Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

The plot below represents the initial reaction velocities for different substrate concentrations in a batch reactor. The same, and I’m concentration, reactor volume, temperature, and pH were used for all data points. Assuming that the reaction follows Michaelis Menten kinetics, please estimate Vm from the plot. 

A

600 micromol/(l x min)
y-axis value where the graph levels off

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2
Q

(T/F) when ribose is a part of a nucleic acid sequence, the phosphate is on carbon 5

A

True

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3
Q

(T/F) the template strand of DNA is transcribed 

A

True

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4
Q

mRNA is translated in…

A

5’ to 3’ direction

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5
Q

What molecular components that comprise the basic subunits (monomers) of DNA differ from RNA?

A

Sugar, base

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6
Q

Studying the expression of a transcription, regulatory protein into cell types, you have performed experiments showing that the mRNA encoding the protein is present at varying levels in the cytosol of both cell types. However, you find out that the protein in both cell types is expressed at comparable levels. Which of the following steps in expression of the gene and coding this protein is more likely to be differentially controlled in these cell types?

A

Transcription and translation

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7
Q

You are treating a tumor with pulse electric fields. You aim to ablate all local tumor cells. What pulses sequence do you prefer?

A

High voltage, short pulses, high frequencies consistent with IRE protocols

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8
Q

The process of delivery of nucleic acids materials into mammalian cells with pulse electric fields is called…

A

Gene electrotransfer

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9
Q

(T/F) tertiary protein structure refers to the sequence of amino acids that make up a protein 

A

False

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10
Q

What charge would you expect a protein to have in a highly acidic environment?

A

Positive

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11
Q

Which of the following is an assumption of the Michaelis Menten Kinetics model that was described in class?

A

S concentration&raquo_space;> E concentration

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12
Q

What happens in the M phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle?

A

Cell separates into two daughter cells, replicated chromosomes line up and begin separating

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13
Q

(T/F) during DNA synthesis, the leading strand of DNA is reproduced continuously

A

True

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14
Q

During DNA electrophoresis…

A

Smaller DNA fragments migrate FASTER, compared to larger ones (none of the above on the exam review question)

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15
Q

What are the base pairs that bind together to form double-stranded RNA?

A

U-A, C-G

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16
Q

Which is true of a typical cell growth curve under batch conditions?

A

There is no net replication in the stationary phase

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17
Q

(T/F) a cell commits to division or quiescence during the G2 phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle

A

False

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18
Q

RNA polymerase moves along the molecule of DNA in which direction?

A

3’ to 5’ direction

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19
Q

The term Vm, in Michaelis Menten kinetics, can be interpreted as?

A

The maximum rate of product production

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20
Q

The abbreviation ES in the enzyme kinetics discussed class stand for?

A

Enzyme substrate complex

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21
Q

Dideoxy Nucleotide Triphosphates (ddNTP) are used DNA sequencing to…

A

Stop DNA synthesis locations that correspond to nucleotides containing a specific base

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22
Q

The general chemical structure for the basic subunits of a polypeptide include, which of the following?

A

Central carbon with the following attached: H, COOH, NH2, and variable R group

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23
Q

Which of the following are mechanisms by which proteins can be denatured?

A

Extreme temperatures, highly acidic or basic conditions, high sheer stress (all of the above on the exam review)

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24
Q

What is the base pairing for DNA?

A

A-T, G-C

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25
Q

(T/F) the Hayflick limit is the number of times a normal human cell population will divide before cell division stops

A

True

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26
Q

One type of device that can be used to count cells in order to determine the concentration of cells in a liquid sample is called?

A

Hemocytometer

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27
Q

What mathematical equation is used to describe the equilibrium potential at which there is no driving force for the flow of any in organic ion through a membrane channel?

A

Nernst equation

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28
Q

(T/F) flow cytometers analyze cells using a one cell at a time approach

A

True

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29
Q

The negative potential inside most living cells (relative to the outside) is primarily attributed to…

A

The proteins in the cell interior that are primarily anions

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30
Q

Forward angle scatter (FSC) is measured by flow cytometer. What does a FSC measurement indicate?

A

Cell size

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31
Q

ELISA assays are used to…

A

Detect a soluble protein or antibody

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32
Q

The two driving forces that force the flow of inorganic ions through an open channel in the cell membrane is?

A

Concentration gradient, the voltage gradient

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33
Q

(T/F) neurotransmitters are a chemical means of propagating an electrical signal from one cell to another

A

True

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34
Q

(T/F) Adherens Junction is an anchorage site for actin filaments

A

True

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35
Q

What is the main constitute of the mammalian cell plasma membrane?

A

Phospholipids

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36
Q

What type of signaling utilizes a channel between cells?

A

Contact dependent signaling

37
Q

Phospholipids are comprised of?

A

2 fatty acids, glycerol, phosphate, polar head group

38
Q

(T/F) phospholipids in the bilayer structure of a mammalian cell membrane are covalently bound to each other

A

False

39
Q

What type of signaling occurs where cells only respond to signaling molecules that they self secrete?

A

Autocrine signaling

40
Q

Osmosis is…

A

The diffusion of water across a semi permeable membrane

41
Q

What type of signaling includes the blood carrying signal molecules to the target cells?

A

Endocrine signaling

42
Q

(T/F) epithelial surfaces have a 1-dimensional ECM

A

False

43
Q

The elasticity of blood vessels can be attributed to which of the following?

A

Elastin

44
Q

(T/F) Hemidesmosomes anchor intermediate filaments to the ECM

A

True

45
Q

What is the name for ligands that can increase or decrease a metabolic enzyme activity, gene expression, or cell morphogenesis?

