Final exam review (?'s from quizzes and past tests) Flashcards

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1
Q

What muscle would be most involved in raising the horse’s head and neck?

A

Splenius

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2
Q

The ossification of the lateral cartilages

A

sidebone

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3
Q

A bony growth at the joints of either the long and short pastern bones (high) or the short pastern bone and the coffin bone (low)

A

ringbone

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4
Q

The drug Lasix can help with what condition? (hint- this drug increases urination, which would be helpful because it decreases the blood volume and therefore can decrease pressure in the vessels)

A

EIPH (Exercise Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage)

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5
Q

Examples of flexor tendons

A

deep digital and superficial digital flexor tendon

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6
Q

Which system is most involved in temperature regulation in the horse?

A

skin and coat

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7
Q

tendons attach

A

muscle to bone

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8
Q

What is the name of the specialized reflective structure at the back of the horse’s eye that allows them to have excellent night vision?

A

Tapetum lucidum

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9
Q

The vertebrae of the horse’s neck which are specialized to allow for increased movement are called the:

A

Cervical vertebrae

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10
Q

When the nutrients pass into the bloodstream from the gastrointestinal tract

A

absorption

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11
Q

Breakdown of feed into smaller particles

A

digestion

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12
Q

What is the most important feedstuff in your horse’s diet

A

forage

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13
Q

What mineral is required for normal thyroid function

A

Iodine

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14
Q

Feeding a straight legume hay would be most suitable for what type of horse?

A

lactating mare (needs more protein and Ca)

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15
Q

Polysaccharide storage myopathy is a condition where

A

the glycogen in the muscle is abnormal

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16
Q

Lactic acid is a byproduct of anaerobic metabolism of what?

A

carbohydrates

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17
Q

Becoming more responsive to a stimulus as a result of experience

A

Sensitization

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18
Q

When should imprint training be performed?

A

During the first 48-96 hours of life

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19
Q

Effective ways to prevent horses from developing stereotypies

A

Oral enrichment
Increase turn-out time
Allow social interaction with other horses

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20
Q

When an established behavior occurs in response to a new stimulus

A

Classical conditioning

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21
Q

Horses are prey animals and therefore are

A

Flight animals (flee when they face danger)

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22
Q

Advantages to bands in wild horses

A

Protection of food sources
Genetic diversity
Protection from predators

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23
Q

What situation is most likely to cause a horse to tear while being handled or ridden by a human?

A

When the horse feels cornered or trapped

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24
Q

An example of negative reinforcement

A

Using a rump rope to teach a horse to lead (rope applies pressure to hind quarters when the horse is not leading/following along)

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25
Q

Under North Carolina law, an equine professional is not liable for the death of a participant in equine activities resulting exclusively from the inherent risks of equine activities T/F

A

True

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26
Q

What’s important for a boarding contract? (4 things)

A

barn rules/ health requirements (Negative coggins)
cost of board per month
emergency contact info
Insurance info/ liability

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27
Q

Approximately how many pounds of waste (manure, urine, bedding) do horses produce in a day?

A

100 lbs

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28
Q

Methods to weaning a foal (5)

A

cold turkey (sudden removal of mare from foal)
physical separation
time separation (remove mare for a few hours at a time with increasing lengths)
single remover (remove one mare at a time)
babysitter (removing mare from foal and replacing with babysitter)

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29
Q

How tall should horse fences be? (at least)

A

4’ 8’’

30
Q

What is the normal time to wean a horse at a breeding facility?

A

4-8 months

31
Q

Approximately how much manure does a 1000 lb horse produce per day?

A

50 lbs

32
Q

Approximately how much urine does a 1000 lb horse produce per day

A

6 to 10 lbs

33
Q

Costs that change periodically based on circumstances are called

A

variable costs

34
Q

A horse with a club foot has

A

Short upright hoof and pastern angles

35
Q

What is the term used to describe when the lower jaw is juts out farther than the upper jaw?

A

monkey mouth

36
Q

the term used in class to describe when the rear foot strikes the front foot on the same side of the body, and is also called over-reaching

A

forging or over-reaching

37
Q

What is the footfall order of a right lead canter?

A

Left hind, Right hind and Left front together, Right front

38
Q

the distance between imprints of the two front feet (or two hind feet)

A

steps

39
Q

What should the shoulder angle be? (angle to the ground or horizon)

A

45

40
Q

An Arabian breed of horse most likely has which of the following hindquarter conformations?

A

level croup

41
Q

A horse with too much angle to its hock is said to be:

A

sickle hocked

42
Q

Cannons fail to come from the center of the knees (front view)

A

bench knees

43
Q

Horse stands with point of hocks turned inward, base wide and splay footed (back view)

A

cow hocked

44
Q

What movement fault would most likely occur in pacers

A

cross firing

45
Q

What is the approximate stride of a 16 hh horse at the canter (used when designing jumping courses)?

A

12 ft

46
Q

What is another phrase to describe a horse that is buck kneed in front? (side view)

A

over at the knee

47
Q

What is the term used to describe when the upper jaw is juts out farther than the lower jaw?

A

parrot mouth

48
Q

If a mare has the genotype Ee and the sire has the genotype EE, what is the percentage chance that a foal would be EE?

A

50%

49
Q

How many chromosome pairs do horses have?

A

32

50
Q

If two palominos are bred, what are the chances of getting a cremello?

A

25%

51
Q

If you breed a horse that displays mild signs of HYPP to a horse with no signs, what is the chance you’d have a foal that could show mild signs of HYPP?

A

50%

52
Q

If you breed a cremello and a chestnut, what are the chances of getting a palomino foal?

A

100%

53
Q

The recipient mare for embryo transfer should be high quality because her genetic material is also passed to the foal T/F

A

False; the recipient mare’s genetic material is not passed to the foal

54
Q

Which disease results in no immunity for a foal?

A

CID (combined immunodeficiency disorder)

55
Q

The allele “G” when dominant produces what color of horse?

A

gray

56
Q
Which of the following traits would have the highest heritability?
Select one:
Height
Fertility
Trotting earnings
Conformation
A

Height

57
Q

If you breed 2 cremellos, what are the chances you’d get a palomino?

A

0%

58
Q

the structure that forms inside the uterus that the fetus develops in, that must be expelled during the 3rd stage of parturition.

A

placenta

59
Q

Give an example of an accessory sex gland of the stallion

A

cowper’s gland

60
Q

What is the term used to describe when a horse is “in heat”

A

estrus

61
Q

What is it called when one testicle does not descend and remains inside the body?

A

ridgling or cryptorchid

62
Q

Appaloosas must have what three traits?

A

mottled skin
sclera of eye visible
striped hooves

63
Q

Origin of Lipizzaner breed

A

Spain

64
Q

Origin of Dutch Warmblood breed

A

Netherlands

65
Q

Origin of Morgan breed

A

U.S.A

66
Q

Origin of Thoroughbred breed

A

England

67
Q

Origin of Clydesdale

A

Scotland

68
Q

A pale cream or light tan body color, slightly darker mane with a reddish tinge and having blue eyes

A

Perlino

69
Q

What breed can both pace and trot

A

Standardbred

70
Q

Foundation sires of thoroughbreds

A

Darley Arabian, Godolphin Arabian, Byerly Turk

71
Q

What are the key extensor tendons?

A

common digital and lateral digital extensor tendons

72
Q

How often should a horse get their teeth “floated”

A

1 to 2 years