Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What date did pharmacy technicians become health care professionals in Alberta?

A

July 1, 2011

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2
Q

What is a bill?

A

A proposed act

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3
Q

What is a standard?

A

An accepted consensus of practice by members of a profession

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4
Q

What is a by-law?

A

A rule that enables the college to regulate the profession

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5
Q

What is a guideline?

A

College recommendations on how members can adhere to college policies and standards of practice; “Words to the Wise”

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6
Q

What is a policy?

A

The colleges interpretation of the laws and standards of the profession

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7
Q

What are protected titles in Alberta?

A
  • pharmacist
  • clinical pharmacist
  • pharmaceutical chemist
  • druggist
  • apothecary
  • registered pharmacist
  • PhC
  • Rph
  • pharmacy technician
  • pharmacy technologist
  • dispensary technician
  • dispensary technologist
  • pharm tech
  • PhT
  • RphT
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8
Q

Regulations Vs. Acts

A

-Regulations accompany the body of the act and provide interpretations of the procedures to be followed in carrying out the provisions of the act

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9
Q

Who are unrestricted prescribers?

A
  • Physicians/Surgeons
  • Dentist
  • Veterinarians
  • Podiatrists
  • Nurse practitioners
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10
Q

Who are restricted prescribers?

A
  • Midwives
  • Optometrists
  • Dental hygienists
  • Dieticians
  • Pharmacists
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11
Q

How does the excise pertain to pharmacy?

A

-The sale and storage of alcohol

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12
Q

What is a schedule?

A

A detailed list of specific items

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13
Q

What schedule contains a list of official books accepted as a set of standards?

A

Schedule B

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14
Q

Which regulation tells the manufacturers what information has to be on a label?

A

Food and Drug Regulations

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15
Q

What info must be on a manufacturers label?

A
  • brand name
  • generic name
  • strength
  • dosage form
  • amount of drug
  • manufacturers name and address
  • lot number and expiry date
  • dosage range approved for the drug
  • therapeutic classification
  • list of medicinal ingredients
  • DIN
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16
Q

What are the 4 different symbols on the label

A

Pr, C, N, T/C

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17
Q

What does Pr mean and where are the drugs listed?

A
  • Must have a prescription

- list is on the health canada website

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18
Q

What does C mean and where are the drugs listed?

A
  • Controlled drug

- Part G of the FDR

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19
Q

What does N mean and where are the drugs listed?

A
  • Narcotic drug

- listed in the schedule of the narcotic regulations

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20
Q

What does T/C mean and where are the drugs listed?

A
  • A benzodiazepine or other targeted substance

- listed in the benzodiazepine and other targeted substance regulations

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21
Q

Where is the symbol on the manufacturers label?

A

upper left quarter of the label

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22
Q

What regulations were created under the food and drug act?

A
  • Natural health product regulations

- Food and drug regulations

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23
Q

What is the natural health products directorate?

A

the regulating authority for natural health products for sale in canada

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24
Q

What does a natural health product require to be marketed in canada?

A

A product license

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25
Q

what type of number does a natural health product have to have?

A

a Natural Product Number (NPN)

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26
Q

What does DIN-HM stand for?

A

Drug Identification Number homeopathic Medicine

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27
Q

What is included in natural health products?

A
  • vitamins and minerals
  • herbal remedies
  • homeopathic medicines
  • probiotics
  • amino acids
  • essential fatty acids
  • traditional chinese medicines
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28
Q

How many days do you have to report lost or stolen narcotics?

A

10 days

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29
Q

5 criteria set out by Health Canada Act?

A
  • Comprehensiveness
  • Universality
  • Portability
  • Public administration
  • Accessibility
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30
Q

What kind of drugs are listed in schedule D of the food and drugs act?

A

Biological products

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31
Q

Who is a licensee?

A

The licensed clinical pharmacist that applies for a license to operate a pharmacy

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32
Q

Measurement defined in the food and drugs regulations?

A

1 teaspoon = 5 mL (cc)

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33
Q

Which part of the food and drug regulations pertain to drugs?

A

Part C

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34
Q

What part of the food and drug regulations pertain to vitamins and minerals?

A

Part D

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35
Q

What part of the food and drug regulations pertain to controlled drugs?

A

Part G

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36
Q

Where to find the list of drugs that require a prescription in canada?

A

The health canada website

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37
Q

Where do you find a list of drugs that may require a prescription in Alberta, but not in Canada?

A

The exemptions list on the ACP website

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38
Q

How are prescription drugs listed in canada?

A
  • Human use drugs

- Veterinary use drugs

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39
Q

How long are prescriptions valid in alberta?

A

1 year

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40
Q

What is the time limit for filling refills on prescription drugs?

A

May be refilled for 18 months past the date which the prescription was first filled

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41
Q

If the provincial and federal laws are different, which one must be followed?