A

Effector proteins

46
Q

(T/F) intracellular receptors have hydrophilic ligands

A

False

47
Q

(T/F) cell surface receptors have hydrophilic ligands

A

True

48
Q

In paracrine signaling, the molecules secreted by a particular cell are intended to communicate with…

A

Other cells over relatively short distances

49
Q

What does the acronym ECM represent in biology?

A

Extra cellular matrix

50
Q

Integrins are…

A

Linked to the cytoskeleton

51
Q

Gap junctions…

A

Allow passage of small, water-soluble molecules from one cell to another

52
Q

In reference to recombinant DNA technology, DNA is cleaved at specific sites by…

A

Restriction nucleases

53
Q

Primary cell culture refers to cells…

A

Taken directly from a tissue of an organism to a dish, that do not continue to grow and eventually die, explanted directly from a donor organism (all of the above on the exam review)

54
Q

(T/F) cells in a primary culture are not susceptible to contamination

A

False

55
Q

(T/F) secondary cell cultures are cells that are taken from a primary culture are passaged or divided in vitro

A

True

56
Q

Passaging cells in culture refers to…

A

The process of removing or diluting cells in a culture to keep the cells actively growing

57
Q

(T/F) optimal confluency of cells in cell culture at the point of replating is 90-100%

A

False

58
Q

What is typically used to detach adherent cell lines from cell culture dishes?

A

Trypsin

59
Q

Upon trypsonization of cells in a culture, what, if anything, on the cells is disrupted?

A

Protein-mediated attachments to one another and growth factors

60
Q

(T/F) The growth of adherence cells in batch culture is limited by the amount of nutrients available rather than the amount of available surface area.

A

False

61
Q

A sterilization technique that causes mutations to form in the DNA of microbes eventually leading to death is referred to as?

A

UV radiation

62
Q

What term refers to a heat treatment to reduce the level of microbes?

A

Pasteurization

63
Q

What term refers to the removal, destruction, or inactivation of microorganisms, which may cause specific damage or infection, while others may survive?

A

Disinfection

64
Q

(T/F) sterilization removes, destroys, or inactivates ALL life of any kind from an object or material

A

True

65
Q

Side scatter (SSC) in relationship to flow cytometry provides what useful measurement or information?

A

Surface topography

66
Q

When performing an ELISA assay, the basic use for a capture antibody is to…

A

Capture a target protein

67
Q

Which of the following is a device for directly analyzing gene expression?

A

Gene microarray

68
Q

In microscopy, what is the transmitted light mode in which the image is obtained by simple transmission of light through the sample being viewed?

A

Brightfield

69
Q

In microscopy, what transmitted light mode allows for 3-D imaging?

A

Differential interference contrast

70
Q

(T/F) scanning electron microscopy (SEM) is used to observe internal cell structure down to the molecular level

A

False

71
Q

(T/F) transmission electron microscopy is useful to observe 3-D characteristics of surface topography

A

False

72
Q

Cell lysis can be accomplished by which of the following techniques?

A

A blender, sonication, tissue homogenizer (all of the above on the exam review)

73
Q

(T/F) mitogens stimulate cell division

A

True

74
Q

Which of the following modes of cell migration is dependent upon of substrate bound concentration gradient?

A

Haptotaxis

75
Q

Which of the following modes of cell migration is dependent upon a rigidity gradient?

A

Durotaxis

76
Q

Which of the following modes of cell migration is dependent upon a soluble concentration gradient?

A

Chemotaxis

77
Q

Which of the following is described by a sheet-like protrusion supported by a mesh work of actin filaments, which is extended at the leading edge of a crawling animal cell?

A

Lamellipodium

78
Q

Which of the following refers to a network of fibers extending throughout the cytoplasm?

A

Cytoskeleton

79
Q

Which of the following are formed from microtubules and act as a sensory device?

A

Cilia

80
Q

What are the four stages of wound healing and chronological order?

A

Homeostasis, inflammation, proliferation, remodeling

81
Q

During the homeostasis phase of the foreign body response, what process also occurs that does not occur during normal wound healing?

A

Adsorption

82
Q

(T/F) The Vroman effect involves high molecular weight molecules attaching to the surface of the biome material and then being replaced by low molecular weight molecules

A

False

83
Q

During the proliferation phase of the foreign body response, what is proliferating?

A

Endothelial cells and fibroblasts

84
Q

You are looking at a trichrome image of an 8-week implant of a new material that you were testing for biocompatibility implanted subcutaneously. You immediately conclude that the material is not biocompatible. Why?

A

You observe, thick, blue fibrous staining around the implant indicating fibrous encapsulation

85
Q

You have counted 25, 20, 45, and 32 blue cells in the four squares of the hemocytometer and 10, 12, 11, and 12 clear cells in the same four squares of the hemocytometer. You have 10 mL of your cell suspension And you use 0.02 mL of cell suspension, and 0.02 mL of trypan blue to load the hemocytometer. What is your dilution factor?

A

DF=2

[(0.02+0.02)/(0.02)]= 2

86
Q

You seeded 20,000 cells in your 10 cm in diameter plate on Monday. On Friday (day 4) you observe that your plate is 80% confluent, and you counted 1 million cells. What is the population doubling time?

A

17 hr

87
Q

Consider that you are growing a batch of cells in a petri dish. You seed 1000 viable cells into the culture at t=0. The cells are known to have a 4-hour lag time. If the cells have a net replication rate of 0.87 hr-1, how many cells will be in the culture 10 hours after you initially seeded the culture?

A

184934 cells

88
Q

Considered that you are growing a batch of cells in a petri dish as followed in the growth curve showing in the figure. At the beginning of their log phase of growth, there are 1000 cells. If the cells have a net replication rate of 0.87 hr-1, what is the doubling time of the cells?

A

0.8 hr