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Physical Agents > Final Exam Review > Flashcards

Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What would you NOT use biofeedback for

A

Diagnosis of nerve impairment

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2
Q

When setting parameters for a biofeedback treatment for a muscle contraction you should set the goal/target so that the patient achieves feedback roughly ? of the time

A

2/3

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3
Q

Biofeedback units do not measure an exact physiological event, instead they measure something that is highly correlated to the event. In rehab what will the units an AT would use to measure

A

electromyographic activity

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4
Q

T or F: In diathermy applications the greatest heating effect will be in the tissue that offers the greatest resistance to the current flow

A

True

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5
Q

T or F: In diathermy shortwave units have electric fields

A

False, Magnetic fields

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6
Q

T or F: Microwave units have Electric fields

A

True

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7
Q

Which of the following would be from the acoustic spectrum: Diathermy, Iontophoresis, Electrical stimulation or Ultrasound

A

Ultrasound

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8
Q

What is the name for the process by which energy travels through space

A

radiation

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9
Q

Which of the following has the shortest wavelength: Cold pack, Hot Pack, electrical stimulation or ultravioletlight

A

Ultraviolet light

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10
Q

?What is the law of Grotthus-draper

A

the inverse relationship between energy absorption by a tissue and the energy penetration to deeper layers of tissue

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11
Q

What is the cosine law

A

smaller the angle between the propegating ray and the right angle, the less radiation reflected and the greater the absorption

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12
Q

No reaction or changes can occur in the body tissues if the amount of energy absorbed is insufficient to stimulate the absorbing tissues is known as what principle

A

Arndt-schultz principle

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13
Q

All of the following about infrared agents is true except: Thermotherapy is indicated for acute care, cold is indicated for acute care, cold is an adjunct for therapeutic exercise, or thermotherapy is an adjunct for therapeutic exercise

A

Thermotherapy is indicated for acute care

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14
Q

Applying biofreeze is an example of cryo therapy, T or F

A

False

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15
Q 
Which of the following rows about infrared agent wavelength depths of penetration are correct:
ice 1cm, heat 1-2mm
Ice 3cm, Heat 1-2cm
Ice 1cm, heat 1-2cm
Ice 3cm, heat 1-2mm
A

Ice 1cm, heat 1-2mm

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16
Q

Which of the following infrared agents does not use convection to transfer energy:
Hydrocullator pack, warm whirlpool, cold whirlpool or fluidotherapy

A

Hydrocullator pack

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17
Q

Heat storage capacity is determined by size of the agent, temperature and properties of the agent, T or F

A

True

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18
Q

What is an example of latent heat of fusion

A

0 degrees C ice to 0 degrees C water

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19
Q

What is the cold treatment time for a hip joint

A

20-30 mins

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20
Q

What is the could treatment time for an ankle joint

A

15-20 mins

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21
Q

What type of energy does physical agents not use

A

Gamma

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22
Q

What is the order of healing phases

A

inflammation, proliferation and remodeling

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the remodeling pahse of healing:
Takes up to one year
Type III to type I collagen transition is over 50%
Wound contraction occurs
Type III to type I collagen transition is under 50%

A

Type III to type I collagen transition is under 50%

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24
Q

Pain cause much of the limited mobility and loss of function in the inflammation phase, T or F

A

True

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25
Q

Histamine release causes vasoconstriction in the area during the inflammation phase, T or F

A

False

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26
Q

Type III collagen is laid down with good organization for form strong repair of an injury during the proliferation phase, T or F

A

False

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27
Q

What proteins promote, speed up and enhance the healing process?

A

Growth factors

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28
Q

When thinking about muscle spasm and swelling, Spasm can increase blood flow to the area, T or F?

A

False

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29
Q

Is thermotherapy a good choise to use during the inflammation phase?