A

The stricter one

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42
Q

How long is a triplicate/duplicate prescription valid in Alberta?

A

3 days or 72 hours

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43
Q

How long is a prescription for a benzodiazepine valid for?

A

only valid for 1 year from the date it was written

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44
Q

What is the time limit for refills on benzodiazepines?

A

Benzos can only be refilled up to 1 year from the date written

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45
Q

What does PIPEDA stand for?

A

Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act

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46
Q

What does ACP stand for?

A

Alberta College of Pharmacy

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47
Q

What does AHWDBL stand for?

A

Alberta Health and Wellness Drug Benefit List

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48
Q

What does CDSA stand for?

A

Controlled Drug and Substance Act

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49
Q

What does NAPRA stand for?

A

National Association for Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities

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50
Q

What is the purpose of NAPRA?

A
  • provides a platform to discuss issues and to take a national approach in addressing common issues in the practice of pharmacy in canada
  • Have also developed a list of competencies for pharmacy technicians
  • Also promote implementations of pharmacy practice standards across canada
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51
Q

How many schedules of drugs has NAPRA developed?

A

4 schedules

-1,2,3 and unscheduled

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52
Q

What are the NAPRA schedules based on?

A

the level of professional intervention and advice necessary

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53
Q

What is a schedule 1 drug?

A

A drug that requires a prescription

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54
Q

What is a schedule 2 drug?

A

Doesn’t necessarily need a prescription, but must be kept in the dispensary

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55
Q

What is a schedule 3 drug?

A

can be in the self selection of the pharmacy, but must be locked up when pharmacist isn’t available

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56
Q

What is an unscheduled drug?

A

can be sold anywhere

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57
Q

What division of health canada reviews drugs before they are marketed

A

The Therapeutic Products Directorate

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58
Q

What does the TPD look at before they will authorize a drug?

A

The drugs safety, efficacy, and quality

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59
Q

Once approved, what does a drug receive before it is marketed?

A

a DIN

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60
Q

What is the special access program?

A

a program which allows physicians to gain access to drugs that are not commercially available for use in canada

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61
Q

What kind of information can you find on the Health Canada Drug Product Database?

A
  • brand name
  • DIN
  • manufacturer
  • class
  • active ingredients
  • strength
  • routes of admin.
  • dosage forms
  • schedule
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62
Q

What is MedEffect?

A

provides patients, consumers, and health professionals resources for reporting and obtaining information about ADR’s

63
Q

What is Canada vigilance Program?

A

Health canadas post market surveillance program that collects and assesses reports of suspected adverse reactions

64
Q

What is ISMP?

A

the Institute for Safe Medication Practices is an independent national non-profit agency established for collection and analysis of medication error reports

65
Q

Who must have an establishment license in Canada?

A

all canadian drug establishments that fabricate, package, label, distribute, import, wholesale, or test a drug

66
Q

How many schedules are in the controlled drug and Substance act?

A

8

67
Q

which schedules from the controlled drug and substance act are used in pharmacy?

A

I, III, IV, V, VI

68
Q

Which schedules in the CDSA contain cannabis?

A

II, VII, VIII

69
Q

Which schedule in the CDSA contains Benzodiazepines?

A

Schedule IV

70
Q

Which schedule in the CDSA contains amphetamines?

A

Schedule III

71
Q

Which schedule in the CDSA contains morphine and fentanyl?

A

Schedule I

72
Q

What regulations were created under the CDSA?

A
  • Narcotic control regulations
  • Benzodiazepines and other targeted substances regulations
  • precursor control regulations
  • controlled drug and substances act
  • regulations and marijuana medical access regulations
73
Q

What types of substances are found in the precurser control regulations?

A

substances used to compound illicit substances (pseudoephedrine)

74
Q

Where do you find the schedule for controlled drugs?

A

Part G of the Food and Drug Regulations

75
Q

How many parts are there in part G of the Food and Drugs Regulations?

A

3 parts: part I, II and III

76
Q

Can drugs listed in part I of the schedule in part G of the FDR be refilled?

A

yes, if the prescription is written and intervals are specified. verbal prescriptions cannot be refilled

77
Q

Can drugs listed in part I, II, or III of the schedule in part G of the FDR be transferred

A

no transfers are allowed on any controlled drugs

78
Q

Can drugs listed in parts II or III of the schedule in part G of the FDR be refilled?

A

yes, including verbal prescriptions as long as intervals are specified

79
Q

3 classifications of narcotics

A
  • Straight narcotics (reportable)
  • narcotic preparations (verbal prescription)
  • exempt narcotics
80
Q

What is a reportable narcotic?

