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Psych104 > Final Exam Prep > Flashcards

Final Exam Prep Flashcards

1
Q

What is psychology?

A

Scientific study of the mind, brain, and behaviour

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2
Q

What are the levels of analysis?

A

Biological, psychological, social culture influences

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3
Q

What does the biological level of analysis involve?

A

Study of molecular or neurochemical and involves molecules and brain structure

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4
Q

What is the psychological level of analysis and what does it involve?

A

Mental or neurological; involves thoughts, feelings, and emotions

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5
Q

What is the social culture influences level of analysis and what does it involve?

A

Social or behavioral; involves relating to others and personal relationships

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6
Q

Why do interrelated factors make human behaviors difficult to predict?

A

These make it difficult to determine which factor contributes to the behavior as they could all be playing a role

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7
Q

What are individual differences and why do they make psychology difficult?

A
  • People differ in their thinking, emotion, personality, and behavior
  • Makes it different to explain behaviors that apply to everyone
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8
Q

What is reciprocal determination and why does it make psychology difficult?

A
  • We mutually influence each other’s behavior

* Makes it challenging to isolate the causes of human behavior

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9
Q

Why do cultural differences make psychology difficult?

A

Place limits on generalizations that can be drawn about human nature

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10
Q

What is the emic approach?

A

Study the behavior of a culture from the perspective of a “native” or insider

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11
Q

What is the etic approach?

A

Study the behavior of a culture from the perspective of an outsider

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12
Q

What is structuralism?

A

The elements of the mind.

Aimed to identify basic elements of psychological experience (much like a periodic table) using introspection

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13
Q

Who was the leading figure in structuralism?

A

Edward Bradford Titchener (student of Wundt)

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14
Q

Why didn’t structuralism work?

A

Subjective reports and others have imageless thought, the ability to solve problems without a conscious experience

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15
Q

What did we learn from Structuralism?

A
  • Need more than a single method for a complete science

* Importance of systematic observation needed to study conscious experience

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16
Q

What is functionalism?

A

Psychology meets Darwin.
• Aimed to understand the adaptive purposes of psychological characteristics, such as thoughts, feelings, and behaviours
• Believed we evolved these traits to increase changes of survival and reproduction

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17
Q

Who was the leading figure of functionalism?

A

William James, influenced by Charles Darwin

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18
Q

What did we learn from functionalism?

A

Gradually absorbed into mainstream psychology and continues to indirectly influence the science

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19
Q

What is behaviorism?

A

The laws of learning.
• Uncover the general principles of learning that explain all behaviours
• Focus is largely on observable behaviour
• Looked at rewards and punishments given by the environment
• Sometimes called black box psychology because they believed that we know the input and output from the mind, but didn’t worry about what happens between the two

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20
Q

Who were the leading figures in behaviorism?

A

John B Watson and B. F. Skinner

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21
Q

Why didn’t behaviourism work?

A

The neglect of cognition bothered many psychologists

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22
Q

What did we learn from behaviourism?

A
  • One of the first to focus on need for objective research

* Influential in models of human and animal learning

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23
Q

What is cognitivism?

A
  • Thinking is central to understanding behaviour
  • Examines the role of mental processes on behaviour
  • Believed only looking at rewards and punishments isn’t accurate because the interpretation of them are central to our behaviour
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24
Q

Who were the leading figures of cognitivism?

A

Jean Piaget and Ulric Neisser

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25
Q

What did we learn from cognitivism?

A
  • Still widely used today to get insight on a persons behaviours
  • Cognitive neuroscience is a new field examining the relationship between brain functioning and emotion which will add biological processes to thoughts and feelings
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26
Q

What type of thought called the mind the black box?

A

Behaviourism

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27
Q

What type of thought was considered opening the black box?

A

Cognitivism

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28
Q

What is psychoanalysis?

A
  • Uncover role of unconscious psychological processes and early life experiences in behaviour
  • Believed primary influences are not rewards and punishments but rather unconscious drives, especially sexuality and aggression
  • Believed in the significance of symbols and “Freudian slips”
  • Believed core personalities is moulded in the first few years of life
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29
Q

Who was the leading figure of psychoanalysis?

A

Sigmund Freud

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30
Q

Why didn’t psychoanalysis work?

A

Many believe it slowed the progress of psychology as a science

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31
Q

What did we learn from psychoanalysis?

A

Much of our mental process goes on outside of conscious awareness

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32
Q

What is evolutionary psychology?

A
  • Applies Darwin’s theory of natural selection to human and animal behaviour
  • Unable to be proven false though
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33
Q

What is determinism?

A
  • The theory that free will is an illusion
  • We are not consciously aware of thousands of subtle environmental influences
  • Our behaviours are completely determined, caused by preceding influences
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34
Q

What is naïve realism?

A
  • Belief that we see the world precisely as it is
  • We assume “seeing is believing”
  • We often have our own bias that interferes
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35
Q

What is a scientific theory?

A
  • Explanation for many findings in the natural world

* Ties multiple findings together into one package

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36
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

A testable prediction derived from a scientific theory

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37
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A
  • Tendency to seek out evidence that supports our hypothesis and deny, dismiss, or distort evidence that contradicts them
  • “You’ll see what you are looking for”
  • Biggest bias and we need to strive to contradict it
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38
Q

What is belief perserverance?

A
  • Tendency to stick to our initial beliefs even when evidence contradicts them
  • None of us want to believe we are wrong
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39
Q

What are metaphysical claims?

A
  • Assertion about the world that is not testable
  • Include existence of God, soul, afterlife etc.
  • Cannot be tested using scientific methods
  • Doesn’t mean they are wrong or unimportant, they just do not fall in the province of science as they are not testable
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40
Q

What is pseudoscience?

A
  • Set of claims that seems scientific but isn’t

* Lacks the safeguards against confirmation bias and belief perseverance that characterizes science

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41
Q

What does overuse of ad hoc immunizing hypothesis mean?

A

o Escape hatch or loophole that defenders of a theory use to protect the theory from being disproven
o Makes claims essentially impossible to test

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42
Q

What are the warning signs of pseudoscience?

A
  • Overuse of ad hoc immunizing hypothesis
  • Lack of self correction
  • Overreliance of anecdotes
  • Exaggerated claims
  • Absence of connectivity to other research
  • Lack of independent reviews
  • Meaningless psychobabble
  • Talk of proof, not evidence
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43
Q

What is patternicity?

A

Tendency to detect meaningful patterns in random stimuli

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44
Q

What is the terror management theory?

A

Proposes our awareness of our death leaves us with an underlying sense of terror and we cope by adopting reassuring cultural world views

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45
Q

What is the emotional reasoning fallacy?

A

Using our emotions or guides for evaluating the validity of a claim

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46
Q

What is the bandwagon fallacy?

A

Popular opinion isn’t a dependable way to determine accuracy

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47
Q

What is the not me fallacy?

A

Believing we are immune to bias

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48
Q

What is the either or fallacy?

A

Framing a question as if it can be only answered by opposite extremes

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49
Q

What is the appeal to authority fallacy?

A

Accepting a claim because an authority figure endorses it

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50
Q

What is genetic fallacy?

A

Confusing correctness of a belief with its origins

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51
Q

What is the argument for antiquity fallacy?

A

Belief must be accurate because its old

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52
Q

What is the argument from adverse consequences fallacy?

A

Confusing validity with its real world consequences

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53
Q

What is the appeal to ignorance fallacy?

A

Must be true because no one has proven it false

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54
Q

What is the naturalistic fallacy?

A

Inferring moral judgement from a scientific fact

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55
Q

What is the hasty generalization fallacy?

A

Drawing a conclusion from insufficient evidence

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56
Q

What is the circular reasoning fallacy?

A

Basing a claim on the same claim reworded in slightly different terms

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57
Q

What is scientific skepticism?

A

Approach of evaluating all claims with an open mind but insisting on persuasive evidence before accepting them

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58
Q

What is critical thinking?

A

o Set of skills for evaluating all claims in an open-minded and careful fashion
o Used in psychology as scientific thinking

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59
Q

Name a few logical fallacies.

A 
Emotional reasoning fallacy 
Bandwagon fallacy
Not me fallacy
Either or fallacy
Appeal to authority fallacy
Genetic fallacy
Argument for antiquity fallacy 
Argument from adverse consequence fallacy 
Appeal to ignorance fallacy
Naturalistic fallacy 
Hasty generalization fallacy
Circular reasoning fallacy
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60
Q

What is ruling out rival hypothesis?

A

Have important alternative explanations for the findings been excluded?

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61
Q

What is correlation vs causation?

A

Correlation-causation fallacy is the error of assuming that because one thing is associated with another, it must cause the other

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62
Q

What is falsifiability?

A

o Claim must be capable of being disproved
o Must state in advance what would be against the claim
o The best theories make risky predictions that risk being wrong so that if they are correct it is more likely to be caused by more than just chance

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63
Q

What is replicabilty?

A

Can results be consistently duplicated

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64
Q

What does extraordinary claims requiring extraordinary evidence mean?

A

Is the evidence as strong as the claim?

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65
Q

What is Occam’s razor?

A

Does a simpler answer exist that accounts for all the data?

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66
Q

What are the scientific thinking principles?

A
  • Rule out rival hypothesis
  • Correlation isn’t causation
  • Falsifiability
  • Replicability
  • Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence
  • Occam’s Razor
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67
Q

What is basic research as it applies to psychological research?