A

No

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30
Q

Which modality would be least beneficial during the remodeling phase of healing

A

Interferential electric stimulation

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31
Q

The proliferation phase takes how long to occur

A

3-21 days

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32
Q

Amplitude of a wave is the hightest point of each pulse phase, T or F

A

True

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33
Q

Duration is the time of the pulse from beginning to the end of all phases, T or F

A

True

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34
Q

Frequency is the number of electrons that flow in one second, T or F

A

False

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35
Q

Direction is based on the electron flow towards polarity, T or F

A

True

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36
Q

Which of the following statements about pulse rate is NOT true:
a) the amount of time for a pulse to reach it’s peak aptitude is the reate of rise
b) a fast rise decreases excitability
C) the amount of time for a pulse to go from peak amplitude to 0 volts is the decay time
d) a slow rise allows for accommodation or inexcitability of nervous tissue

A

B

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37
Q

When compression is applied to cold the tempratures decrease is greater due to the following except:

a) the specific heat of ice is increased
b) decreased circulation
c) increased agent to skin interface
d) insulating the agent from the environment

A

A

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38
Q

What is the order of sensations with ice immersion

A

cold, deep-aching pain, pins and needles and numbness

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39
Q

How much will a 10 degree F tissue temperature decrease affect metabolism in the treated area

A

50%

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40
Q

Treatment of frostbite should include immersion in cool water 40-50 degreesF, T or F

A

False

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41
Q

How long does it usually take to renumb an area after a bout of exercise during cryokinetics

A

3-5 minutes

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42
Q

how many cryokinetic routines can you perform in one day

A

2-3

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43
Q

During cryokinetics what is considered a “built-in safety valve”

A

Pain

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44
Q

Is acute edema an indication for thermotherapy

A

NO

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45
Q

Which of the following is not a thermotherapy agent

a) electric heating pad
b) fluidotherapy
c) icy-hot ointment
d) paraffin bath

A

Icy-hot treatment

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46
Q

What temperature should a warm whilrpool for an extremity be(In F)

A

98-108

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47
Q

how many times is an extremity dipped into a paraffin bath during a standard treatment

A

6

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48
Q

What is the recommended temperature for the warm tub of a contract bath

A

104-106

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49
Q

What is the recommended temperature for the cold tub of a contrast bath

A

50-60

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50
Q

What is the typical depth of penetration of counterirritants

A

only 1-2mm

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51
Q

Ultrasound frequency is measured in?

A

Hertz

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52
Q

Acoustic energy relies on what for transmission

A

molecular collision

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53
Q

What ultrasound frequency penetrates the deepest

A

1MHz

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54
Q

Which node is positive and which node is negative: anode Cathode

A

Anode-positive

Cathode-negative

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55
Q

an Ampere is a measurement of electron flow, T or F

A

True

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56
Q

What material allows for free elctron flow: conductor or insulator

A

conductor

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57
Q

What is modulation

A

alterations or variations of current pulse

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58
Q

The different in electrical potential between the two poles in e stim is called what

A

Volts

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59
Q

What unit is used to measure resistance to electron flow

A

Ohm

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60
Q

The sodium-poatssium pump allws negatively charged ions to permeate the cel while pumping out positively charged ions, T or F

A

True

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61
Q

The resting potential is the potential different between the inside of the cell and the ouside of the cell, T or F

A

True

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62
Q

Depolarization of the cell occurs as resting potential is increased, T or F

A

False resting potential is neurtalized

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63
Q

An action potential is a recorded change in electrical between the inside and outside of a nerve cell resulting in muscular contraction, T or F

A

True

64
Q

All stmuli are effective in causing an action potential and depolarization, T or F

A

False

65
Q

Muscle and nerve excitation occurs through an all-or-nothing response once depolarization threshold is achieved, T or F

A

True

66
Q

Skin is a good conductor of electrical current, T or F

A

False

67
Q

The anode is the site that typically causes depolarization and is called the active electrode, T or F

A

False

68
Q

Galvanic stimulating currents are an A/C waveform, T or F

A

False

69
Q

The absolute refractory period is the time between depolarization and when a nerve is able to transmit a second impulse, T or F

A

True

70
Q

Tetany is when the intensity is not great enough to have all muscle fibers contract synchronously

