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OB - Napier > final exam pt 2 > Flashcards

final exam pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

which hormone is crucial for maturing of the egg follicle?

A

estrogen

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2
Q

which hormone thickens the endometrium to prepare for zygote implantation and relaxes uterus to maintain pregnancy?

A

relaxes uterus

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3
Q

what are responsible for release of egg in ovulation, increasing labor contractions and opening the cervix for birth?

A

prostaglandins

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4
Q

what hormone decreases to trigger the period?

A

progesterone

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5
Q

when does length of pregnancy calculation start?

A

1st day of last menstrual period

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6
Q

what type of signs are amenorrhea, fatigue, n/v, breast changes, quickening and urinary frequency?

A

presumptive

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7
Q

what type of signs are Hegars, Chadwick’s, Goodells and positive pregnancy test?

A

probable signs

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8
Q

what are the positive signs of pregnancy?

A
  • fetal heart sounds
  • visualization of fetus on ultrasound
  • fetal movement palpated by examiner
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9
Q

what are the functions of the placenta?

A
  • transfers nutrients
  • removes waste
  • produces hormones (hCG)
  • transfers IgG
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10
Q

what is the anatomy of the umbilical cord?

A

2 arteries, 1 vein with whartons jelly in between

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11
Q

what causes supine hypotension?

A

uterus compresses the vena cava when client lies on their back

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12
Q

what intervention should be taken for supine hypotension?

A

lie patient on side or semi sitting with knees slightly flexed

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13
Q

what interventions should be taken for n/v during pregnancy?

A
  • crackers at bedside
  • avoid empty stomach
  • avoid spicy/greasy
  • drink fluids
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14
Q

what is chloasma?

A

increase in pigmentation of the face during pregnancy

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15
Q

what is linea nigra?

A

dark line from umbilicus to pubic area during pregnancy

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16
Q

what is striae gravidarum?

A

stretch marks usually on thighs and abdomen

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17
Q

how early can fetal movements begin to be felt?

A

16 weeks

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18
Q

what is nulligravida?

A

never been pregnant

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19
Q

what is primigravida?

A

first pregnancy

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20
Q

what is multigravida?

A

two or more pregnancies

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21
Q

what is considered a term birth?

A

37 weeks or more

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22
Q

what is considered preterm birth?

A

22 -37 weeks

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23
Q

how is nageles rule performed?

A
  • first day of LMP, minus 3 months, add 7 days and a year
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24
Q

what should client do prior to amniocentesis to reduce risk of bladder punction?

A

amniocentesis

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25
Q

what are the 5 components of the BPP?

A
  • FHR
  • breathing
  • body movements
  • fetal tone
  • amniotic fluid index
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26
Q

what should the mom do when they feel movement during a NST?

A

push the button

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27
Q

what testing can the nurse expect if the non stress test is non reactive?

A

BPP

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28
Q

when will cervical cerclage be removed?

A

37-39 weeks

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29
Q

what are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancies?

A
  • STIs
  • IUD
  • tubal surgery
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30
Q

where may referred pain be felt for ectopic pregnancies?

A

shoulder pain

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31
Q

what medication may be given to terminate an ectopic pregnancy if rupture has not occurred?

A

methotrexate

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32
Q

which procedure salvages the tube for ectopic pregnancy?

A

salpingostomy

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33
Q

which procedure is used to surgically removes the tube when ectopic pregnancy pregnancy has ruptured?

A

laparoscopic salpingectomy

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34
Q

what is HELLP syndrome?

A
  • hemolysis
  • elevated liver enzymes
  • low platelets
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35
Q

what are manifestations r/t HELLP syndrome?

A
  • anemia and jaundice (hemolysis)
  • AST, ALT, N/V, epigastric pain (liver damage
  • bleeding/thrombocytopenia (low platelets)
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36
Q

what med is used for eclampsia to prevent seizures?

A

magnesium sulfate

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37
Q

what are the s/s of mag toxicity?

A
  • absent patellar DTRs
  • UOP < 30 ml/h
  • RR <12
  • decreased LOC
  • cardiac dysrhythmias
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38
Q

what intervention must the nurse perform if mag toxicity is suspected?

A
  • stop the infusion
  • admin calcium gluconate
39
Q

what type of abortion will likely have malodorous discharge?

A

septic

40
Q

what is required for it to be a complete abortion?