A

Research examining how the mind works

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68
Q

What is applied research as it applies to psychological research?

A

Research examining how we can use basic research to solve real world problems

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69
Q

Why do we need research designs?

A
  • To avoid being fooled by fallacies and bias

* Avoid putting patients through useless treatments and focus on scientifically proven treatments

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70
Q

What is intuitive thinking and when do we need it?

A
  • Quick, reflexive, mostly hunches
  • Brain does this on autopilot
  • We need these snap decisions in every day life
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71
Q

What is analytical thinking and when do we need it?

A
  • Slow, reflective, and takes mental effort
  • Can override intuitive thinking when “the gut” was wrong
  • Good research designs can help prevent us from using intuitive thinking and have us using analytical thinking
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72
Q

What does heuristic means when applied to thinking?

A

Mental shortcut or rule of thumb that helps us to streamline our thinking and make sense of our world

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73
Q

What is naturalistic observation?

A

Watching behavior in real world settings without trying to manipulate the situation

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74
Q

What does external validity mean?

A

The extent to which we can generalize findings to real world settings

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75
Q

What does internal validity mean?

A

The extent to which we can draw cause-and-effect inferences from a study

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76
Q

What are the advantages to naturalistic observation?

A

High external validity

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77
Q

What are the disadvantages to naturalistic observation?

A
  • Low internal validity
  • We are unable to change the variables
  • Unable to infer causation
  • Must wait for right situation
  • If subjects are aware they are being observed, it can affect their behavior
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78
Q

What are case studies?

A

Examines one person, or a small number of people in depth, often over an extended period of time

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79
Q

What are advantages to case studies?

A
  • Can provide existence proofs
  • Valuable with rare or unusual phenomena that are difficult or impossible to re-create
  • Can give a basis for further hypothesis and later systematic testing
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80
Q

What is an existence proof?

A

Demonstration that a given psychological phenomenon can occur

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81
Q

What are disadvantages to case studies?

A
  • Are typically anecdotal
  • Unable to infer causation
  • Rival hypotheses are not able to be ruled out
  • Unable to determine if case generalizes in a population beyond the single case
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82
Q

What are self report measures and what can they assess?

A

o Often called questionnaires

o Assesses variety of characteristics, such as personality traits, mental illness, and interests

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83
Q

What is a survey?

A

Typically used to measure people’s opinions and attitudes

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84
Q

What is random selection?

A

o Procedure that ensures that every person in a population has an equal chance of being chosen to participate
o Critical to generalize results to broader population

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85
Q

What is reliability when it comes to research?

A

o Refers to consistency of measurement

o Should be able to repeat the test with the same results

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86
Q

What is interrater reliability when it comes to research?

A

Degree different people agree on the characteristics being measured

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87
Q

What is validity as it applies to research?

A

o Extent to which a measure assesses what it purports to measure
o Reliability is necessary for validity, but does not guarantee validity

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88
Q

What are some advantages to self reporting and surveys?

A
  • Easy to administer

* Self reporting of personality traits and behaviours work relatively well

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89
Q

What are some disadvantages to self report measures and surveys?

A
  • Assumes participants have enough insight into their personality characteristics to report them accurately
  • Response sets (people distorting their responses)
  • When asking people to evaluate others (such as job performance), there are 2 pitfalls halo and horns effects
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90
Q

What is response sets when it comes to questionnaires and surveys and how can we manage it?

A

o Tendency of research participants to distort their responses (good or bad) to questionnaire items
o Can ask several questions that measure these tendencies and use this to compensate for this in clinical practice or research

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91
Q

What is the halo effect?

A

Tendency of ratings of one positive trait to influence other characteristics

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92
Q

What is the horns effect?

A

Tendency of one negative trait to influence ratings of other characteristics

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93
Q

What are correlational research designs?

A
  • Examines the extent to which two variables are associated

* Can be positive (same direction), negative (opposite direction), zero (no correlation)

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94
Q

What is the correlation coefficient?

A

o The statistics that psychologists use to measure correlations
o Range between -1.0 (perfect negative) and 1.0 (perfect positive)

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95
Q

What are advantages to correlational designs?

A

• Can help predict behavior or future patterns

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96
Q

What are disadvantages to correlational designs?

A
  • Unable to infer causation

* Illusory compensation (perception of correlation where none exists)

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97
Q

What is illusory compensation?

A

o Perception of a statistical associate between two variables where none exists
o Provides need to calculate correlations rather than relying on our own eyes
o Our intuitions mislead us, especially when we’ve learned to expect two things to go together

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98
Q

What is the between-subjects experimental design?

A

o Random assignments into experimental or control groups

o Need to ensure that control group believes they are getting treatment (placebo)

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99
Q

What is the within-subject experimental design?

A

o Each participant acts of their own control

o Participants are measured before and after the manipulation

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100
Q

What is the independent variable?

A

Variable that the experimenter manipulates

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101
Q

What is the dependent variable?

A

Variable that the experimenter measures to see whether this manipulation has had an effect

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102
Q

What is the operational definition of an experimental design?

A

A specific definition of what’s being measured

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103
Q

What is the confounding variable in an experimental design?

A

Any difference in variables between experimental and control groups that isn’t the independent variable

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104
Q

What is the placebo effect?

A

o Improvement resulting from the mere expectation of improvement
o We need to be aware of this and ensure both groups are equally likely to experience it

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105
Q

What is a blind experimental design?

A

o Unaware of whether one is in the experimental or control group
o If patients are not blind, the experiment is essentially ruined

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106
Q

What is a double blind experimental design?

A

o Experiment in which neither researchers nor participants are aware of who is in the experimental or control group
o Safeguards against confirmation bias and experimenter expectancy effect

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107
Q

What is the nocebo effect?

A

Expectation of harm that results in harm (voodoo)

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108
Q

What is the experimenter expectancy effect?

A

o Also called the Rosenthal effect
o Researchers’ hypotheses lead them to unintentionally bias the outcome of a study
o Affects results in subtle ways, almost outside of their knowledge
o Researchers can fall prey to confirmation bias

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109
Q

What is demand characteristics of an experimental design?

A

o Cues that participants pick up from a study that allow them to generate guesses regarding the researcher’s hypotheses
o Experimenters may use a cover story or distractor items on a survey

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110
Q

What is the advantage of experimental designs?

A

Allows us to infer causation

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111
Q

What are the disadvantages to experimental design?

A

Can be low in external validity

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112
Q

Who provides ethical guidelines for researchers?

A

Research Ethics Board

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113
Q

What is informed consent?

A

Participants must be aware of what is involved in a study prior to asking them to participate

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114
Q

When is deception justified in research designs?

A

o Study cannot be performed without the deception
o Does not negatively affect rights of the participant
o Does not involve a medical or therapeutic intervention

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115
Q

What is a debriefing?

A

Researchers tell participants about full experiment including deceptions and what was learned

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116
Q

Who’s guidelines must be followed for the use of animals in research?

A

Canadian Council on Animal Care (CCAC)

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117
Q

What are statistics?

A

Application of mathematics to describing and analyzing data

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118
Q

What are descriptive statistics?

A

Numerical characterizations that describe data

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119
Q

What is the central tendency?

A

Measures of the “central” scores in a data set or where the group tends to cluster

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120
Q

What are the three measures for central tendency?

A

Mean, median, and mode

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121
Q

What is the mean?

A

Average, total score divided by the number of people

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122
Q

What is the median?

A

Actual middle score of a data set

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123
Q

What is the mode?

A

Most frequent score in a data set

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124
Q

What is the variability in statistics?

A

Measure of how loosely or tightly bunched scores are; sometimes called dispersion

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125
Q

What is the range?

A

o Simplest measure of variability
o Difference between the highest and lowest scores
o Can be deceptive as it doesn’t share the distribution of scores in the range

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126
Q

What is standard deviation?

A

Average amount that each data point is from the mean rather than just the range
More difficult to calculate but less deceiving than simple range

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127
Q

What is inferential statistics?

A

Mathematical methods that allow us to determine whether we can generalize findings from our sample to the full population

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128
Q

What is statistical significance?

A
  • When the finding would have occurred by chance less than 5 in 100 times
  • The larger the sample, the greater the odds that a result will be statistically significant
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129
Q

What is the practical significance?

A
  • Real world importance

* Just because it’s statistically significant does not mean that it makes any difference in the real world

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130
Q

What is the base rate when looking at statistics?

A

How common a characteristic or behaviour is in the general population

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131
Q

What is balanced coverage when discussing evaluating psychological research?

A

Try to cover both sides using “experts” and can create pseudosymmetry, the appearance of scientific controversy where none exist

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132
Q

What are glial cells?

A
  • Carry away debris

* Are a support cell for neurons

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133
Q

What is an astrocyte?

A
  • Communicate closely with neurons
  • Control blood flow in brain
  • Intimately involved in thought, memory, and immune system
  • Play a role in blood brain barrier
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134
Q

What is an oligodendrocyte?

A
  • Promotes new connections among nerve cells
  • Releases chemicals to aid in healing
  • Produces myelin sheath
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135
Q

What is the resting potential?

A

No neurotransmitters acting on neurons

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136
Q

What is the threshold level for neurons?

A

Membrane potential necessary to trigger an action potential

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137
Q

What is an action potential?

