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Research Final Exam > Final Exam Review > Flashcards

Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the purposes of systematic analysis?

A
  • Most common: effectiveness of interventions
    ● Address the accuracy of diagnostic and measurement tools
    ● Identify prognostic or risk factors
    ● Develop recommendations for clinical practice guidelines
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2
Q

Which research analysis results provide a structured approach to examining data to inform practitioners in their
decisions to maintain, alter or discard methods of clinical practice and to researchers in designing further research

A

Systematic Reviews

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3
Q

What is a meta-analysis?

A

An extension of a systematic review that incorporates statistical pooling from clinical homogenous studies
○ Meta-analysis is a statistical method of combining the results of a series of independent, previously published studies carried out for the same general purpose

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4
Q

What are the major advantages of a meta-analysis?

A

■Increase power by increasing sample size
■ Improve estimates of effect size
■ Resolve uncertainty when collecting results occur
■ Improve the generalizability of findings

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5
Q

Which research analysis effects size from individual studies?

A

Meta-analysis

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6
Q

What is a pooled effect size in meta-analysis research?

a) A measure of the average sample size in a study
b) An index of the degree of difference between groups, weighted by sample size
c) The total combined effect of multiple interventions
d) A measure of statistical power in hypothesis testing

A

Correct Answer: b) An index of the degree of difference between groups, weighted by sample size

The larger the difference the greater the “effect” of the intervention.

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7
Q

What is the difference & similarity between systematic analysis & meta-analysis ?

A

A systematic review attempts to gather all available empirical research by using clearly defined, systematic methods to obtain answers to a specific question. A meta-analysis is the statistical process of analyzing and combining results from several similar studies.

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8
Q

What is PRISMA & what elements of the search don’t include?

A

PRISMA → Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analysis (PRISMA) is a 27-item checklist used to improve transparency in systematic reviews. These items cover all aspects of the manuscript, including title, abstract, introduction, methods, results, discussion, and funding.

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9
Q

What are the benefits of using PRISMA?

A

●Demonstrate quality of the review
● Allow readers to assess strengths and weaknesses
● Permits replication of review methods
● Structure and format the review using PRISMA headings

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10
Q

The following is an example of ___ flow diagram?

A

PRISMA Flow Diagram

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11
Q

What are the major elements of a “Search Strategy” for including studies in a systematic review?

A

Search strategy: to amass a comprehensive list of relevant references (needs updating every 3-5 years)
● Selection of online databases: most common: MEDLINE, EMBASE, SCOPUS, CINAHL, and the Cochrane Collaboration, hand search is also included
● Should have sensitivity to find all relevant references, although it will also retrieve some irrelevant studies
● Key search terms used
● Years of publication
● Language of publication

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12
Q

What is the level of evidence on the hierarchy of evidence?

A

Level 1=
○ Strongest evidence to establish Cause & Effect
Level 2=
○ Strong evidence to establish Cause & Effect
Level 3=
○ Varying strengths for establishing cause & effect
Level 4=
○ Very weak ability to establish cause & effect
Level 5=
○ Cannot establish cause & effect

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13
Q

What distinguishes strong evidence at Level 1 on the hierarchy of evidence?

a) Anecdotal evidence from individual case studies
b) Systematic review without random assignment or control group
c) Meta-analysis or systematic review with random assignment and control group
d) Evidence from qualitative research methods

A

Correct Answer: c) Meta-analysis or systematic review with random assignment and control group

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14
Q

What constitutes Level 1 evidence on the hierarchy of evidence?

a) Evidence from observational studies with large sample sizes

b) Evidence from expert opinions and case reports

c) Strong evidence from at least one systematic review of multiple well-designed randomized controlled trials

d) Evidence from single randomized controlled trials without systematic review

A

Correct Answer: c) Strong evidence from at least one systematic review of multiple well-designed randomized controlled trials

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15
Q

What characterizes Level 2 evidence on the hierarchy of evidence?

a) Evidence from non-randomized observational studies
b) Strong evidence from at least one properly designed randomized controlled trial of appropriate size
c) Evidence from single case reports or expert opinions
d) Evidence from qualitative research methods

A

Correct Answer: b) Strong evidence from at least one properly designed randomized controlled trial of appropriate size

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16
Q

What are the criteria for a properly designed randomized controlled trial (RCT) at Level 2 evidence?

a) Observational design with matched control groups

b) Random assignment, a control or comparison group, and at least 5 subjects per group

c) Random assignment, a control or comparison group, and at least 10 subjects per group

d) Cross-sectional design with a large sample size

A

Correct Answer: c) Random assignment, a control or comparison group, and at least 10 subjects per group

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17
Q

What characteristic may be present in Level 3 evidence studies?

a) Randomization and control groups

b) Large sample sizes with statistical power analysis

c) Prospective design without a time element

d) Lack of randomization, control/comparison group, or a time element in the study design

A

Correct Answer: d) Lack of randomization, control/comparison group, or a time element in the study design

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18
Q

A well designed quasi-experimental study can be almost as accurate as an RCT for showing causation while a pre-post cohort or straight cohort study design is much less strong. This statement reflects which level of evidence on the hierarchy of evidence?

