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Patient Care Final Exam > Final Exam Questions > Flashcards

Final Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the thumb placed in the modified pen grasp?

A

midway between the middle and index fingers on the opposite side of the handle

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2
Q

What are the types of grasps when dental assisting

A

modified-pen/pen grasp and palm thumb grasp

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3
Q

What things break down glove integrity

A

petroleum jelly/vaseline, alcohol based products (like hand sanitizer), washing with soap and water

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4
Q

What ASA classification is a patient with sever systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

A

ASA IV

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5
Q

the dental assistants chair should be positioned how heigh in comparison to the operator

A

4-6 in higher

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6
Q

Identify the condition that causes this to happen to the hands (a photo of the hand where it looks like it is sprinkling salt)

A

hyperventilation

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7
Q

carpal spasm (picture) is what?

A

hyperventilation

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8
Q

what is syncope

A

a transient loss of consciousness due to hypoperfusion of the brain

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9
Q

how is syncope characterized

A

by RAPID onset and SPONTANEOUS resolution

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10
Q

what are signs of syncope

A

pallor, nausea, sweating, bradycardia, and rapid fall in blood pressure

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11
Q

syncope is usually evoked by

A

by emotional stress associated with fear or pain

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12
Q

how long does complete recovery from syncope take

A

24 hrs

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13
Q

late syncope manifestations

A

yawning, difficulty breathing, pupillary dilation, cold hands and feet, dizziness, loss of consciousness, hypotension, bradycardia

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14
Q

what is the most common cause of syncope

A

vasovagal syncope

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15
Q

what arteries can you find the pulse with

A

brachial, radial, carotid

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16
Q

what is a common cause of syncope

A

orthostatic hypotension

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17
Q

Beating first heard (systolic) and beating stops (diastolic)

A

Korotkoff sound

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18
Q

what is the correct order of donning

A

gown, mask, glasses, gloves

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18
Q

In what region would you take blood pressure?

A

Antecubital fossa

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19
Q

what is the correct order of doffing

A

gloves, gown, glasses, mask

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20
Q

what are disadvantages of using chemical vapor as your sterilization method

A

-Adequate ventilation is needed; cannot use in a small room.
-Slight odor, which is rarely objectionable

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21
Q

“Reusable” impression trays would have what Spaulding classification?

A

semi-critical

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22
Q

what is the main cause of musculoskeletal disorders in dentistry

A

Cumulative Trauma Disorders (CTDs)

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23
Q

what is theorized to be the primary cause of disability among dentists and best describes how injury develop in dentistry

A

CTDs

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24
Q

What are the most common CTDs

A

chronic low back pain, tension neck syndrome, trapezius myalgia, rotator cuff impingement, carpal tunnel syndrome

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25
Q

what are contributing factors for work-related MSDs

A

routine exposure to:
Forceful hand exertions
Repetitive movements
Fixed or awkward postures
Vibrating tools

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26
Q

what are Dental Ergonomic Equipment

A

Operator stools
Patient chairs
Magnification/Loupes
Lighting systems

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27
Q

what are the three Ps to fitness in the operatory

A

posture, positioning, periodic stretching

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28
Q

what levels of disinfectants do we use at UMKC

A

intermediate level disinfectants and surface disinfectants

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29
Q

what type of infection is not found in the mouth

A

parasitic

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30
Q

what are the three types of sterilization

A

heat, filtration, radiation

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31
Q

what is the most common form of sterilization

A

heat

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32
Q

In healthcare facilities, sterilization is carried out by what 2 methods?

A

physical and chemical

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33
Q

what is not intended to be used as a sole or primary method of sterilization

A

flash sterilization

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33
Q

what are the primary sterilizing methods

A

steam under pressure and dry heat

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34
Q

what is the chain of infection

A

a source or reservoir
a susceptible host
a mode of transmission

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35
Q

factors that can influence a persons level of susceptibility

A

age, physical conditions,
medications, underlying medical conditions, and
immunizations

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36
Q

what are aerosols

A

liquid or solid particles less than 50
micrometers in diameter

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37
Q

what are the vital signs

A

temperature, pulse, respirations, blood pressure

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38
Q

if temperature is taken incorrectly will it read lower or higher

A

lower

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39
Q

What is the most amount of pressure in the heart?