A

full passing of tissue

41
Q

what are some nursing actions for abortion?

A
  • bed rest
  • conduct pregnancy test
  • use lay term “miscarriage”
  • emotional support
  • refer to support groups
42
Q

which calcium channel blocker may be given to reduce contractions?

A

nifedipine

43
Q

what dilation occurs in latent phase of stage 1?

A

0-3 cm

44
Q

what dilation occurs in active phase of stage 1?

A

4-7cm

45
Q

what dilation occurs in the transition phase of stage 1?

A

8-10 cm

46
Q

what stage is baby born?

A

2nd

47
Q

what stage is placenta delivered?

A

3rd

48
Q

which stage does recovery occur in?

A

4th

49
Q

what is dilation?

A

opening of the cervix

50
Q

what is effacement?

A

shortening and thinning of the cervix in prep for child birth

51
Q

what is fetal station?

A

relationship of the fetus to the mothers pelvis (ischial spine)

52
Q

what is 0 station?

A

fetus in line with ischial spine

53
Q

what may relieve contractions in false labor?

A

walking/changing positions

54
Q

what are some characteristics of true labor?

A
  • walking increases contraction intensity
  • dilation
  • bloody show
55
Q

what is likely cause for variable decels?

A

cord compression

56
Q

what is likely cause for late decels?

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

57
Q

what is the intervention for variable decels?

A

maternal reposition

58
Q

what is the intervention for for late decels?

A
  • reposition
  • oxygen
59
Q

what FHR variability level is desired?

A

moderate

60
Q

how far dilation is required for epidural?

A

4 cm

61
Q

what can be administered prior to epidural to reduce hypotension?

A

fluid bolus

62
Q

what is the external palpation of fetus to determine presentation of the fetal part?

A

Leopold maneuver

63
Q

what score is used to determine maternal readiness for labor by evaluating whether the cervix is favorable?

A

bishop score

64
Q

what bishop score would indicate would be indicative of successful induction?

A

8

65
Q

what is a common symptom r/t occiput posterior presentation?

A

prolonged labor and great back pain

66
Q

what is the desired fundal consistency after birth?

A

firm

67
Q

what is involution?

A

uterus returns to previous states

67
Q

what lochia color is expected 1-3 days after delivery?

A

rubra

67
Q

what is subinvolution?

A

uterus does not return to previous state

68
Q

what lochia color is expected 4-10 days after delivery?

A

serosa

69
Q

what lochia color is expected 10-8 weeks postpartum?

A

10 days - 8 weeks

70
Q

how would you document dark red lochia?

A

dark red color

71
Q

how would you document pinkish brown lochia?

A

serosa

72
Q

how would you document yellow, white lochia?

A

alba

73
Q

what psych evaluation questions should the nurse ask prior to discharge for the mother?

A

presence of SI and HI

74
Q

what amount of blood loss is considered a PPH with vaginal delivery?

A

500 mL

75
Q

what blood loss is considered PPH with c-section?

A

1000 mL

76
Q

what priority nonpharm action can the nurse take to prevent PPH?

A

massage the fundus

77
Q

when is methergine contraindicated?

A

HTN

78
Q

when is carboprost (hemabate) contraindicated?

A

asthma

79
Q

what is the SGA classification?

A

<10th %

80
Q

what is the LGA classification?

A

> 90th %

81
Q

what is normal birth weight range?

A

5.5 lb - 8.8 lb

82
Q

what is normal resp pattern for newborn?

A

30 -60, apnea < 15 sec

83
Q

what is a normal newborn HR?

A

110 - 160

84
Q

when should the apgars be performed?

A

1 and 5 min after delivery

85
Q

what are the white spots on babys nose?

A

milia

86
Q

what is the first milk produced called?

A

colostrum

87
Q

what is known as the heat loss from the baby to the cooler room air (fans)?

A

convection

88
Q

what is known as loss of heat from body to cooler solid surface in close proximity, without direct contact (exam tables)?

A

radiation

89
Q

what is known as loss of heat when liquid vaporizes?

A

evaporation

90
Q

what is known as the loss of heat from body in direct contact to cooler surface?

A

conduction

91
Q

what complication may occur when the mother is type O and fetus is anything else?

A

pathological jaundice

92
Q

what medications are commonly administered for the management of RDS?

A

surfactant

OB - Napier (7 decks)

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