A

Electrical impulse travels down the axon and triggers release of neurotransmitters

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138
Q

What law does an action potential follow?

A

All or nothing law

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139
Q

What is a graded potential?

A

Post synaptic potentials that can be excitatory or inhibitory depending on whether + or – charged particles flow across the neuronal membrane and in which direction they flow

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140
Q

What is an excitatory postsynaptic potential and what is it caused by?

A
  • Graded potential in a dendrite that is caused by excitatory synaptic transmission
  • Caused by positive ions
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141
Q

What is an inhibitory postsynaptic potential and what is it caused by?

A
  • Graded potential in a dendrite that is caused by inhibitory synaptic transmission
  • Caused by negative ions
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142
Q

What is long term potentiation?

A
  • Neurons mechanism for memory and basis for our memories
  • Occurs when graded potential becomes larger than it was prior to stimulation
  • Increases ability of neuron to communicate and fire action potentials
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143
Q

What is a neurotransmitter?

A

o Chemical event allowing communication among neurons
o Can be excitatory of inhibitory
o Each has something different to say

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144
Q

What is a receptor site?

A

o Location that recognizes a neurotransmitter

o Different receptors recognize different neurotransmitters (lock and key analogy)

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145
Q

What is reuptake?

A

Presynaptic axon reabsorbs the neurotransmitter and halts further transmission

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146
Q

What is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS?

A

Glutamate

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147
Q

What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS?

A

Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid (GABA)

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148
Q

What is glutamate associated with?

A

Learning and memory

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149
Q

What are elevated levels of glutamate related to?

A

o Schizophrenia and other mental health disorders

o Damage to receptors due to overstimulation

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150
Q

What does glutamate interact with?

A

Alcohol and memory enhancers

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151
Q

What does GABA play a role in?

A

Learning, memory and sleep

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152
Q

What does GABA interact with?

A

o Alcohol

o Anti-anxiety drugs suppressing overactive brain areas linked to worry

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153
Q

What does GABA stand for?

A

Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid

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154
Q

What does ACh stand for?

A

Acetylcholine

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155
Q

What is ACh associated with?

A
  • Work in muscle contraction in PNS
  • Affects cortical arousal in CNS
  • Plays role in arousal, selective attention, sleep, and memory
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156
Q

What happens to ACh receptors in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Neurons containing acetylcholine (and others) are progressively destroyed

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157
Q

What does ACh interact with?

A

o Nicotine stimulates ACh receptors
o Memory enhancers increase ACh
o Insecticides block the breakdown of ACh, resulting in violent, uncontrolled movements that kills the bugs
o Botox causes paralysis by blocking ACh release

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158
Q

What are the monoamines?

A

Norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin

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159
Q

What is norepinephrine associated with?

A

Brain arousal and other functions like mood, hunger, and sleep

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160
Q

What does norepinephrine interact with?

A

Amphetamine and methamphetamine increase NE

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161
Q

What is dopamine associated with?

A

Motor function and reward

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162
Q

What does dopamine interact with?

A

 L-Dopa increases dopamine, used to treat Parkinson’s disease
 Antipsychotic drugs which block dopamine action are used to treat schizophrenia
 Amphetamine and methamphetamine increase dopamine

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163
Q

What is serotonin associated with?

A

o Mood and temperature regulation, aggression, and sleep cycles

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164
Q

What does serotonin react with?

A

 Serotonin-selective reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants used to treat depression
 Amphetamine and methamphetamine increase serotonin

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165
Q

Which neurotransmitter binds to the same receptors as THC?

A

Anandamide

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166
Q

What is anandamide associated with?

A
  • Plays roles in eating, motivation, memory, and sleep

* Plays a role in pain reduction

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167
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is endorphins?

A

Neuropeptides

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168
Q

What is endorphins associated with?

A

o Play a role in pain reduction

o Opioids hijack the endorphin receptors

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169
Q

What are psychoactive drugs and what do they affect?

A

o Drugs that interact with neurotransmitter systems

o Affect mood, arousal, or behaviour

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170
Q

What is an agonist?

A

•Increase receptor site activity

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171
Q

What is an antagonist?

A

Decrease receptor site activity

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172
Q

What is neural plasticity?

A
  • Ability of the nervous system to change
  • Constantly changing, more in early childhood
  • Often cannot change enough to compensate for injury or stroke
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173
Q

What are the 4 primary changes of neural plasticity?

A
  • Growth of dendrites and axons
  • Synaptogenesis, the formation of new synapses
  • Pruning
  • Myelination
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174
Q

What is pruning as it relates to neural plasticity?

A

o Death of 70% of neurons
o Retraction of axons to remove connections that aren’t useful
o Streamlines neural organization and becomes more efficient
o Autism may be due to inadequate pruning

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175
Q

How does neural plasticity play a role in learning?

A
  • Change results from formation of new synapses and strengthening existing connections
  • Develop long term potentiation
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176
Q

What is adult neurogenesis?

A
  • Creation of new neurons in the adult brain
  • May play a helpful role in learning
  • Studying ability to trigger this to help with recovery
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177
Q

What is a stem cell and what applications do they have in neuroscience?

A
  • A cell, often originating in embryos, having the capacity to differentiate into a more specialised cell
  • Implanting stem cells can induce them to grow and replace damaged cells
  • May have gene therapy applications as well
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178
Q

What does the fusiform gyrus in the temporal lobe play a role in?

A

Facial recognition

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179
Q

What is the basal ganglia?

A

Structures in the forebrain that help to control movement

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180
Q

What is the limbic system?

A
  • Emotional centre of the brain that also plays roles in smell, motivation, and memory
  • Processes information about our internal states and emotions
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181
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A
  • Works as a sensory relay center

* Sensory information first passes through it, undergoing some initial processing before travelling onto the cortex

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182
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A
  • Regulates and maintains constant internal bodily states

* Plays roles in hunger, thirst, sexual motivation, emotional behaviours, temperature regulation

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183
Q

What is the function of the amygdala?

A
  • Responsible for excitement, arousal, and fear

* Plays role in fear conditioning

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184
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus?

A
  • Critical role in memory, especially spatial memory
  • Evidence suggests this area can change size following learning
  • Damage causes issues forming new memories while leaving old memories intact
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185
Q

What is the reticular activating system?

A

Reticular Activating System
• Connects to forebrains and cerebral cortex
• Plays important role in arousal
• Damage can result in coma

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186
Q

What is the function of the pons?

A

 Crucial role in triggering dreams

 Connects cortex to cerebellum

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187
Q

What is the function of the medulla?

A

 Regulates breathing, heartbeat, and other vital functions
 Controls nausea and vomiting
 Serious damage can cause brain death, and irreversible coma

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188
Q

What is the “master gland” of the body?

A

Pituitary gland

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189
Q

What is phrenology?

A

Belief that bumps on the head contribute to intelligence and personality

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190
Q

What is a CT scan?

A

• Computed tomography (CT)
o 3D reconstruction of multiple x-rays taken through a part of the body
o Displays more detail than an individual x-ray

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191
Q

What is an MRI?

A

• Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
o Shows structural detail and superior to CT for soft tissues
o Measures release of energy from hydrogen atoms in biological tissues following exposure to a magnetic field

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192
Q

What is a PET test?

A
  • Positron emission tomography (PET
  • Measures changes in brains activity in response to stimuli
  • Injection of radioactive glucose like molecules, scanner measures where in the brain most of these are consumed as neurons increase glucose consumption when they are active
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193
Q

What is an fMRI?

A
  • Functional MRI

* Measures changes in blood oxygen levels as oxygen demands increase as activity increases

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194
Q

What is Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)?

A
  • Applies strong and quickly changing magnetic fields to the skull to create electric fields in the brain
  • Can enhance or interrupt brain function in specific regions depending on level of stimulation
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195
Q

What is Magnetoencephalography (MEG)?

A
  • Detects electrical activity by measuring tiny magnetic fields
  • Measures activity changes millisecond to millisecond
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196
Q

What is localization of function as it comes to neuroscience?

A

Brain areas identified as active during specific psychological tasks over a baseline rate of activity

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197
Q

What is lateralization as it applies to neuroscience?

A

o Cognitive function that relies more on one side of the brain than the other
o Many of these functions concern specific language and verbal skills

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198
Q

What is split brain surgery?

A

o Procedure that involves severing the corpus callosum to reduce the spread of epileptic seizures
o Rare operation that is no longer performed

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199
Q

What is heritability in respect to behavioural genetics?

A

o Extent to which genes contribute to differences in a trait among individuals
o Typically expressed as a percentage
o So if it’s 40% heritable, than 40% is genes and 60% is environment

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200
Q

What is behavioural genetics?

A

Examines influence of nature and nurture on psychological traits

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201
Q

What are examples of behavioural genetic designs?

A

Family studies, twin studies, and adoption studies

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202
Q

What is a family study?

A
  • Researchers examine the extent to which a characteristic runs in an intact family
  • Doesn’t allow environments to be ruled out
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203
Q

What is a twin study?

A
  • Analysis of how traits differ in identical versus fraternal twins
  • Would assume that environment for the twins is the same so allows us to see the genetic differences in fraternal twins
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204
Q

What are adoption studies?

A

Examines the extent to which children adopted resemble their adoptive as opposed to their biological parents

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205
Q

What is sensation?

