Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

Schistosoma mansoni is typically found in a stool specimen?

True
False

A

True

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2
Q

E. harmani is a pathogenic amoeba

True
False

A

False

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3
Q

Dirurnal periodicity refers to an increase in parasite transmission from 10pm to 2am?

True
False

A

False

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4
Q

D. fragilis has an infective cyst stage?

True
False

A

False

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5
Q

Ascaris lumbricoides is commonly known as round worm?

True
False

A

True

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6
Q

The cycle of fever in a malaria infected patient can provide a definitive diagnosis

True
False

A

False

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7
Q

Watery or liquid stool specimens are more likely to harbor trophozoites

True
False

A

True

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8
Q

An ocular micrometer is used to measure the size of parasites?

True
False

A

True

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9
Q

The maltese cross is a diagnostic hallmark for Babesis microti?

True
False

A

True

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10
Q

Two terminal nuclei are characteristic of the filarial form of Wuchereria bancrofti?

True
False

A

False

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11
Q

Which of the following are types of preparation for liquid and soft stool? Choose all that apply.

A. Direct wet mounts
B. Fecal concentrates
C. Administer Immodium-AD to get formed stool
D. Permanent stained smears
E. Scotch tape test
A

A. Direct Wet mounts
B. Fecal Concentrates
D. Permanent stained smears

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12
Q

Which of the following are types of preparation for formed stool? (Choose all that apply)

A. Direct wet mounts
B. Fecal concentrates
C. Administer Immodium-AD to get formed stool
D. Permanent stained smears
E. Scotch tape test
A

B. Fecal concentrates

D. Permanent stained smears

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13
Q

Which of the following are part of the fecal flotation technique? (Choose all that apply)

A. Use solutions with higher specific gravity than most parasites.

B. Use solutions with lower specific gravity than most parasites

C. Parasites are concentrated in the top of the tube

D. Parasites are concentrated in the bottom of the tube

E. Is done to concentrate ova and parasites

F. Is done to remove fecal debris

A

A. Use solutions with higher specific gravity than most parasites

C. Parasites are concentrated in the top of the tube

E. Is done to concentrate ova and parasites

F. Is done to remove fecal debris

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14
Q

The characteristics of rhabditiform larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis include: (Choose all that apply)

A. Long buccal capsule
B. Large genital primordium
C. Small genital primordium
D. Short buccal capsule

A

B. Large genital primordium

D. Short buccal capsule

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15
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for identifying an Entameoba coli cyst? (choose all that apply)

A. 1-4 nuclei
B. >4 nuclei
C. Chromatoidal bars with frayed ends
D. Small centrally placed karyosomes
E. Chromatoidal bars with smooth ends
F. Blotchy nuclear chromatin
A

B. >4 nuclei
c. Chromatoidal bars with frayed ends
F. Blotchy nuclear chromatin

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16
Q

Which of the following matches between the organism and the appropriate diagnostic procedure is/are INCORRECT: (Choose all that apply)

A. Onchocerca volvulus - exam of skin snips

B. Cryptosporidium spp. - modified acid fast

C. Schistosoma haematobium - exam of urine sediment

D. Echinococcus granulosus - routine OAP exam

A

D. Echinococcus granulosus - routine OAP exam

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17
Q

Which parasite is characterized with a large central glycogen vacuole and no chromotoidal bars?

A. E. histolytica
B. E. nana
C. I. butschlii
D. G. lamblia

A

C. I. butschlii

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18
Q

In infections with T. solium humans can serve as the:

A. Definitive host
B. Intermediate host
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

A

C. All of the above

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19
Q

A 45 year old deer hunter developed fever, myalgia, and tissue edema. He has a history of bear meat consumption. The most likely causative agent is:

A. T. gondii
B. T. solium
C. H. nana
D. T. spiralis

A

D. T. spiralis

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20
Q

The genus of parasites most likely to affect a contact lens wearer is:

A. Loa Loa
B. Acanthamoeba spp.
C. Onchocerca volvulus
D. Toxoplasma gondii

A

B. Acanthamoeba spp

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21
Q

The parasite Diphyllobothrium latum is associated with which of the following?