A

systolic

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40
Q

Incubation stage of infection

A

the time between exposure to a pathogenic organism, and when signs and symptoms are first apparent

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41
Q

Prodromal stage of infection

A

he period between the appearance of initial symptoms and the full development. Early signs and symptoms of a disease appear but not yet clinically specific or severe

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42
Q

Acute or Period of Illness stage of infection

A

the signs and symptoms of the disease are most
obvious, specific and severe

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43
Q

Convalescent or Decline stage of infection

A

number of pathogens begin to decrease, and the signs and symptoms of illness decline. However, during this period, patients may become susceptible to developing secondary infections because their immune systems have been weakened by the primary infection.

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44
Q

Primary way to remove microbes before sterilization?

A

sanitation

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45
Q

a mirror would be what Spaulding classification

A

semi-critical

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46
Q

an explorer would be what Spaulding classification

A

critical

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47
Q

what are universal precautions

A

all blood and body fluids contaminated with blood were to be treated as infectious

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48
Q

what are standard precautions

A

apply not only to contact with blood and body fluids contaminated with blood, but to contact with all other
potentially infectious materials regardless of suspected or confirmed presence of an infectious agent.

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49
Q

what is administrative control and give an example

A

The policies, procedures, and enforcement measures targeted at reducing the risk of occupational exposure to infectious persons

Ex: postponing non-emergency treatment of patients suspected of having active COVID

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50
Q

what are examples of OSHA regulated waste

A
  • Blood or other potentially infectious material (OPIM) in liquid or semi-liquid state
  • Items caked w/ dried blood or OPIM that may release it
  • Contaminated sharps
  • Pathological /microbiologic waste w/ blood or OPIM
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51
Q

One hand method of recapping needles and replacing sharps container is an example of

A

Work-Practice

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52
Q

what are pros to dry heat sterilization

A

-Doesn’t dull cutting edges
-doesnt cause rust

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53
Q

what are cons to dry heat sterilization

A

-poor penetration
-handpieces won’t tolerate
-long wait time

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54
Q

What is the principal agent for heat-sensitive instruments used for sterilization?

A

Germicides

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55
Q

what is regulated waste at UMKC

A

solid waste that is soaked or saturated with blood or saliva

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56
Q

how often should spore testing be done

A

weekly

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57
Q

why is it good practice to change the location of the spore test each week

A

to help identify any “cold spots” in the sterilizer

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58
Q

ASA IV

A

A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. Recent (less than 3 months) MI (myocardial infarction) heart attack, TIA
( transient ischemic attack) “mini stroke”

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59
Q

ASA V

A

A moribund patient who is not expected to survive 24 hours without an operation

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60
Q

if the blood pressure cuff is too tight

A

the reading will be elevated

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61
Q

if the blood pressure cuff is too loose

A

the reading will be lower

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62
Q

splash and splatter

A

mixture of air, water, and/or solid substances larger than 50 micrometers in diameter and are visible to the naked eye

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63
Q

aerosols

A

liquid or solid particles less than 50 micrometers in diameter.

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64
Q

droplets

A

are airborne particles of moisture greater than 5-
unit microns that may contain potentially infectious pathogens and is generally limited to within 3 feet of the
source

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65
Q

When taking a periapical radiograph, which anatomical features should you capture?

A

a. Crown
b. Root of tooth (including the apex)
c. Surrounding bone

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66
Q

When taking a bitewing radiograph, what anatomical features should be captured?

A

a. Crown
b. Alveolar bone support
d. Interproximal contacts

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67
Q

The number one reason people avoid the dentist is?

A

fear

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68
Q

The strongest predictor of dental anxiety is _______, while the weakest predictor is ______.

A

b. Attitude towards dentists; annual income

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69
Q

What is the proper sequence for reducing anxiety in children in a dental setting?

A

Tell-show-do

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70
Q

What are ways to reduce anxiety in patients?

A

Use N2O2 or oral sedatives
Schedule AM appointments

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71
Q

Which is not a MAJOR risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

A

Stress

72
Q

Dyspnea is usually due to…

A

COPH and asthma

73
Q

The most common cause of congestive heart failure is…

A

Coronary heart disease

74
Q

Adrenal insufficiency symptoms include

A

a. Tiredness
b. Weakness
c. Poor healing

75
Q

A child who has asthma attacks 3-5 times/week that last for 30 minutes to several hours has…

A

Moderate asthma

76
Q

Those with asthma should avoid…

A

a. Aspirin
b. Naproxen

77
Q

Type I diabetes is _____ common than type II diabetes and is considered insulin _______.

A

a. Less; dependent

78
Q

Type I diabetes usually involves childhood onset whereas Type II diabetes typically develops in adulthood.

