Excess post exercise, oxygen consumption

345
Q

What happens to blood pressure during exercise?

A

The blood pressure increases along with cardiac output

346
Q

What happens to the mean arterial blood pressure during exercise

A

It increases slightly, which means that the normal bear receptor reflexes that controls blood pressure functions differently during exercise

347
Q

What are three signs of malignant hyperthermia (MH)?

A

Unexplained increase in carbon dioxide, produced by your body, rapid breathing (tachypnea), rapid elevation in temperature

348
Q

What are the positive effects of exercise for both men and women?

A

Lowering blood pressure, decreasing plasma triglyceride levels, raising plasma HDL cholesterol levels

349
Q

How does exercise help alleviate type two diabetes?

A

Skeletal muscle fibers up regulate both the number of GLUT4 glucose transporters, and the number of insulin receptors on their membrane. The number of insulin dependent GLUT4 transporters decrease the muscles dependence on in insulin for glucose uptake.

350
Q

True or false people who engage in strenuous exercise, have better immunity than those who engage in a sedentary life style or moderate exercise?

A

False, think J curve. Strenuous exercise actually decreases immunity immune function, because the stress of exercise, however, those who moderately exercise have slightly more effective immune systems, and those who are sedentary. Regardless those who are sedentary and exercise moderately both have better of you systems, and those who exercise strenuously.

351
Q

What does malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dangerously high body temperature

352
Q

 True or false oxygen consumption rate increases even before we start exercising.

A

True

353
Q

What is an oxygen deficit?

A

Yeah, cellular energy use exceeds oxygen uptake 

354
Q

When does oxygen debt occur?

A

Shortly After exercise ends

355
Q

Describe the pattern of pulmonary ventilation during exercise

A

When exercise begins, pulmonary ventilation increases, the gradually increases during exercise exercise, and it dropped significantly and continues to decrease

356
Q

What happens to the arterial partial pressure of oxygen during exercise?

A

It remains constant. About 100% after prolonged exercise

357
Q

What happens to the arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide during exercise?

A

During exercise, the Venus partial pressure of carbon dioxide is constant, then drops after a few minutes of exercise. 

358
Q

What happens to the Venous partial pressure of oxygen during exercise?

A

Begins to decrease early on during exercise and continues to decrease. More oxygen is delivered to muscles and other organs that need it during exercise and less oxygen is kept in the Venous portion in circulation

359
Q

What happens to arterial pH during exercise?

A

The arterial pH is steady at 7.4 for a while, but as exercise increases, the blood becomes more progressively acidic due to lactic acid build up.

360
Q

What does proprioreceptors do?

A

They tell the nervous system where the limbs are in space in relationship to each other

361
Q

What changes do we see in the respiratory system of highly trained individuals?

Resting RR?
Maximal RR?
Resting TV?
Maximal TV?
Resting alveolar ventilation?
Maximal AV (alveolar vent) ?
Resting Vo2 ?
Vo2 max?

A

Resting RR? Decrease
Maximal RR? Increases
Resting TV? Increase
Maximal TV? Increase
Resting alveolar ventilation? Increase
Maximal AV (alveolar vent) ? Big increase
Resting Vo2 ? Increase slightly
Vo2 max? Big increase

362
Q

What are the ions found in sweat?

A

Sodium, potassium and chloride

363
Q

The lungs lose water and help remove protons in HCO3 by excreting blank

A

Carbon dioxide

364
Q

The organic solutes used to raise intracellular osmolarity include 

A

Sugar alcohols, and certain amino acids

365
Q

True or false, low blood pressure stimulates thirst

A

 True

366
Q

What happens in the cardiovascular system as a response to decrease in blood pressure and and volume

A

 The cardiac output increases there by resulting in vasoconstriction this results in an increase in blood pressure

367
Q

What happens to as the blood volume and blood pressure increases how does the cardiovascular system respond?

A

The cardiovascular system lowers, cardiac output, thereby resulting in vasodilation. This would decrease the blood pressure.

368
Q

How does behavior relate to a decrease in blood volume which decreases the blood pressure?

A

Behavior causes humans to increase thirst, which causes an increase in water intake. This result in increased extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid volume which increases the blood pressure.

369
Q

How are kidneys affected during a drop in blood volume in blood pressure

A

The kidneys, conserve salt and water to minimize further volume loss

370
Q

How do the kidneys function during an increase in blood volume in blood pressure

A

He can use excrete salts and water in urine. This decreases the extra cellular fluid and intracellular fluid volume. This result in a decrease in blood pressure.

371
Q

What is hyponatremia?