A

False

71
Q

What is the definiton of Tissue impedance

A

resistance of tissue to the passage of electrical current

72
Q

Which electrode is always considered the active electrode in iontophoresis

A

drug delivery electrode

73
Q

Which of the followingwould be least effective for muscle contraction

a) russian
b) high volt
c) biphasic
d) premodulated

A

d-premodulated

74
Q

Which of the following would be least effective for pain control

a) low volt DC/TENS current
b) premodulated current
c) biphasic current
d) interferential current

A

C-biphasic current

75
Q

Which of the following is not a system of pain control in the body

a) galvanism
b) central biasing
c) opiate system
d) gate control

A

A-galvanism

76
Q

Which of the following falls withing the recommended range of current amplitude for iontophoresis:

a) 3mA
b) 40mA
c) 10mD
d) none of the above

A

A-3mA

77
Q

Dosage for iontophoresis is measuren in

A

mA/min

78
Q

What is it called when two currents combine to create decreased net amplitude

A

destructive interference

79
Q

What is radiating pain down a nerve distribution often called

A

radiculopathy

80
Q

What is the number one reason patients seek medical care

A

pain

81
Q

the most common medication used for iontophoresis is dexamethasone, what is the polarity

A

negative

82
Q

internittent compression, traction and massage are all forms of what type of energy

A

mechanical

83
Q

What type of light causes changes in the superficial skin and has very short wavelength

A

Ultraviolet

84
Q

How deep from the surface does a 1MHz ultrasound wave typically penetrate tissue

A

2-5cm

85
Q

What are areas of high molecular density within an ultrasound wave called

A

compression

86
Q

What is wavelength of an ultrasound wave?

A

measured distance between two successive peaks of the pressure wave

87
Q

what is it called when you have alternating compression and expansion of gas bubbles due to ultrasound

A

cavitation

88
Q

what is bubble rotation or fluid movement along cell membrane boundaries due to ultrasound called

A

microstreaming

89
Q

What is spatial averaged intensity

A

average over an area of a transducer

90
Q

What is temporal averaged intensity

A

average of the power of bot on and off times

91
Q

What is effective radiating area

A

surface area of the transducer actually producing US

92
Q

What is Beam non-uniformity ratio

A

spatial peak intensity/spatial average intensity

93
Q

What is spatial peak intensity

A

highest intensity within an US beam

94
Q

What is duty cycle

A

percentage of time the US generator is producing US

95
Q

What is half value thickness

A

Tissue depth at which 1/2 the US is attenuated

96
Q

T or F: US treatments can be given once a day for 15 consecutive days

A

False: 14 max

97
Q

T or F: US to scar tissue is meant to soften scar tissue and make it easier to stretch

A

True

98
Q

T or F: A low BNR is more likely to produce hot spots when doing US

A

False

99
Q

T or F: Phonophoresis is the use of US to drive drug/medication ions into the body

A

False

100
Q

T or F: Pulsed US done acutely is meant to accelerate healing and repair

A

True

101
Q

T or F: Pain relief from US is due to the temprature difference between heated tissue and regular body temperature

A

True

102
Q

A 3MHz US has a more divergent(spreads out more) beam than 1MHz

A

False

103
Q

T or F:Althought the reason is not fully understood, heating effects from diathermy stay in tissue longer than other agents

A

True

104
Q

T or F:US done for chronic inflammation is meant to increase blood flow for healing

A

True

105
Q

T or F: phonophoresis has been shown to be more effective than US alone in some studies

A

True

106
Q

What is it called when water is used to raise or lower tissue temperature

A

Hydrotherapy

107
Q

How many layers should you have between a hot pack and the patient

A

6

108
Q

What tissue can transverse sound waves travel through

A

bone

109
Q

How long is a normal exercise bout during cryokinetics before have to re-cool the area

A

2-3 mins

110
Q

What is the typical ratio for a contrast bath, hot to cold

A

4:1

111
Q

What should the water temperature be in a hydrocullator

A

160-170

112
Q

Does light get billed as an infrared modality

A

NO

113
Q

When energy is gained will an electron move to a higher or lower orbit

A

higher

114
Q

what is it when a high percentage of excited cells are enclosed within a chamber with a mirror on one end and a semipermeable “mirror” at the other end