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. B12 deficiency
C. Eating raw fish
D. A and C
E. B and C
A

E. B and C

B12 deficiency and Eating raw fish

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22
Q

Orthomyxoviruses: (choose all that apply)

A)  Envelope		
B)  Icosahedral capsid		
C)  Helical capsid		
D)  Naked	
E)  RNA	
F)  DNA
A

A) Envelope
C) Helical Capsule
E) RNA

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23
Q

Rhabdoviruses: (choose all that apply)

A)  Envelope		
B)  Icosahedral capsid		
C)  Helical capsid		
D)  Naked	
E)  RNA	
F)  DNA
A

A) Envelope
C) Helical
E) RNA

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24
Q

Picornaviruses: (choose all that apply)

A)  Envelope		
B)  Icosahedral capsid		
C)  Helical capsid		
D)  Naked	
E)  RNA	
F)  DNA
A

B) Icosahedral
D) Naked
E) RNA

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25
Q

Herpesviruses: (choose all that apply)

A)  Envelope		
B)  Icosahedral capsid		
C)  Helical capsid		
D)  Naked	
E)  RNA	
F)  DNA
A

A) Envelope
B) Icosahedral
F) DNA

26
Q

Filoviruses: (choose all that apply)

A)  Envelope		
B)  Icosahedral capsid		
C)  Helical capsid		
D)  Naked	
E)  RNA	
F)  DNA
A

A) Envelope
C) Helical
E) RNA

27
Q

Prions: (choose all that apply)

A)  Envelope		
B)  Icosahedral capsid		
C)  Helical capsid		
D)  Naked	
E)  RNA	
F)  DNA
G)  None apply
A

G) None apply

28
Q

If you have been vaccinated for polio you can still get colonized by poliovirus

True
False

A

True

29
Q

Respiratory Synctia Virus is generally a disease of infants

True
False

A

True

30
Q

Coxsackie B virus is a virus causing endocarditis

True
False

A

False

31
Q

Prognosis for a person infected by filovirus is generally good

True
False

A

False

32
Q

Rhinovirus is the causative agent of Rabies

True
False

A

False

33
Q

Another name for Dengue fever is Breakbone fever virus

True
False

A

True

34
Q

Hepatitis C virus requires an infection of Hepatitis B helper virus

True
False

A

False

35
Q

Scrapie is associated with human infections of transmissible spongioform encephalopathies

True
False

A

False

36
Q

HHV-6 is the causative agent of Roseola infantum

True
False

A

True

37
Q

Noroviruses can be easily grown in cell culture

True
False

A

False

38
Q

Classification of viruses is made by:

A. Nucleic acid composition
B. Electron microscopy
C. Serology
D. Cytopathic effect

A

A. Nucleic acid composition

39
Q

The most common cause of viral pneumonia in adults are:

A. Hepatitis A and B viruses
B. Ebola and poliovirus
C. Herpes simplex virus and cytomegalovirus
D. Coxsackie A and B viruses
E. Influenza and adenovirus
A

E. Influenza and adenovirus

I think… Pretty sure

40
Q

The virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is known by the name:

A. HSV-1
B. AIDS
C. HIV
D. CMV
E. HAV
A

C. HIV

41
Q

The appearance of Koplik spots in the oral mucosa of patients is characteristic of infection with what viral agent:

A. Hepatitis A
B. Kaposi's sarcoma
C. Rabies
D. Yellow Fever
E. Measles
A

E) Measles

42
Q

A small single stranded DNA virus that causes a fever with a rash (known as slapped cheek), and commonly called fifth’s disease is:

A. Rotavirus
B. Coxsackie A virus
C. Adenovirus
D. Parvovirus B19
D. Chicken Pox
A

D. Parvovirus B19

43
Q

Anaplasma and Ehrlichia are transmitted by which vector:

A. Boring online lecture notes from Dr. Scanlan
B. Lice
C. Mosquitos
D. Fleas
E. Ticks
A

E. Tick

44
Q

Rotovirus is the most common etiologic agent of:

A. Chronic pharyngitis in children and young adults
B. Chronic retinitis in children
C. Acute hemorrhagic fever in adults
D. Acute gastroenteritis in infants and young children
E. Acute encephalitis in adults

A

D. Acute gastroenteritis in infants and young children

45
Q

the target of the virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is:

A. Erythrocyte
B. Cytotoxic T cell
C. T helper cell
D. Granulocyte
E. B Lymphocyte
A

C. T helper cell

46
Q

Which virus is implicated in adult gastroenteritis resulting from the ingestion of contaminated food and water?