A

 It is a drop in the sodium level in the blood disconnect her from too much water intake

372
Q

True or false to maintain constant volume of water in the body we must taking more water than we excrete

A

False, we must taking the same amount of water that we excrete intake must equal output

373
Q

How much water do adults and just on average in a day?

A

2 L

374
Q

How much water is lost from the urine daily?

A

1.5 L.

375
Q

Define insensible water loss

A

Water loss across the skin, and in exhaled air of which we are not normally aware

376
Q

True or false only water loss in the urine can be regulated

A

True

377
Q

Define diuresis

A

Removal of excess water in urine

378
Q

Where is water in sodium reabsorbed in the kidney

A

In the distal nephron, which includes the distal tubule and collecting duct

379
Q

How can the kidney reabsorb water without first reabsorbing the solute?

A

Water is reabsorbed by osmosis through water pores also known as aquaporin.

380
Q

Which portion of the nephron is only water reabsorbed

A

Descending loop of Henle

381
Q

Which portion of the nephron are ions reabsorbed but no water

A

Ascending portion of the loop of Henle. Removal of the saw you in the thick, ascending limb creates hyposmotic fluid.

382
Q

What does vasopressin or ADH do?

A

This nine amino acid peptide contains amino acid arginine. It causes the body to retain water.

383
Q

How is AQP2 regulated?

A

It’s regulated by vasopressin 

384
Q

Where is AQP2 found?

A

It’s found on the apical membrane, facing the to be a lumen, and in the membrane of cytoplasmic storage vesicles

385
Q

When vasopressin arrived at the collecting duct, it binds to its blank receptors on the basolateral side of the cell

A

V2

386
Q

What is membrane recycling?

A

It’s the process in which cell membrane is withdrawn by endocytosis and stored as vesicles in the cytoplasm until needed. At that time, the vesicle is reinserted into the membrane by exocytosis.

387
Q

Does the apical membrane of the collecting duct cell have more water Porins, when vasopressin is present or when it’s absent?

A

It has more water pours when vasopressin is present

388
Q

People who inherit vasopressin V2 receptor deficiency will have urine that is dilute or concentrated?

A

Dilute

389
Q

Define osmoreceptor

A

Sensory receptor that monitors extra cellular fluid osmolarity

390
Q

What stimuli control vasopressin secretion

A

Plasma osmolarity, blood volume, and blood pressure

391
Q

What is nocturnal enuresis?

A

Involuntary urination, especially bedwetting at night

392
Q

What is one theory of why children experience nocturnal enuresis?

A

Disconnect her, because they could have a developmental delay in the normal pattern of increased vasopressin secretion at night

393
Q

What does desmopressin and when is it used?

A

Desmopressin is a nasal spray which is a vasopressin derivative administrative bedtime. This is to prevent nocturnal enuresis

394
Q

What is the countercurrent exchange system?

A

Anatomical arrangement of vessel, so that the flow in one vessel is in the opposite direction from the flow in the adjacent vessel

395
Q

Where is the countercurrent multiplier found?

A

Loop of Henley

396
Q

Where does sodium and potassium reabsorption take place in nephron

A

25% of the sodium and potassium reabsorption takes place in ascending limb of the loop of Henle

397
Q

The NKCC, symporter, uses energy, stored in the blank concentration gradient to transport sodium potassium and two chlorides from the lumen into the epithelial cells of the blank

A

Sodium and ascending limb

398
Q

Explain my patients, taking a loop diuretics that inhibits solute reabsorption excretes greater than normal volumes of urine

A

Solutes that remain in the lumen, when the NKCC symporter is inhibited force water to remain in the lumen with them. This increases the urine volume. 

399
Q

Loop diuretics inhibit, the NKCC symporter are sometimes called the potassium wasting diuretics. Explain why people who are on loop diuretics must increase their dietary potassium intake.

A

Diuretics that inhibit the end KCC symporter, leave potassium in the to be a lumen, where it is likely to be excreted that’s increasing urinary loss of potassium


400
Q

The higher you go, the ____ oxygen

A

Less

401
Q

Oxidative, phosphorylation generates blank

A

ATP

402
Q

High altitudes help low/high barometric pressure.

A

Low

403
Q

Hyperventilation leads to respiratory blank 

A

Alkalosis,  it can also lead to hypocapnia (too little CO2) 

404
Q

Hyperventilation, induces, blank, leading to respiratory blank

A

Hypercapnia, acidosis

405
Q

Polycythemia

A

having a high concentration of red blood cells in your blood.

Medical Physiology final exam (1 decks)

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