A

Level 3

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19
Q

What distinguishes Level 4 evidence on the hierarchy of evidence?

a) Strong ability to establish cause and effect relationships
b) Lack of a time element and a focus on understanding associations between predictor and outcome variables
c) Inclusion of randomized controlled trials from multiple research sites
d) Emphasis on longitudinal study designs with repeated measures over time

A

Correct Answer: b) Lack of a time element and a focus on understanding associations between predictor and outcome variables

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20
Q

What is a common characteristic of studies categorized as Level 4 evidence?

a) Longitudinal study designs with multiple data collection points

b) Single-center studies with randomized controlled trials

c) Single data collection point for each subject recruited from multiple research sites

d) Case-control studies with retrospective designs

A

Correct Answer: c) Single data collection point for each subject recruited from multiple research sites

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21
Q

Which level of evidence is used to identify topics to look for stronger evidence to support them?

A

Level 5

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22
Q

The following MIGHT include well written level 5 evidence?

■ Case studies
■ Qualitative studies
■ Cross-sectional studies from single site
■ Opinion pieces
■ Anything that doesn’t fit levels I-IV
■ All of the above

A

■ All of the above

23
Q

What is Effect size typically used in Meta-analysis?

A

Effect size values (by Cohen d)
● 0.8 or higher = large effect size
● 0.5 to < 0.8 = medium effect size
● 0.2 to 0.5 = small effect size

24
Q

What is the purpose of Statistical Conclusion Validity ?

A

● Appropriate use of statistical procedure to assess the relationship between the independent and dependent variables

25
Q

Which of the following are potential threat to statistical conclusion validity?

a) Low statistical power (the right sample size)

b) Violated assumptions of statistical tests (e.g., normal distribution of variables)

c) Reliability and variance (homogeneity of subject group and reliability of measurement tools) – remember Levene’s test

d) Failure to use intention to treat analysis (missing data values)

e) All of the above

A

Correct Answer: All of the above

26
Q

What is Internal Validity?

A

Defined as the potential for confounding factors to interfere with the relationship between independent and dependent variables

27
Q

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of causality related to internal validity?

a) Temporal precedence (is it clear that cause came before the effect)

b) Covariation of Cause and Effect (change is only observable when the intervention is present)

c) No plausible alternative explanations (there is no other explanation to the results but the intervention)

d) Consistency of results across different studies

A

Correct Answer: d) Consistency of results across different studies

28
Q

Which of the following are threats to internal validity?

  • History
  • Maturation
  • Attrition
  • Testing
  • Instrumentation
  • Regression to the mean
  • Selection
  • Fieldity
A
  • History
  • Maturation
  • Attrition
  • Testing
  • Instrumentation
  • Regression to the mean
  • Selection
29
Q

Which threat to internal validity refers to the confounding effect of specific events, other than the experimental treatment, that occur after the introduction of the independent variable between a pretest and posttest?

a) History
b) Maturation
c) Attrition
d) Testing effects

A

Correct Answer: a) History

30
Q

What threat to internal validity involves the testing process influence the response?

a) Attrition
b) Instrumentation
c) Reactive effects
d) Regression to the mean

A

Correct Answer: c) Reactive effects

31
Q

What threat to internal validity involves the potential effect of pretesting or repeated testing on the dependent variable?

a) Attrition
b) Instrumentation
c) Testing effects
d) Regression to the mean

A

Correct Answer: c) Testing effects

32
Q

Which threat to internal validity occurs when subjects drop out of the experiment before it is completed?

a) Maturation
b) Attrition
c) Instrumentation
d) Selection

A

Correct Answer: b) Attrition

33
Q

What threat to internal validity involves the potential bias in the way subjects have been assigned to experimental groups?

a) Selection
b) History
c) Regression to the mean
d) Maturation

A

Correct Answer: a) Selection

34
Q

Which threat to internal validity refers to the potential for the dependent variable to change because of how it was measured. Observes can become more experienced and skilled at measurements between pretest and posttest

a) Regression to the mean
b) Instrumentation
c) Maturation
d) Attrition

A

Correct Answer: b) Instrumentation

35
Q

What are some social threats to internal validity?