A

Detection of physical energy by sense organs, which then send information to the brain

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206
Q

What is perception?

A

• The brains interpretation of raw sensory inputs

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207
Q

What is an illusion as it pertains to sensation and perception?

A

• Perception in which the way we perceive a stimulus doesn’t match its physical reality

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208
Q

What is filling in as it pertains to sensation and perception?

A
  • Occurs entirely without our awareness
  • Usually adaptive and helps us make sense of our world
  • We use available information to make sense of what’s missing
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209
Q

What is transduction?

A

• Process of converting an external stimulus into electrical activity within neurons

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210
Q

What is a sensory receptor?

A

• Specialised cell responsible for converting external stimuli into neural activity for a specific sensory system

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211
Q

What is sensory adaptation?

A
  • Activation is greatest when stimulus is first detected
  • Declines in strength after
  • Occurs at level of receptor
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212
Q

What is psychophysics?

A

• Study of how we perceive sensory stimuli based on their physical characteristics

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213
Q

What is the absolute threshold as it pertains to sensation?

A
  • Lowest level of a stimulus needed for the nervous system to detect a change of 50% of the time
  • Demonstrates how sensitive our sensory systems are
  • Human error increases as stimuli become weaker
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214
Q

What is the just noticeable difference (JND)?

A
  • Smallest change in the intensity of a stimulus that we can detect
  • Ability to distinguish strong from weak stimuli
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215
Q

What is Weber’s Law?

A

o Principle stating there is a constant proportional relationship between the JND and original stimulus intensity
o Basically, the stronger the stimulus, the bigger the change needed for a change in stimulus intensity to be noticeable

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216
Q

What is the signal detection theory?

A

• Theory regarding how stimuli are detected under different conditions

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217
Q

What is the signal to noise ration as it pertains to the signal detection theory?

A

o How much the signal needs to be increased to be heard over background noise

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218
Q

What is the response bias as it pertains to the signal detection theory?

A

o Tendencies to make one type of guess over another when we’re in doubt about whether a weak signal is present or absent under noisy conditions

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219
Q

What is the McGurk effect as it pertains to sensation?

A

o We integrate visual and auditory information when processing spoken language and our brain automatically calculates the most probably sound given the information between the 2 sources

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220
Q

What is the rubber hand illusion?

A

o Touch and sight can interact to create a false perceptual experience

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221
Q

What is synesthesia?

A

o Rare condition in which people experience cross-modal sensations
o Shows up lots in children but no longer present in adults

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222
Q

What is selective attention?

A

• Process of selecting one sensory channel and ignoring or minimizing others

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223
Q

What part of the brain is main brain region involved in selective activation?

A

Selective attention

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224
Q

What is the filter theory of attention?

A

o Views attention as a bottleneck through which information passes
o Allows us to pay attention to important information and ignore others

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225
Q

What is the cocktail party effect?

A

o Allows us to pick out important information when we are not actively paying attention, like someone saying your name across the room at a party

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226
Q

What is inattentional blindness?

A
  • Failure to detect stimuli that are in plain sight when our attention is focused elsewhere
  • The gorilla in the basketball game study
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227
Q

What is change blindness as it relates to attention?

A

Failure to detect obvious changes in one’s environment

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228
Q

What is the trichromatic theory?

A

Idea that colour vision is based on our sensitivity to three primary light colours

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229
Q

What is the opponent process theory?

A

Theory that we perceive colours in terms of 3 pairs of opponent colours
o Red or green
o Blue or yellow
o Black or white

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230
Q

What theory explains after images? (the ones that remain after we stare at a colour for a long time and look away)

A

Opponent Process Theory

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231
Q

What is blindness?

A
  • Dramatic reduction in ability to see

* Less than or equal to 20/200

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232
Q

What is blind sight?

A
  • Damage to the V1 primary visual cortex area of their brain
  • Coarser visual information still reaches the visual association cortex V2 through an alternative pathway that bypasses V1
233
Q

What is visual agnosia?

A
  • Deficit in perceiving objects

* Recognize colour and shapes of objects but cannot recognize or name them

234
Q

What is pitch?

A
  • The frequency of the wave

* The higher the frequency, the higher the pitch

235
Q

What is loudness?

A

• The amplitude, or height, of the sound wave

236
Q

What is timbre?

A
  • The quality or complexity of the sound

* Makes musical instruments, human voices, or other sources sound unique

237
Q

What is place theory?

A

o Specific place along the basilar membrane matches a tone with a specific pitch
o Only accounts for high pitch between 5 000 to 20 000 Hz

238
Q

How is frequency detected?

A

based on the location in the cochlea
o Higher frequency base of the basilar membrane
o Lower frequencies at the top of the basilar membrane

239
Q

What is cognitive deafness?

A

o Malfunctioning of the ear, especially failure of eardrum or ossicles

240
Q

What is nerve deafness?

A

o Due to damage in the auditory nerve

241
Q

What is parallel processing?

A

• Ability to attend to many sense modalities simultaneously

242
Q

What is bottom up processing?

A

o Processing in which a whole is constructed from its parts

243
Q

What is top down processing?

A

o Conceptually driven processing influenced by beliefs and expectancies

244
Q

What is the perceptual hypotheses?

A
  • Get away with economizing in our sensory processing and making educated guesses
  • Decent guess with fewer neurons is more efficient than a more certain answer with a huge number of neurons
245
Q

What is perceptual sets?

A

• Set formed when expectations influence perceptions

246
Q

What is perceptual constancy?

A

• Process by which we perceive stimuli consistently across varied conditions

247
Q

What is shape constancy?

A

o Even as the shape moves as a door opens, we still know it’s a door

248
Q

What is the size constancy?

A

o My dog is still the same size even when he runs ahead of me on the path and appears smaller to my eyes

249
Q

What is colour constancy?

A

o Ability to perceive colour consistently across different levels of lighting

250
Q

What are subjective contours?

A
  • Mere hint of three or four corners gives perception of imaginary shape
  • Our brains provide missing information about the outlines
251
Q

What are bistable images?

A
  • Images that can be perceived in two ways

* Limits to how quickly we can shift from one view to the other

252
Q

What is the illusion of emergence?

A

• Perceptual gestalt (whole) that jumps off the page and hits us once we can see it

253
Q

What are the gestalt principles?

A
  • Rules governing how we perceive objects as wholes within their overall context
  • Help explain why we see our world as unified forms rather than jumbles of lines and curves
254
Q

What is the gestalt principle of proximity?

A

• Objects physically close to each other tend to be perceived as unified wholes

255
Q

What is the gestalt principle of similarity?

A

• We view similar objects as composing a whole, much more so than dissimilar objects

256
Q

What is the gestalt principle of continuity?

A

• Perceive objects as wholes even when other objects block part of them

257
Q

What is the gestalt principle of closure?

A

• When partial visual information is present, our brains fill in what’s missing

258
Q

What is the gestalt principle of symmetry?

A

• Perceive objects that are symmetrically arranged as holes more often than those that are not

259
Q

What is the gestalt principle of figure-ground?

A
  • Make instant decisions to focus attention on the central figure, largely ignoring the background
  • Example is the black vase/two faces illusion
260
Q

What part of the brain perceives faces?

A

• Lower part of the temporal lobe responds to faces

261
Q

What is the Phi phenomenon when it comes to perceiving motion

A

o Perception of movement produced by successive flashing of images
o Shows that our perceptions about what is moving is based on only partial information and then our brain guesses at what is missing

262
Q

What is motion blindness?

A

o Serious disorder in which patient’s can’t seamlessly string still images into perception of ongoing motion
o Like having lagging frames in a game, things jump rather than move seamlessly

263
Q

What is depth perception?

A

o Ability to judge distance and three-dimensional relations

264
Q

What are monocular depth cues?

A
  • Stimuli that enable us to judge depth using only one eye

* Rely on pictorial cues to give a sense of what’s located where in stationary scene

265
Q

What are monocular depth cues?

A
  • Relative size
  • Texture gradient
  • Interposition
  • Linear perspective
  • Height in plane
  • Light and shadow
  • Motion parallax
266
Q

How does relative size help with depth perception?

A

o More distant objects look smaller than closer objects

267
Q

How does texture gradient help with depth perception?

A

o Texture less apparent at a distance

268
Q

How does interposition help with depth perception?

A

o We know an object is closer if it blocks the view of another object

269
Q

How does linear perspective help with depth perception?

A

o Outlines of rooms or buildings converge as distance increases

270
Q

How does height in place help with depth perception?

A

o Distant objects tend to appear higher

271
Q

How does light and shadow help with depth perception?

A

o Objects cast shadows that tell us of their 3-D form

272
Q

How does motion parallax help with depth perception?

A

o Not pictorial
o Ability to judge the distance of moving objects by their speed
o Near objects seam to travel faster than those further away

273
Q

What are binocular depth cues?

A

• Stimuli that enable us to judge depth using both eyes

274
Q

What is binocular disparity?

A

o Information is much more different with near objects than far objects
o Each eye sees the world just slightly differently and brains use this to judge depth

275
Q

What is binocular convergence?

A

o As we turn our eyes inwards to see a close-up object, the brain is aware of how much our eyes moved and can use this to estimate depth

276
Q

How do we perceive where sounds are located?