A

True

79
Q

Hyperthyroidism symptoms…

A

a. Thin
b. Hand tremor
c. Tachycardia
d. Exopthalmos

80
Q

Hypothyroidism symptoms include all except…

A

Hypotension

81
Q

Symptoms indicative of leukemia include…

A

Abnormal WBC count

82
Q

Cushing’s disease is a result of ______ steroid levels and Addison’s disease is a result of _____ steroid levels.

A

High; low

83
Q

Which of the following is characterized by a butterfly-shaped erythematous rash and polyarthritis?

A

SLE

84
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Extrinsic asthma?

A

Can be induced by psychological and physiological stress

85
Q

What is NOT an example of an autoimmune disease?

A

Type 2 diabetes

86
Q

what are examples autoimmune diseases

A

Rheumatoid arthritis
Hyperthyroidism
Sjorgen’s syndrome

87
Q

What is a healthy INR score range for those patients on blood thinners?

A

2-3

88
Q

Select the 2 choices that are characterized by an enlargement of their parotid glands

A

Excess alcohol use
Sjorgen syndrome

89
Q

A1c measures which of the following?

A

Average blood sugar over the past 2-3 months

90
Q

This is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways characterized by REVERSIBLE episodes of increased airway hyperresponsiveness

A

asthma

91
Q

(T/F) You need to get the medical history of all patients, even if they appear healthy

A

true

92
Q

What is the “Triad” in triad asthmatics?

A

a. Asthma
b. Nasal polyps that recur
c. Sensitivity to aspirin and NSAIDs

93
Q

Are you hypo or hyperglycemic in diabetes mellitus?

A

Hyperglycemic

94
Q

What type of diabetes is insulin-dependent?

A

Type 1 diabetes

95
Q

What type of diabetes have an abrupt onset?

A

Type 1

96
Q

What type of diabetes have a slow onset?

A

Type 2

97
Q

What kind of respiration patterns do you get in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Kussmaul’s respiration

98
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis is rare in people with what type of diabetes?

A

Type 2

99
Q

Do you get “fruity-smelling breath” and “Kussmaul’s breathing” in hyper or hypo-glycemia?

A

Hyperglycemia

100
Q

Mood swings, tachycardia, lethargy, and nausea are symptoms of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia?

A

Hypoglycemia

101
Q

If you fast (8-12 hours), your glucose level will be

A

80-130 mg/dL

102
Q

Hyperglycemia and periodontitis are

A

Bidirectional

103
Q

For an allergic reaction to occur, the patient must have been previously exposed to the

A

Antigen

104
Q

What is the single most modifiable risk for cardiovascular disease?

A

smoking

105
Q

What happens in orthopnea?

A

Difficulty breathing when lying down

106
Q

What is a leading cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with diabetes?

A

Coronary heart disease

107
Q

Not a side effect of nitroglycerine

A

pallor

108
Q

When can you have elective dental treatment after MI?

A

2 months after

109
Q

three times a week

A

tid

110
Q

What can you give asthmatics:

A

Valium, O2, NO2, epi

111
Q

What 3 things can chest pain cause?

A

Angna pectoris
Hyperventiliation
c. Acute M.I

112
Q

What is the most common thing chest pain causes?

A

angna pectoris

113
Q

Can stable or unstable angina pectoris be relieved with the use of nitroglycerin?

A

Stable angina

114
Q

Side effects of nitroglcyerin?

A

Headache
Tachycardia
Flushing
d. Hypotension

115
Q

Is COPD fully reversible?

A

no

116
Q

COPD encompasses what 2 main diseases?

A

Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema

117
Q

Is rheumatic fever an autoimmune disease or not?

A

Autoimmune disease

118
Q

What are some signs of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Orthostatic hypotension
Tired-fatigues
Weak
Inability to tolerate stress
Increased infections

119
Q

This refers to a condition caused by excessive cortisol in the body

A

Cushings syndrome

120
Q

What are some examples of when you have steroid use?

A

Lupus
Rheumatoid arthritis
Asthma
Psoriasis

121
Q

What are the clinical features of cushings syndrome/disease?

A

Weight gain in the midsection, face, shoulders
Face = moon face
Shoulders = buffalo hump

122
Q

What are the prominent features of alcohol abuse?

A

Enlargement of the parotid glands and spider angiomas

123
Q

What are the symptoms of anemia?

A

a. Pallor
b. Fatigue
c. Low blood pressure
d. SOB
e. Rapid heart rate

124
Q

Oral signs of anemia are?

A

Smooth, burning red tongue
Bleeding gums

125
Q

What happen to amalgam restorations in bulimia nervosa?