A

○Diffusion or imitation: are subjects receiving interventions as intended?
○ Compensatory equalization: are researchers adhering the protocol for all
groups?
○ Compensatory rivalry or resentful demoralization: are subjects’ responses
influenced by their knowledge of other group treatments?

36
Q

Which method can help control threats to internal validity by history, maturation, selection, regression, testing, instrumentation, and selection interactions?

a) Random assignment and control groups
b) Blinding subjects and investigators
c) Using a crossover design
d) Increasing the sample size

A

Correct Answer: a) Random assignment and control groups

37
Q

What strategy can help mitigate threats to internal validity such as attrition, imitating treatments, or compensatory reactions?

a) Random assignment and control groups
b) Blinding subjects and investigators
c) Conducting a power analysis
d) Using a placebo control

A

Correct Answer: b) Blinding subjects and investigators

38
Q

What is construct validity?

A

measuring what you’re supposed to be measuring

39
Q

What is conceptualization of variables?

A

how variables are conceptualized & how well experimental results can be generalized within the desired clinical contex.

40
Q

Which threat to the conceptualization of variables involves defining how constructs are defined in a study?

a) Operations definitions
b) Comprehensive measurements
c) Subgroup differences
d) Time frame

A

Correct Answer: a) Operations definitions

41
Q

What term describes the phenomenon where participants may act differently to please a researcher or themselves if they know they are being observed?

a) Experimental bias

b) Hawthorne effect

c) Subgroup differences

d) Time frame

A

Correct Answer: b) Hawthorne effect

42
Q

Which threat to the conceptualization of variables involves the use of multiple forms of measurement?

a) Operations definitions
b) Comprehensive measurements
c) Multiple treatment interactions
d) Time frame

A

Correct Answer: b) Comprehensive measurements

43
Q

What term describes the phenomenon where the researcher’s expectations influence the behavior of subjects, leading to biased results?

a) Experimental bias

b) Operations definitions

c) Subgroup differences

d) Multiple treatment interactions

A

Correct Answer: a) Experimental bias

44
Q

Which threat to the conceptualization of variables refers to when the treatment components are combines, and the researcher is unable to generalize findings to situations where only a single treatment technique is used?

a) Subgroup differences

b) Time frame

c) Multiple treatment interactions

d) Experimental bias

A

Correct Answer: c) Multiple treatment interactions

45
Q

Which threat to external validity concerns the ability to generalize study findings to settings other than where the study was performed?

a) Influence of selection
b) Ecological validity
c) Influence of history
d) Influence of settings

A

Correct Answer: d) Influence of settings

46
Q

What term refers to the practicality of applying study findings to different cultural contexts, norms, and policies and relates to influence of settings

a) Ecological validity
b) Influence of selection
c) Influence of settings
d) Influence of history

A

Correct Answer: a) Ecological validity

47
Q

External validity is threatened when documented cause-and-effect relationships do not apply across subdivisions of the target population. This threat is known as:

a) Influence of history
b) Influence of settings
c) Influence of selection
d) Ecological validity

A

Correct Answer: c) Influence of selection

48
Q

Which aspect of external validity involves the challenge of generalizing study results to different periods of time, considering changes in regulations or products?

a) Influence of settings
b) Influence of selection
c) Ecological validity
d) Influence of history

A

Correct Answer: d) Influence of history

49
Q

What are strategies to Control for Subject Variability?

A

● Random assignment
● Homogeneous samples
● Blocking variables
● Matching
● Repeated measures (using subjects as their own control)
● Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)

50
Q

What does compliance refer to in a research context?

a) The willingness of participants to join the study
b) Following the researcher’s instructions and adhering to the study protocol
c) The accuracy of data collection methods
d) The effectiveness of the assigned treatment

A

Correct Answer: b) Following the researcher’s instructions and adhering to the study protocol

51
Q

What is a systematic review?

A

A form of research using a rigorous process of searching, appraising, and summarizing existing information on a selected topic.

52
Q

____ has a broader perspective on data gathering (than systematic reviews), intended to provide an overview of existing evidence and does NOT include methodological assessments.

A ) Meta-Analysis
B ) Scoping Reviews
C ) Evidence Maps

A

B ) Scoping Reviews

53
Q

True or False: Compliance in research includes the following…
* Getting the assigned treatment
* Being evaluated according to the protocol
* Adherence to protocol requirements

A

True

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