A

o Some axons connect to cells on the same side of the brain as the ear that heard the noise, and some are sent over to the other side of the brain, this difference causes a different length of time for the stimulus to be received
o Our brains compare the difference between the ears
o Sound is also louder in the ear closest to the noise

277
Q

What is the moon illusion?

A

• Moon appears to be a different size at the horizon/in the sky

278
Q

What is the Muller-Lyer illusion?

A

• Lines appear longer with arrows going to it than with arrows pointing away

279
Q

What is the Ponzo Illusion?

A

• Converging lines, like railroad tracks going to the distance, the brain assumes that objects closer to the converging lines as further away, and it would be correct generally, but in images rather than real life, this can trick the brain about object sizes

280
Q

What is the horizontal-vertical illusion?

A

• When looking at an upside-down T, we see the vertical part as longer because the horizontal line is divided in half

281
Q

What is the Ebbinghaus-Tichener illusion?

A

• Perceive a circle as larger when surrounded by smaller circles and smaller when surrounded by larger circle

282
Q

What is subliminal perception?

A
  • Perception below the limen, or threshold of conscious awareness
  • Evidence for subliminal perception is compelling but the effects often vanish when participants become aware or even suspect attempts to influence them
283
Q

What is consciousness?

A

• Our subjective experience of the world, our bodies, and our mental perspectives

284
Q

What is sleep paralysis?

A

• State of being unable to move just before falling asleep or right before waking up

285
Q

What are some theories about why we sleep?

A 
o	Storing memories
o	Immune system support
o	For insight and problem solving
o	Neurological support
o	Ability to function and plan
o	Conserving energy and hiding from predators
286
Q

What is the circadian rhythm?

A

• Cyclical changes that occur on a roughly 24-hour basis in many biological processes

287
Q

What can disruptions to the circadian rhythm cause?

A 
o	Risk of injury
o	Fatal accidents
o	Health problems including
	Diabetes
	Heart disease
288
Q

What is the bodies biological clock in reference to sleep patterns?

A

• Term for the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the hypothalamus that’s responsible for controlling our levels of alertness

289
Q

What is the hormone responsible for triggering feelings of sleepiness?

A

Melatonin

290
Q

What is jet lag?

A

• Disruption of circadian rhythm caused by flying

291
Q

What is sleep dept?

A

• Accumulation of sleep deprivation

292
Q

What can sleep deprivation after multiple nights cause?

A

o Depression
o Difficulties learning
o Difficulties paying attention
o Slowed reaction times

293
Q

What can sleep deprivation lasting 4 days or more cause?

A

Hallucinations

294
Q

What conditions is sleep deprivation associated with?

A 
o	Increased weight
o	Increased blood pressure
o	Diabetes
o	Heart problems
o	Immunosuppression
295
Q

What brain waves are shown when someone is awake?

A

beta waves 13 plus times/second

296
Q

What brain waves are shown when the brain is awake but relaxed?

A

alpha waves 8 – 12 times/second

297
Q

What does REM stand for?

A

Rapid eye movement

298
Q

What is the first stage of sleep and how long does it last?

A
  • Very light and may not be aware they are sleeping

* Lasts 5 – 10 min

299
Q

What brain waves are shown during stage 1 sleep?

A

theta waves 4 – 7 times/second

300
Q

What brain waves are shown during stage 2 sleep?

A

Sleep Spindles and K complexes

301
Q

What brain waves are shown during stage 3 sleep?

A

• Delta waves 20 – 50% of the time

302
Q

What brain waves are shown during stage 4 sleep?

A

• Delta waves 50% plus

303
Q

What is hypnagogic imagery?

A

• Scrambled and bizarre dreamlike images that flit in and out of consciousness

304
Q

What are myoclonic jerks?

A

• Sudden jerks as if startled or falling

305
Q

About how long does stage 2 sleep last?

A

10-30 minutes

306
Q

What are sleep spindles?

A
  • Sudden intense bursts of electrical activity

* 12 – 14 cycles/second

307
Q

What are K complexes?

A

• Occasionally sharply rising and falling waves

308
Q

In which stage of sleep does the average person spend about 65% of their sleep in?

A

Stage 2

309
Q

What symptoms will a person show when they are in stage 2 sleep?

A 
o	Slower brain waves
o	Decreased heart rate
o	Decreased temperature
o	Muscles relax
o	Eye movement stops
310
Q

What are delta waves?

A
  • Slow brain waves

* About 1 – 2 cycles/second

311
Q

What depresses delta waves?

A

Alcohol

312
Q

What is stage 5 sleep?

A

REM sleep

313
Q

About how much of sleep is spent in the REM stage of sleep?

A

About 25%

314
Q

What type of dreams are usually had in REM sleep?

A

Emotional and illogical

315
Q

What type of dreams are usually had in non REM sleep?

A

Usually every day tasks

316
Q

What are symptoms that someone is in REM sleep?

A
  • Brain is most active

* Heart rate, blood pressure and irregular breathing all increase

317
Q

What brain waves are shown during stage 5 sleep?

A

• Resembles wakefulness with high frequency low altitude waves

318
Q

What is REM rebound and when does it occur?

A
  • Occurs when deprived of REM for a few nights

* Amount and intensity of REM increases

319
Q

What happens to the middle ear during REM sleep?

A

Middle ear becomes active

320
Q

What is paradoxical sleep?

A

• Brain is active but body is paralyzed

321
Q

What is REM behaviour disorder?

A
  • Characterized by not being paralyzed during dreams
  • Act out sometimes violent dreams
  • May be early marker of dementia
322
Q

What is lucid dreaming?

A
  • Being aware that you are dreaming

* Parts of cerebral cortex for perceptions and evaluating are active

323
Q

What is the most common sleep disorder?

A

Insomnia

324
Q

What are symptoms of insomnia?

A

o Have trouble falling asleep (>30 min)
o Waking too early
o Waking during night and having difficulty resuming sleep

325
Q

Who are most at risk for insomnia?

A

Those suffering from
o Depression
o Chronic pain
o Variety of medical conditions

326
Q

What may brief bouts of insomnia be caused by?

A 
o	Stress
o	Shiftwork
o	Naps
o	Meds
o	Jet lag
o	Illness
o	Caffeine
327
Q

What are treatments for insomnia?

A

o Psychotherapy

o Sleep meds, but they may result in rebound insomnia

328
Q

What is narcolepsy and what can it be associated with?

A
  • Sudden sleep lasting a few seconds to several minutes, rarely can last up to an hour
  • Go directly to REM sleep when they dose off
  • Can be associated with strong emotions
329
Q

Who is most at risk for narcolepsy?

A

o Genetic abnormality

o Brain damage

330
Q

Which hormone plays a role in sleep but narcolepsy pts have very few producers for?

A

orexin

331
Q

What is cataplexy?

A
  • Complete loss of muscle tone that can be experienced by a patient with narcolepsy
  • Occurs in healthy people during REM sleep
  • Some narcoleptics suffer cataplexy but remain alert
332
Q

What is sleep apnea?

A
  • Blockage of airway during sleep

* Causes patient to wake up hundreds of times at night leading to fatigue but they have no awareness of waking

333
Q

What are symptoms of sleep apnea?

A

o Snoring loudly
o Gasping
o Stop breathing >20 seconds

334
Q

What can the decrease in oxygen and increase in carbon dioxide caused by not breathing during sleep apnea cause?

A 
o	Night sweats
o	Weight gain
o	Fatigue
o	Hearing loss
o	Irregular heart rate
o	Increased risk of dementia
335
Q

What are treatments for sleep apnea?

A

o Weight loss

o CPAP

336
Q

What are night terrors?

A 
•	Sudden waking episodes characterized by 
o	Screaming
o	Perspiring
o	Confusion
o	Usually only lasts a few minutes
o	Drop back to deep sleep with no recollection
•	Occur almost exclusively in children
•	Can occur in adults under great stress
337
Q

What is sleep walking and who does it usually affect?

A
  • Waking while fully asleep
  • Patient usually acts fully awake although more clumsy
  • More common with sleep deprivation
  • Most common in children
  • Almost always occur during non-REM sleep (usually stages 3 & 4)
  • Usually harmless although doors can be alarmed for those that try dangerous activities
  • It is safe to wake them up
338
Q

What is sexsomnia?

A
  • Also called sleep sex

* Engage in sexual acts while asleep with no recollection upon waking

339
Q

Although we don’t know why we dream, what are some theories?

A 
o	Processing emotions
o	Integrate new experiences
o	Learn new strategies 
o	Cope with threatening situations
o	Recognizing and consolidating memories
340
Q

What is Freud’s dream protection theory?

A

• Believe sex and aggression during sleep stopped them from “bubbling up”

341
Q

In Freud’s dream protection theory, what is the dream-work?

A

o Putting impulses into symbols representing wish fulfilment

342
Q

In Freud’s dream protection theory, what is the manifest and latent content?

A

Manifest content - dream itself

Latent content - hidden meaning

343
Q

What is the activation-synthesis theory? What neurotransmitters and parts of the brain are thought to be involved?

A
  • Theory that dreams reflect inputs from brain activation originating in the pons, which the forebrain then attempts to weave into a story
  • Acetylcholine that increases during REM and activates pons
  • Decreased serotonin and norepinephrine lead to decrease reflective thought, reasoning, attention, and memory
  • Pons sends incomplete signals to thalamus, relay for sensory info that forebrain attempts to interpret as a story
  • Amygdala increases resulting in fear, anxiety, anger, sadness, and elation
344
Q

What is the dreaming and forebrain theory?