A. Coronavirus
B. Influenza virus
C. Rotavirus
D. Norwalk virus
E. Hepatitis C virus
A

D. Norwalk virus

47
Q

Which of the following viruses is predominately associated with respiratory disease and the cause of epidemics of conjunctivitis?

A. Bunyavirus
B. Arenavirus
C. Rotavirus
D. Adenovirus
E. Rhinovirus
A

D. Adenovirus

48
Q

A patient present with multiple sores in the mouth and on the lips. The patient reported a slight tingling of the area before the sores began. These lesions are most likely caused by:

A. adenovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus 1
C. Herpes simplex virus 2
D. Epstein-Barr virus
E. Cytomegalovirus
A

B. Herpes simplex virus 1

49
Q

The viral disease shingles which causes extreme tenderness along the dorsal nerve root and a vesicular eruption is caused by the same etiologic agent known as:

A. Varicella
B. Variola
C. Vaccinia
D. Poliovirus
E. Rubeola
A

A. Varicella

50
Q

A 13 yo boy was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of viral encephalitis. History revealed that the boy harbored wild raccoons from his farm. What is the best method to determine if the boy has contracted rabies?

A. Request immunoflurescent test for antibodies on the saliva of the raccoons

B. Check the boy for a vial of gypsy tears that may provide protection

C. Remove the brain stems from all the raccoons and examine for negri bodies

D. isolate the virus from the saliva of the patient and raccoons

E. Perform the FTP-ABS test

A

C. Remove the brain stems from all the raccoons and examine for negri bodies

51
Q

Epstein-Barr virus is the causative agent of:

A. Rabies
B. Shingles
C. Fever blisters
D. Diaper rash
E. Infectious mononucleosis
F. Dengue fever
A

E. Infectious mononucleosis

52
Q

Warts are characeristically produced when humans are infected with a _________ virus?

A. Papillomavirus
B. Alphavirus
C. Bunyavirus
D. Herpesvirus
E. Flavivirus
A

A. Papillomavirus

53
Q

A pregnant 25 yo female with genital lesions delivered a premature newborn w/complications. The baby tested negative for bacterial infections. The baby later died despite treatment for a viral infection. What was the likely cause of death?

A. HSV
B. HIV
C. CMV
D. RSV
E. PMS
A

A. HSV

54
Q

The causative agent of endemic or murine typhus is:

A. Rickettsia typhi
B. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
C. Rickettsia prowazekii
D. Coxiella burnetti
E. Colorado tick fever
A

A. Rickettsia typhi

55
Q

These viruses cause latent infections in humans (choose all that apply)

A. Influenza
B. Rubella
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Varicella zoster virus
E. none of the above
A

C. Herpes simplex virus

D. Varicella zoster

56
Q

The steps involved in viral infection is/are (choose all that apply)

A. Assembly
B. Mitosis
C. Attachment
D. Penetration
E. Replication
F. Release
A

All of the above

57
Q

Viruses have been successfully detected by the use of which method(s) (choose all that apply):

A. Enzyme Linked Immunosobent Assay (ELISA)
B. Eletron Microsocipy (EM)
C. Immunofluoresence
D. Growth on selective agar media
E. Cytopathic effect (CPE)
A

Cytopathic effect (CPE)
Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
Electron Microscopy (EM)
Immunofluorescence

58
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by which organism:

A. Coxiella burnetti
B. Dengue virus
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Rickettsia rickettsii

A

D. Rickettsia rickettsii

59
Q

Jaundice is a major clinical feature of which of the following infections;

A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Varicella Zoster virus
C. Hepatitis viruses
D. Rabies
E. Colorado Tick fever
A

C. Hepatitis Viruses

60
Q

The causitive agent of SARS is:

A. Corona viruses
B. Orthomyxovirus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Rotavirus
E. Lentiviruses
A

A. corona Virus

61
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of syphillis and its tests: (choose all that apply)

A) Has 3 stages (latency should not be considered a stage)

B) VDRL and RPR are treponemal tests

C) FTA-ABS is a non-treponemal test

D) Is a spirochete

E) Primary syphilis has a painless chancre

A

A) Has 3 stages (latency should not be considered a stage)

D) Is a spirochete

E) Primary syphilis has a painless chancre

62
Q

The ectoparasite most associated with direct contact with infected clothing and bed linen is: (choose the best answer)

A. Dermatobia hominis
B. Phthirus pubis
C. Xenopsylia cheopis
D. Pediculus capitis
E. Pediculus humanus
A

E. Pediculus humanus