A

laser

115
Q

What does laser stand for

A

light emplification for the stimulated emission of radiation

116
Q

What are two main types of lasers used in the medical field

A

helium neon and gallium arsenide

117
Q

What does LLT stand for

A

low laser therapy

118
Q

What does LPT stand for

A

Low power therapy

119
Q

Are low power lasers used to stimulate wound healing

A

yes

120
Q

What are some indications for lasers

A

facilitate wound healing, pain reduction, increasing tensile strength of a wound, decreaseing scar tissue, decreasing inflammation and bone healing

121
Q

What are contraindications for lasers

A

cancer/tumor, to the eyes, pregnancy

122
Q

What units is energy dose in for lasers

A

J or Joules/cm2

123
Q

What is the depth of penetration for HeNe laser

A

direct effect2-5mm, indirect effect 8-10mm

124
Q

What is the depth of penetration for GaAslaser

A

direct effect 1-2cm, indirect effect 5am

125
Q

Which laser has a longer wavelength: HeNe or GaAs

A

GaAs

126
Q

What does LED stand for

A

light emitting diodes

127
Q

What is rickets associated with

A

vitamin D deficiency

128
Q

What MIRE

A

Monchromatic near-infrared light energy

129
Q

What is the only type of MIRE available

A

anodyne therapy

130
Q

What is the treatment time for anodyne treatments

A

15-20 minutes

131
Q

What are the contraindications

A

directly over any active malignancy, over/near womb of pregnant woman, over eyes or face, directly over topical heating agent

132
Q

What are the precautions for anodyne

A

superficial burns and hypoglycemia

133
Q

What is intermittent compression

A

clinical tool used in the reduction of edema throughout extremities using an external pressure pump unit

134
Q

What is edema

A

presence of abnormal amounts of fluid in the extracellular tissue spaces

135
Q

what is another name for lymphedema

A

pitting edema

136
Q

What is lymphedema

A

swelling occuring outside the joint due to acculmulation of lymph

137
Q

What must you do prior to doing intermittent compression

A

blood pressure check

138
Q

What strategies can we use for edema reduction

A

elevation, muscle contraction/exercise, massage, electrical stimulation, elastic compression, cryotherapy, lymphedema therapy

139
Q

What are common pressures for the UE an LE?

A

UE- 30-60mmHg

LE- 40-80mmHG

140
Q

What is the rule of 30?

A

30mmHg for 30 secs on and 30 secs off

141
Q

What must you do after the treatment is over

A

extend treatment by applying an ace wrap distal to proximal

142
Q

What are some precautions of intermittent compression

A

impaired sensation, uncontrolled hypertension, cancer,stroke and superficial peripheral nerves

143
Q

What are some contraindications for intermittent compression

A

DVT, thrombophelbitis,pulmonary embolism, obstructed venous return, local infection, displaced fractures

144
Q

What is CPM

A

continuous passive motion

145
Q

What is the definition of massage

A

mechanical stimulation of tissues by rhythmically applied pressure and stretching

146
Q

What are some effects of massage

A

increase flexibility and coronation,increased pain threshold, decreased neuromuscular excitability, facilitate healing, restore joint mobility, remove lactic acid

147
Q

What is myofascial release used to help with

A

tight fascia

148
Q

During a massage, should your hands ever leave the patient

A

no one hand should alwas remain on the patient

149
Q

What are some contracindications for massage

A

embolism, thrombosis, synovitis, skin/joint infections, acute inflammatory conditions

150
Q

What is a hoffa massage

A

combination of effleurage, petrissage, tapotement and vibration

151
Q

What is a friction massage most commonly used for

A

muscles, tendons and ligaments

152
Q

What is another name for cross friction massage

A

transverse friction massage

153
Q

What is connective tissue massage

A

stroking technique to the layers of connective tissue, CT causing abnormal tightness and local inflammation

154
Q

What is active release technique used for

A

correct soft tissue problems caused by the formation of fibrotic adhesions

155
Q

What are the contraindications of traction

A

acute injury/inflammation, joint hyper mobility, c1-c2 instability, recent joint fusion surgery within a year, spinal infection, pregnancy,rheumatoid arthritis, osteoporosis

Physical Agents (1 decks)

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