A
  • Alternative to activation-synthesis theory
  • Emphasizes forebrain role in dreaming
  • Damage to deep frontal or parietal lobes can stop dreams
  • Proponents believe dreams driven by motivational and emotional control centers as logical parts rest
345
Q

What is the neurocognition theory?

A

o Theory that dreams are a meaningful product of our cognitive capacities which shape what we dream about
• Complex dreams are cognitive achievements parallel their cognitive abilities
• More than random, focus on everyday activities, emotional concerns, and preoccupations
• Context is surprisingly stable, 50-80% have recurrent dreams

346
Q

What is a hallucination and what do their brain scans reveal?

A
  • Realistic perceptual experiences in the absence of external stimuli
  • Brain scans reveal activity for the sense being perceived
347
Q

How do some induce hallucinations?

A

o Prayer
o Fasting
o Hallucinogenic drugs

348
Q

What can bring on visual hallucinations?

A 
o	Oxygen/sensory deprivation
o	Epilepsy
o	Fever
o	Dementia
o	Migraines
349
Q

What is the difference of hallucinations in psychotic individuals and non psychotics?

A

• Psychotic individuals report more negative/less controllable hallucinations than non-psychotics

350
Q

What is an out of body experience (OBE)?

A
  • Sense of consciousness leaving the body
  • While they feel out of body, their reports of what’s above them is often inaccurate
  • Many result from scrambled senses of touch and vision
  • Decreased glutamate from ketamine can lead to OBE type symptoms
351
Q

What do people who are prone to out of body experiences often also report experiencing?

A 
o	Vivid fantasies
o	Hallucinations
o	Strange body sensations
o	Lucid dreams
o	Perceptual distortion
352
Q

What is a near death experience and what do they usually include?

A

• OBE reported by people who’ve nearly died or thought they were going to die
• Experiences include
o Passing through to light
o Life review (life flashing before your eyes)
o Meet spiritual being
o Meet long dead relatives
• Constructed by prevalent beliefs of afterlife

353
Q

What nonlife threatening events can trigger a near death experience?

A

o Electrical stimulation of temporal lobe
o Decreased oxygen during rapid acceleration of pilot training
o Psychedelics (LSD) or anesthetics (ketamine)

354
Q

What are mystical experiences?

A
  • Feelings of unity or oneness with the world often with strong spiritual overtones
  • Contributes to formations of many religions
  • Differ across religious faiths with individual experiences being unique
  • Difficult to study due to unpredictability
  • At least 12 different areas of brain associated with emotion, perception, and cognition become active when reliving mystical experiences, but this may differ from spontaneous events
355
Q

What effects can taking psilocybin (sacred mushrooms) have on a person?

A

o Taking it had improvements in mood and mystical experiences
o 30% suffered from fear and anxiety

356
Q

What is hypnosis?

A

• Set of techniques that provides people with suggestions for alterations in their perceptions, thoughts, feelings, and behaviours

357
Q

What is the induction method for hypnosis?

A

o Suggestions for relaxation and instructions to think of pleasant experiences

358
Q

What are the results of hypnosis?

A
  • Enhances effectiveness of psychodynamic and CBT
  • Useful for pain, medical conditions, and habit disorders
  • Boosts effectiveness of therapy for anxiety, obesity and other conditions
  • No evidence of effectiveness alone
359
Q

What is the sociocognitive theory of hypnosis?

A
  • People’s beliefs and expectations of hypnosis and suggestiveness shape their response
  • Training to increase people’s positive feelings and expectancies about hypnosis can change suggestibility
360
Q

What is the dissociation theory of hypnosis?

A
  • Suggestions result in a separation between personality functions that are not normally well integrated
  • Hypnosis is shaped by expectations and beliefs
  • Suggestions bring responses with little to no effort or conscious control
361
Q

What are psychoactive drugs?

A

• Contains chemicals similar to those found naturally in our brains that alter consciousness by changing chemical processes in neurons

362
Q

What is substance abuse?

A

o Experience recurrent problems associated with the drug

363
Q

What is substance dependence?

A

o Clinically significant impairment, distress, or both

364
Q

What is tolerance of a substance?

A

o Increased amount required for intoxication

365
Q

What is withdrawal and what are some symptoms?

A 
o	Unpleasant effects of decreased or stopping consumption
o	Symptoms include
	Insomnia
	Anxiety
	Seizures
	Confusion
	Hallucinations
366
Q

What is withdrawal and what are some symptoms?

A 
o	Unpleasant effects of decreased or stopping consumption
o	Symptoms include
	Insomnia
	Anxiety
	Seizures
	Confusion
	Hallucinations
367
Q

What is physical dependence?

A

o Continue to take drug to avoid withdrawal

368
Q

What is psychological dependence?

A

o Use motivated by intense cravings

369
Q

What are sociocultural influences for drug use and abuse?

A
  • Cultures with drinking prohibited have decrease in alcoholism than “vino” or “wet” cultures
  • Unemployed at higher risk of alcohol abuse
370
Q

What is an addictive personality in association with drug use and abuse?

A
  • Correlated with impulsivity, sociability, anxiety, and hostility
  • Causation not established
371
Q

What is the tension reduction hypothesis for drug use/abuse?

A

o Self medicating reinforces and increases probability of continued use
o Works because they believe it will reduce stress

372
Q

What is the result of a depressant and what is the mostly widely used and abused drug?

A

Depresses CNS, alcohol

373
Q

What is a sedative hypnotic and what drugs does it include?

A
  • Sedative is calming, hypnotics means sleep inducing
  • Includes barbiturates, non barbiturates, and benzodiazepines
  • Usually used for sleep issues or anxiety
  • Dangerous at high levels including unconsciousness, coma, and death
  • Benzos still widely used today and greatest risk potential
374
Q

What is the result of stimulants?

A

• Increases CNS and causes increased heart rate, respirations, and blood pressure

375
Q

What drugs fall under depressants?

A

Alcohol and sedative-hypnotics

376
Q

What drugs fall under stimulants?

A

Nicotine, cocaine, amphetamines and methamphetamines

377
Q

What does nicotine cause?

A

• Activates acetylcholine receptors
• Feelings of stimulation, relaxation, and alertness
• Adjustive value
o Enhances positive and minimizes negative emotional responses

378
Q

What is the most powerful natural stimulant?

A

Cocaine

379
Q

What symptoms are caused by cocaine?

A 
o	Euphoria
o	Enhanced physical and mental capacity
o	Stimulation
o	Decreased hunger
o	Indifference to pain
o	Sense of well being
o	Decreased fatigue
•	Peaks quickly and fades in 30 min 
•	Heavy intake produces intense drive to use
•	Increases activity of dopamine and maybe serotonin
380
Q

What are the effects of taking amphetamines?

A

• Occasional small doses can postpone fatigue and increase mood
• Regular use for euphoria can cause psychological dependence and depression if use is interrupted
• Large doses for the rush experience
o Increase activity
o Decrease sleep
o Decrease appetite
o May develop paranoia and delusions

381
Q

What are methamphetamines and what is the result of use?

A
  • More powerful but chemically similar to amphetamines

* Intense exhilaration, followed by euphoria for 12-16 hours

382
Q

What are narcotics and what are the symptoms of taking them?

A 
•	CNS depressant
•	Relieve pain and induce sleep
•	Opiates provide sense of euphoria
•	Symptoms of use include
o	Decreased breathing and pulse
o	Pinpoint pupils
o	Coma and death
383
Q

What drugs fall under psychedelics?

A

Marijuana, LSD, Ecstasy,

384
Q

What are psychedelics?

A

• Hallucinogenic/psychedelic produce dramatic alternations in perception, mood, and thought

385
Q

What is the result of taking marijuana?

A
  • Feelings of well being, “high”, and increased appetite
  • May become introspective and sleepy
  • May cause anxiety, panic, and psychosis
386
Q

What is LSD and what are the symptoms of taking it?

A

• Even small amounts can cause dramatic changes in perception
• Associated with areas responding to dopamine
• May cause
o Synesthesia
o Mystical experiences
o Panic, paranoid delusions, confusion
o Depression
o Bodily discomfort
• Some symptoms may last for a long time after experience, most often in people with psych history
• Suspicious or insecure individuals may suffer most from anxiousness
• Flashbacks may occur but no clinical reason for this

387
Q

What is ecstasy and the effects of taking it?

A
  • Both stimulant and hallucinogenic properties
  • Causes cascades of serotonin increasing self-confidence and wellbeing
  • Also causes high blood pressure, depression, nausea, blurred vision, liver problems, sleep disturbance memory loss, and damage to neurons
388
Q

What is learning?

A

• Change in an organism’s behavior or thought as a result of experience

389
Q

What is habituation?

A
  • Process of responding to less strongly over time to repeated stimuli
  • Tied to reduced neurotransmitters in response
  • Makes adaptive sense
  • Don’t habituate dangerous stimuli and typically not powerful stimuli
390
Q

What is sensitization?

A
  • Responding more strongly over time to repeated stimuli

* Most likely to occur with dangerous or irritating stimuli

391
Q

What is conditioning?

A

• Forming associations among stimuli

o Some believes associations were building blocks for more complex ideas

392
Q

What is classical (Pavlovian) conditioning?