A

Higher than surround enamel

126
Q

This test is used to detect bleeding disorders or excessive clotting disorders

A

Prothrombin time

127
Q

You use this ratio if you are on blood thinning medications

A

INR

128
Q

Typical INR score range for patient on blood thinner is

A

INR

129
Q

Is osteoarthritis an autoimmune disease?

A

no

130
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia is stimulated by what?

A

Physical stimulus

131
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia may disappear

A

Sporadically

132
Q

What is the ability to cause infection and damage?

A

Virulence

133
Q

What classification would an Amalgam condenser be?

A

Semi-critical

134
Q

What type of control would be “recapping a needle”?

A

Work-practice control

135
Q

What is the advantage of using chemical sterilization?

A

shorter cycle

136
Q

What is the most common reason a sterilizer would fail a spore test?

A

sterilizer is overloaded

137
Q

Which of the following means “heat”?

A

calor

138
Q

what is the maximum pressure the heart exerts while beating?

A

systolic

139
Q

What beats are heard while taking blood pressure?

A

Korotokoff sounds

140
Q

What would occur if the blood pressure cuff is too big?

A

Turbulence in the reading
False, low reading

141
Q

What group of individuals has the highest rate of hypertension?

A

Non-Hispanic blacks

142
Q

Which of the following blood pressures would fall in Stage 2?

A

141/92

143
Q

All of the following in NOT one of the 3 P’s of ergonomics

A

Perfection

144
Q

What is the name of the position where an individual lays supine with a 15-30 degree foot elevation?

A

Trendelenburg position

145
Q

An individual has a Severe systemic disease that is limiting movement

A

ASA III

146
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety?

A

Constricted pupils

147
Q

Where is the transfer zone located?

A

In front of the mouth at the chin level

148
Q

What are the first 2 instruments used at the beginning of each procedure?

A

mirror and explorer

149
Q

Picture of Carpal-pedal spasm. What is this?

A

Hyperventilation

149
Q

After women no longer have gestational diabetes and their glycemic index has returned to a normal level, they will not have a risk at getting diabetes.

A

false

150
Q

An individual is having an asthma attack and you have attempted to administer the bronchodilator 3 times and were unsuccessful. What should you use next?

A

epinephrine

151
Q

What stage of insulin shock is characterized by being incoherent and belligerent?

A

moderate stage

151
Q

All of the following are symptoms of Hyperglycemia

A

Polyuria
Polydipsia
Polyphagia

151
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major risk factor for Cardiovascular disease?

A

stress

152
Q

If you have diabetes, what HbA1C levels should you ideally have?

A

Below 6.5%

153
Q

Select which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of Congestive heart failure

A

hypotension

154
Q

How should you administer Nitroglycerin?

A

sublingually

155
Q

What kind of oxygen is used in COPD?

A

low flow oxygen

156
Q

Which of the following disease do you experience “Weight-loss”?

A

adrenal insufficiency

156
Q

In which of the following do you see Cyanosis?

A

chronic bronchitis

157
Q

Which of the following is not a symptom of anemia?

A

…

158
Q

Which of the following is not a symptom of Anorexia?

A

tachycardia

159
Q

Which of the following is the most common childhood disease?

A

asthma
(caries was not an option for us, but if it is, that is the answer)

160
Q

Which of the following statements would most accurately describe “Biofilm”?

A

A complex matrix of microorganisms and organic something

161
Q

Enamel demineralizes at what pH level?

A

5.5 pH

162
Q

What is characterized by fruity-smelling breath and Kussmaul’s respirations?

A

Hyperglycemia

163
Q

Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of heart disease?

A

Tremor

164
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sign of Anemia?

A

…

165
Q

Which of the following is NOT related to pitting edema?

A

Cerebrovascular disease

166
Q

In which of the following do you get a rapid fall in blood pressure?

A

Syncope
Orthostatic hypertension

167
Q

What is the best way to prevent an incident with a patient?

A

Know all their vitals

168
Q

What is the best way to diagnose caries

A

eyes

169
Q

what pH does enamel demineralize at

A

5.5

170
Q

what pH does cementum and dentin demineralize at

A

6.6

171
Q

what is a biofilm

A

an aggregation of microorganisms adhering to each other in a matrix

172
Q

what is the pH of a normal oral cavity

A

6.7-7.3

173
Q

_________ of sugar consumption is more important than _________ of sugar

A

frequency; quantity

174
Q

What is the most frequent mode of transmission for bacteria in a dental office

A

aerosol droplets

Patient Care Final Exam (1 decks)

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