A

all single entity narcotic drugs or parenteral narcotic drugs or compounds that contain hydrocodone, oxycodone, methadone, or pentazocine

81
Q

What is a requirement for a drug to be considered a verbal prescription narcotic?

A
  • It must contain 2 or more other medical ingredients
  • It cant be used parenterally
  • It can’t contain hydrocodone, oxycodone, methadone, or pentazocine
82
Q

What makes a narcotic exempt or OTC?

A
  • Tablets contain 8mg or less
  • Liquids that contain 20mg/30mL of codeine
  • Must contain 2 other active medical ingredients
83
Q

What symbol will be on the manufacturers label for OTC narcotics?

A

N will be on bottles of Tylenol #1

84
Q

Can narcotics be refilled or transferred?

A

No, but part fills are allowed

85
Q

Can narcotics be ordered verbally from the wholesaler?

A

No for straight narcotics, yes for narcotic preparations

86
Q

What drugs need to be recorded in the narcotic registry when they are purchased?

A

all narcotic, controlled, and T/C drugs

87
Q

Can verbal prescription or narcotic preparations be ordered verbally from the wholesaler?

A

yes, but the receipt must be signed by the pharmacist and returned to the manufacturer within 5 days

88
Q

Can a pharmacist accept a verbal prescription for a targeted substance?

A

yes, but only if the person giving the order as a physician, dentist, or veterinarian

89
Q

Who can prescribe targeted substances?

A
  • medical doctors
  • dentists
  • podiatrists
  • nurse practitioners
  • veterinarians
90
Q

You may refill a prescription for a targeted substance if:

A
  • refills were specified on the original prescription
  • the prescription is less tan 1 year old
  • at least 1 refill remains on the prescription
  • intervals were specified between refills, the interval time has relapsed
91
Q

Can a prescription for a targeted substance be transferred?

A

yes, only if it has not been previously transferred. Only transferred once

92
Q

are targeted substances stored in the narcotic vault?

A

No, but they must be stored in an area where only authorized employees have access

93
Q

How long is a prescription for a narcotic or controlled drug valid?

A

12 months

94
Q

How long do patient records have to be retained?

A

10 years past the last date of pharmacy service provided or for 2 years past the age of majority of the patient

95
Q

How long to written prescriptions have to be kept for?

A

42 months

96
Q

What kinds of drugs require witness destruction?

A
  • N, C, and Benzodiazepines in retail

- N, C in institutional

97
Q

Are all community pharmacies required to have a private counselling area?

A

yes

98
Q

Do pharmacies have to have a special license to dispense methadone?

A

no, but physicians must have special authorization to prescribe methadone

99
Q

What does DWI stand for?

A

Daily Witness Ingestion

100
Q

What are take home doses of a medication assisted treatment such as methadone called?

A

Carries

101
Q

Can physicians fax triplicate prescriptions?

A

Yes as long as it is a fax of an original triplicate prescription form

102
Q

Can physicians write triplicates/duplicates on regular prescription pads?

A

in an emergency situation yes, but the physician must follow up with an original triplicate form

103
Q

Do pharmacies need to photocopy original triplicates and write in refill information when the original was only partially diepensed?

A

No, we enter it as a complete fill

104
Q

How do pharmacists handle triplicate prescriptions written by veterinarians

A

they are to treat TPPs from vets the same way as they would from any other TPP prescriber

105
Q

How is a part fill to be recorded on the triplicate prescription?

A

under quantity, enter the amount filled/total quantity.

Ex) 30 tablets being filled from a total of 90 would be 30/90

106
Q

How often are triplicates sent to the TPP center?

A

If the volume is high, daily. But weekly is acceptable

107
Q

If a palliative care patient cannot sign for a triplicate, who can?

A

An agent of the patient can, or a pharmacist cane with an explanation of circumstances

108
Q

If a triplicate is brought in but not filled right away, what should be printed on the triplicate form?

A

Enter the date it was received, and write “deferred”

109
Q

What happens to the 3 copies of a triplicate?

A

Copy 1: stays with physician
Copy 2: kept on file at the pharmacy
Copy 3: sent to CPSA (from vet office, yukon customers, for compounding purposes, for office use)

110
Q

How many drugs can be on one triplicate prescription?

A

Only 1, but multiple strengths can be on one

111
Q

Direct vs. Indirect supervision

A
  • Direct: pharmacist must be present and be able to observe and intervene if needed
  • Indirect: pharmacist must be readily available for consultation with the individual they are supervising
112
Q

Who can accept verbal prescriptions from a physician?

A

Pharmacists and Pharmacy technicians under direction of pharmacists

113
Q

Who can transfer a prescription to another pharmacy?

A

Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can transfer out, pharmacy assistants can transfer in

114
Q

Can a health food store call itself the green apothecary?