A

• Form of learning in which animals come to respond to a previously neutral stimulus that had been paired with another stimulus that elicits an automatic response

393
Q

What is the neutral stimulus in classical conditioning?

A
  • Stimulus that does not elicit any particular response

* Pavlov used a metronome (not a bell lol)

394
Q

What is the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) in classical conditioning?

A
  • Stimulus that elicits an automatic response without prior conditioning
  • Product of nature not nurture
  • Salivation in Pavlov’s experience
395
Q

What is the conditioned stimulus (CS) in classical conditioning?

A
  • Initially neutral stimulus that comes to elicit a response due to association with an unconditioned stimulus
  • Sound of metronome now elicits salivation
396
Q

What is the conditioned response (CR) in classical conditioning?

A
  • Response previously associated with a nonneutral stimulus that is elicited by a neutral stimulus through conditioning
  • Product of nurture not nature
  • The salivation that results from the metronome sound
397
Q

What are the 3 phases of classical conditioning?

A

acquisition, extinction, and spontaneous recovery

398
Q

What is the acquisition phase in classical condition?

A

• Learning phase during which a conditioned response is established
• The CS and UCS are paired repeatedly
o Should be given within ½ second of each other to be effective
• Progressively increases in strength

399
Q

What is the extinction phase in classical condition?

A

• Gradual reduction and eventual elimination of the CR after the CS is presented repeatedly without the UCS
• New response gradually inhibits the CR
o Absence of salivation writes over salivation

400
Q

What is the spontaneous recovery phase in classical condition?

A
  • Sudden re-emergence of an extinct CR after a delay following an extinction procedure
  • Generally weaker than before
  • Dog presented with CS again after a time had CR return, was just hiding in the background
401
Q

What is the renewal effect in classical condition?

A
  • Sudden re-emergence of a CR following extinction when an animal is returned to the environment in which the CR was acquired
  • Similar to spontaneous recovery
  • Ie. Fear from being bitten by snake in an area, overcome fear, become fearful again when back in the place they were bitten
402
Q

What is stimulus generalization in classical condition?

A

• Process by which CS similar, but not identical to the original CS elicit a conditioned response
• Generalization gradient
o More similar to the original the new CS is, the stronger the CR
• Allows adaptation, I learned to drive my car, now I can drive your car

403
Q

What is stimulus discrimination in classical condition?

A
  • Process by which organisms display a less pronounced CR to CS that differ from the original CS
  • Allows us to distinguish between CS that are similar but different in important ways
  • Why we can enjoy scary TV but know it’s not real
404
Q

What is higher order conditioning?

A
  • Developing a CR to a CS by virtue of its association with another CS
  • Each progressive level results in weaker conditioning
405
Q

How can classical conditioning be applied to advertising?

A

• Pair products with positive emotions or favoured celebrities

406
Q

How can classical conditioning be applied to the acquisition of fears and phobias?

A
  • Messed up study by Watson trying to induce a phobia using classical conditioning in a small kid
  • Also shown that positive classical conditioning can help alleviate someone of fears
407
Q

How can classical conditioning be applied to fetishes?

A
  • Sexual attraction to nonliving things

* Some evidence fetishes developed through classical conditioning

408
Q

How can classical conditioning be applied to disgust reactions?

A
  • Easy to develop
  • Most cases reactions are probably due to classical conditioning
  • Better safe than sorry conditioning to keep us safe
409
Q

What is latent inhibition when talking about using classical conditioning in advertising?

A

• Difficulty in establishing classical conditioning to a CS we’ve repeated experienced alone, that is without the UCS

410
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A
  • Also called instrumental conditioning
  • Learning controlled by the consequences of the organism’s behavior
  • Often consequence is a reward of some kind
  • An operant is the behavior produced by an animal to receive an award
411
Q

What is the Thorndike and Law of Effect?

A

• Principle asserting that if a stimulus followed by a behaviour result in a reward, the stimulus is more likely to give rise to the behaviour in the future

412
Q

What is S-R psychology?

A

o Believe our complex voluntary behaviours are due to every previous association we have built
o Believe we learn through trial and error rather than insight

413
Q

What is the Skinner Box?

A

o Electronic box recording and printing out animals’ activity using a bar that delivers food when pressed

414
Q

What is reinforcement?

A
  • Outcome or consequence of a behaviour that strengthens the probability of the behaviour
  • Only considered reinforcements if they make response more likely to occur in the future
415
Q

What is positive reinforcement?

A

o Presentation of a (pleasant) stimulus following a behaviour that strengthens the probability of the behaviour
o Ex. Giving a kid candy for cleaning his room

416
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

o Removal of a (unpleasant) stimulus following a behaviour that strengthens the probability of the behaviour
o Ending time out once child stops whining

417
Q

What is punishment?

A

• Outcome or consequence of a behaviour that weakens the probability of the behaviour

418
Q

What is negative punishment?

A

o Removing a stimulus the organism wants to experience

o Ex. Confiscating a favorite toy until the child stops throwing a temper tantrum

419
Q

What is positive punishments?

A

o Administers stimulus the organism wants to avoid

o Ex. Scolding the dog reduces his habit of chewing on your shoes

420
Q

When is punishment the most effective?

A

when given immediately and provided simultaneously with reinforcement of a desired behaviour

421
Q

What is a discriminative stimulus?

A

• Stimulus associated with the presence of reinforcement

o A friend waving signals they want to chat, reinforcing us for responding to her wave

422
Q

What is extinction burst?

A

o Undesired behaviour increases in intensity shortly after withdrawing reinforcement, given time, it will begin to decrease
o Gets worse before it gets better

423
Q

What is stimulus discrimination?

A

• Organism can tell the difference between 2 different types of stimuli

424
Q

What is stimulus generalization?

A

• Organism able to tell similarities between different stimuli

425
Q

What is the schedule of reinforcement?

A

Pattern of reinforcing a behaviour

426
Q

What is continuous reinforcement?

A

o Reinforcing the behaviour every time it occurs
o Faster to learn
o Faster extinction

427
Q

What is partial reinforcement?

A

o Also called intermittent reinforcement
o Reinforcing the behaviour only occurs some of the time
o Slower to learn
o Slower extinction
o May play a role in keeping people in DV situations as violent partners provide partial reinforcement

428
Q

What is a fixed ratio (FR) schedule of reinforcement?

A

o Reinforcement after a specific number of responses

429
Q

What is a fixed interval (FI) schedule of reinforcement?

A

o Reinforcement after a specific amount of time

o Ends up with scalloped effect as animal waits for a time after a treat before trying again

430
Q

What is a variable ratio (VR) schedule of reinforcement?

A

o Reinforcement after a variable number of responses varying randomly around an average
o Gets best responses
o Done in casinos explaining gambling issues

431
Q

What is a variable interval (VI) schedule of reinforcement?

A

o Reinforcement for first response after a variable amount of time varying randomly around an average

432
Q

What is shaping?

A

o Conditioning a target behavior by progressively reinforcing behaviours that come closer and closer to the target

433
Q

What is fading?

A

o Follows shaping

o Reducing frequency of reinforcement for not-exact behaviours

434
Q

What is chaining?

A

o Linking a number of interrelated behaviours to form a longer series (like learning the alphabet)
o Combines shaping and fading to learn more complex behaviours

435
Q

What is the two-process theory of learning?

A

o Need both classical and operant conditioning to explain persistent anxiety disorders
o Eg. Receive a dog bite and become scared of dogs through classical conditioning. Every time they see the dog they walk across the road which is negative reinforcement for the fear (removing the scary stimulus)

436
Q

What is S-O-R psychology?

A
  • Puts organism between stimulus and response
  • Believe the link isn’t mindless and response depends on what the stimulus means to the organism
  • Believe cognition is central to explaining learning and explains how 2 organisms may differently interpret the same stimulus
437
Q

What is cognitive conditioning?

A

o Interpretation of the situation affects conditioning

o More than an automatic process

438
Q

What is latent learning?

A

• Learning that is not directly observable
o Competence (knowledge) is not the same as performance
o I learn even when not tested
• Brought by Edward Chace Tolman
• Believe reinforcement is not necessary for learning

439
Q

What is a cognitive map?

A

o Mental representation of how a physical space is organized
o How rats run mazes quicker over time, builds even without rewards

440
Q

What is observational learning?

A
  • Learning by watching others
  • Form of latent learning as learn by watching others without reinforcement
  • Spares us having to learn everything firsthand
  • Saves us from serious or life-threatening mistakes
  • Can contribute to maladaptive habits
441
Q

What did the Bobo doll aggression study show?

A

Observational Learning of Aggression
• Bobo doll aggression study shows that an aggressive model caused significantly more aggression against the doll than those not exposed to the aggressive model

442
Q

What are mirror neurons and how doe they work for observational learning?

A

o Cell in prefrontal cortex that becomes activated by specific motions when an animal both preforms and observes that action
o Neurons are imagining what it would be like to perform the behaviour
o Extremely selective and only for specific actions
• Humans have a small number of these
• May be how we learn from others or have empathy for others pain

443
Q

What is insight learning?

A

• Humans and other animals may have insight, like the “aha” reaction to a problem rather than having to solve it through trial and error
• Brought by Wolfgang Köhler
o Most of his research was anecdotal

444
Q

What is conditioned taste aversions?