A

No. the word apothecary is a restricted title and can only be used by licensed pharmacies

115
Q

Can a pharmacy dispense a prescription from a doctor licensed outside of alberta, but within canada?

A

yes if the prescriber is authorized to write the prescription in their province of employment

116
Q

Can a pharmacy dispense a prescription from the US?

A

no

117
Q

Does the DIN have to be on all prescription labels?

A

the drug dosage form, strength and name must be, but not necessarily the DIN

118
Q

Does the DIN have to be on the manufacturers label?

A

Yes

119
Q

3 things that can be included in the advertisement for schedule 3 drugs?

A

name, price, quantity

120
Q

Does a pharmacy have to have a refrigerator?

A

yes

121
Q

What are sink requirements in a pharmacy?

A

Must have a sink with hot and cold running water

122
Q

What does non-maleficence mean?

A

to do no harm

123
Q

What does beneficence mean?

A

action done for the benefit of others

124
Q

What does justice mean?

A

fair and equal treatment for all

125
Q

What does veracity mean?

A

to be honest and tell the truth

126
Q

What does fidelity mean?

A

to be loyal

127
Q

What does altruism mean?

A

to practice unselfish concern fore the welfare of others

128
Q

What does autonomy mean?

A

to give all information so the patient can make their own choice

129
Q

What is a custodian?

A

an organization or individual in the health system that receives and uses information and is responsible for ensuring that it is protected, used, and disclosed properly

130
Q

What is an affiliate?

A

an individual employed by a custodian

131
Q

Disclosure vs. Use

A

Disclosure is the release of health information, consent usually required.
-Use means to apply health information for a purpose. does not include disclosure

132
Q

Can you give out patient information to other pharmacies?

A

yes, as long as it is necessary to provide health services to the patient

133
Q

Can you give out patient information to family members?

A

no, unless you have a signed consent release form from the patient

134
Q

Can you give out patient information to the police?

A

only if the info is used to prevent fraud or abuse of the health system or if there is imminent danger or harm to anyone’s health or safety. Or if there is a warrant or court order

135
Q

Who are in the “controlled arena” as it pertains to the HIA?

A
  • pharmacies and pharmacists
  • hospitals
  • nursing homes
  • other health care providers
136
Q

How long must records of disclosure be kept?

A

10 years

137
Q

How long must drug error reports be retained for?

A

10 years

138
Q

Who is responsible for handling complaints from patients?

A

ACP

139
Q

How many CEU’s will you have to complete every year as a registered pharmacy technician?

A

15

140
Q

3 parts of the code of ethics

A
  • serve patients
  • contribute to society
  • act as stewards of the profession
141
Q

How many principles are in the code of ethics?

A

12

142
Q

Principles in the code of ethics under Part 1: Patients

A
  • Principle 1: Hold the well-being of each patient to be my primary consideration
  • Principle 2: Respect each patient’s autonomy and dignity
  • Principle 3: Maintain a professional relationship with each patient
  • Principle 4: Respect each patient’s right to confidentiality
  • Principle 5: Respect each patient’s right to healthcare
143
Q

Principles in the code of ethics under Part 2: Society

A
  • Principle 6: Advance public health and prevent disease
  • Principle 7: Use health resources responsibly
  • Principle 8: Serve as an essential health resource
144
Q

Principles in the code of ethics under part 3: Profession

A
  • Principle 9: Ensure that I am competent
  • Principle 10: Act with honesty and integrity
  • Principle 11: : Demonstrate responsibility for self and other health professionals
  • Principle 12: Nurture the profession
145
Q

What is professional misconduct?

A

there does not have to be intent or motive. To be found guilty of a professional misconduct it is sufficient to break a standard of practice

146
Q

What references must be available at all times in a pharmacy?

A
  • federal and provincial legislation
  • CPS
  • drug interaction text
  • therapeutics text
  • foreign drug text
  • medical dictionary
  • OTC reference
  • natural health products text
147
Q

Role of ACP

A

To establish and maintain standards of operation of pharmacies, and qualifications of pharmacists and pharmacy technicians and to administer the acts and to protect the public

148
Q

What percentage of voting members are from the public?

A

25% (3 from public and 9 are clinical pharmacists and pharmacy technicians)

149
Q

What parts of the pharmacy are included in the prescription department?

A
  • Prescription department
  • Dispensary (schedule 1&2)
  • Patient services area (schedule 3)
  • Public area (unscheduled)
150
Q

Do institutional pharmacies require a license to operate?

A

no

151
Q

Can mail order pharmacies exist on their own?

A

no, they must operate under a community pharmacy license

152
Q

Can compounding and repackaging pharmacies exist on their own?

A

yes

153
Q

Difference between incapacity and incompetence?

A
  • Incapacity: when a person is suffering from an illness which affects his work
  • Incompetence: when a person displays lack of knowledge or skills