A
  • Classical conditioning leads to avoidance reactions to the taste of food
  • We associate n/v with food over any other stimulus
  • Typically develops after only one trial
  • Delay from eating food (CS) to vomiting (UCS) in conditioned aversions can be as long as 6 – 8 hours
  • Remarkably specific and little stimulus generalization
  • Is adaptive to prevent us from getting sick again
445
Q

What is memory?

A

o Retention of information over time

446
Q

What is the memory paradox?

A

o Same memory mechanisms that serve us well in most circumstances can sometimes cause us problems in others

447
Q

What is a memory illusion?

A

o False but subjectively compelling memory

448
Q

What are the 3 systems of memory?

A

Sensory, short term and long term

449
Q

What is sensory memory?

A
  • Brief storage of perceptual information before it is passed to short term memory
  • Processes incoming sensations
  • Fills in blanks to see world as unbroken stream of events
450
Q

What is iconic memory?

A
  • Visual sensory memory

* Fades quickly enough we can’t access all information before it disappears

451
Q

What is eidetic memory?

A
  • Also called photographic memory
  • May be due to longer iconic memory
  • Still does contain minor errors
452
Q

What is echoic memory?

A
  • Auditory sensory memory

* Can last 5-10 seconds

453
Q

What is short term memory?

A

• Memory system that retains information for limited duration
• Closely relates to working memory
o Ability to hold information we are currently attending to
• Will move from here to long term storage or scrapped
• Only lasts about 10-15 seconds
• Errors are usually accoustic

454
Q

What is decay in terms of short term memory?

A

• Fading of information from memory over time

455
Q

What is interference in terms of short term memory?

A
  • Loss of information from memory due to competition from additional information
  • Two types of interference, both are more likely to occur when old and new information are similar
456
Q

What is retroactive interference in terms of short term memory?

A

• Learning something new hampers earlier learning

457
Q

What is proactive interference in terms of short term memory?

A

• Earlier learning gets in the way of new learning

458
Q

What is the magic number in terms of short term memory?

A
  • Span of short term-memory

* According to George Miller its 7 +/- 2 pieces of information

459
Q

What is chunking in terms of short term memory?

A
  • Organizing information into meaningful groupings

* Allows extended span of short-term memory

460
Q

What is rehearsal in terms of short term memory?

A

• Repeating information to extend duration of retention in short term memory and promoting likelihood of transfer to long term memory

461
Q

What is maintenance rehearsal in terms of short term memory?

A

• Repeating stimuli in their original form to retain them in short term memory

462
Q

What is elaborative rehearsal in terms of short term memory?

A
  • Linking stimuli to each other in a meaningful way to improve retention of information in short term memory
  • Usually works better than maintenance rehearsal
463
Q

What are the levels of processing in terms of short term memory?

A
  • Depth of transforming information, which influences how well we remember it
  • Visual – how it looks
  • Phonological – how it sounds
  • Semantic – emphasizing meaning
  • Critics say this is unfalsifiable
464
Q

What is long term memory?

A
  • Relatively enduring (minutes to years) retention of information stored regarding our facts, experiences, and skills we’ve acquired over our lifetime
  • Capacity is much larger, don’t’ actually know how long
  • Errors general semantic
465
Q

What is permastore in relation to long term memory?

A

• Long term memory that appears to be permanent

466
Q

What are types of long term memory?

A

Semantic (facts), episodic (events), explicit (conscious memories), implicit (unconscious memories)

467
Q

What is the recency effect when remembering a list?

A

• Tendency to remember words at the end of a list

468
Q

What is the primacy effect when remembering a list?

A

• Tendency to remember words at the beginning of a list well

469
Q

What is the Von Restorff effect when remembering a list?

A

• Tendency to remember stimuli that are distinctive or that stick out like sore thumbs from other stimuli

470
Q

What is the serial position curve when remembering a list?

A

• Graph depicting both primary and recency effects on people’s ability to recall items on a list

471
Q

What are the processes of memory?

A

Encoding, storage, and retrieval

472
Q

What is the encoding process of memory?

A
  • Process of getting information into our memory banks

* No encoding = no memory

473
Q

What is the storage process of memory?

A
  • Process of keeping information in memory

* How we store memories depends on our interpretation and expectations of the event

474
Q

What is the retrieval process of memory?

A

• Reactivation or reconstruction of experiences from our memory stores
o Transforms recollections to fit beliefs and expectations

475
Q

What is the role of attention with encoding memories?

A

• If you are not paying attention it does not get encoded

476
Q

What is the next in line effect with encoding memories?

A

o You forget what the person in front of you said because your focus was on what you would say next

477
Q

What are mnemonics?

A
  • Learning aid, strategy, or device to enhance recall
  • Can apply them to just about anything
  • Depend on having a store of knowledge to begin with
478
Q

What is the Peg Word Method?

A
  • Used to recall list of words
  • Associate each number with a word that rhymes – peg word
  • Create an image associated with the peg word and the one you want to remember
479
Q

What is the Method of Loci?

A
  • Mental image of places like walking a familiar place

* Associate each term along the path

480
Q

What is a schema for storing memories?

A

• Organized knowledge structure or mental model we have stored in our memory
• Script
o Order of events
• Gives a frame of reference for interpreting new situations
• Can create memory illusions
o Us remember what never happened

481
Q

What is a memory illusion?

A

We remember what never happened

482
Q

What are retrieval cues?

A

o Hints that make it easier to recall information

483
Q

What is recall when measuring memory retrieval?

A
  • Generating previously remembered information

* More difficult

484
Q

What is recognition when measuring memory retrieval?

A
  • Selecting previously remembered information from an array of options
  • Easier, such as MC questions
485
Q

What is relearning when measuring memory retrieval?

A
  • Reacquiring knowledge that we have previously learned but largely forgotten over time
  • Occurs much faster the second time around
  • Shows memory is still around there somewhere
  • More sensitive measure of memory by tracking how much faster rather than simply right or wrong
486
Q

What is the tip of the tongue phenomenon in regards to memory retrieval?

A
  • Experience of knowing that we know something but being unable to access it
  • Form of retrieval failure
  • Shows difference between something that didn’t get stored to something that is there we just can’t retrieve
487
Q

What is encoding specificity?

A

• Phenomenon of remembering something better when the conditions under which we retrieve information are similar to the conditions under which we encoded it

488
Q

What is context dependent learning?

A
  • Superior retrieval of memories when the external context of the original memories matches the retrieval context
  • I.e. may do better on exams when in the same room that you took the course
489
Q

What is state-dependent learning?

A

• Superior retrieval of memories when the organism is in the same physiological or psychological state as it was during encoding
• Influence of alcohol, mood, etc.
• May be called mood-dependent learning if mood is involved
o Current psychological state can distort memories of the past

490
Q

What is long-term potentiation?

A
  • Long-lasting strengthening of the connections between two neurons after synchronous activation
  • Basically neurons that fire together wire together
  • LTP plays roll in learning
491
Q

What part of the brain play a key role in forming lasting memories?

A

Hippocampus

492
Q

What is long term depression in regards to memory?

A
  • Long-lasting weakening of the connections between two neurons after low patterns of activation
  • Process acts to balance out LTP by helping resetting connections allowing space for new information
493
Q

What is amnesia?

A
  • Recovery happens gradually, if at all
  • Damage to the hippocampus impairs explicit memories by leaves implicit memory intact
  • Theory is large circuits connecting different parts of the limbic system, including hippocampus and amygdala are critical to memory
494
Q

What is generalized amnesia?

A
  • Loss of all details of their previous life

* Very rare

495
Q

What is retrograde amnesia?

A
  • Loss of memories from the past

* Not especially common

496
Q

What is anterograde amnesia?

A

• Inability to encode new memories from our experiences
• Much more frequent among people with brain damage
• Can develop new implicit memories
o Memories we don’t deliberately remember or reflect on consciously

497
Q

What is the role of the amygdala in regards to memory?

A
  • Stores emotional component of memories, especially those governing fear
  • Works with hippocampus during memory formation with hippocampus storing factual component of memory
498
Q

What is the brain scan results show for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

• Brain contains senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
o Contributes to loss of synapses and death of cells in hippocampus and cortex
o May contribute to memory loss and intellectual decline
o Loss of synapses causes degeneration and death of acetylcholine neurons in forebrain

499
Q

What are flashbulb memories?

A
  • Emotional memory that is extraordinarily vivid and detailed
  • Feels like it doesn’t decay over time and more movie like
  • Research shows that initial memories of significant events differ sometimes significantly from later memories
  • Phantom flashbulb memory term used for false flashbulb memories
  • They are much like other memories, and prone to decay, they are just more intense
500
Q

What is source monitoring confusion?

A
  • Lack of clarity about the origin of a memory
  • Was it a memory or a dream?
  • Forgetting where you heard something is an example of source monitoring fail
  • Helps avoid confusion with memory and fantasy
501
Q

What is Cryptomnesia?

A
  • Failure to recognize that our ideas originated with someone else
  • May be cause of unintentional amnesia
502
Q

What is the suggestive memory technique?

A
  • Procedure that encourages patients to recall memories that may or may not have taken place
  • Often creates recollections that were never present
  • Proves memories more malleable than most had assumed
503
Q

What is the misinformation effect?

A
  • Creation of fictitious memories by providing misleading information about an event after it takes place
  • Older adults particularly vulnerable to it
504
Q

What are implanted memories?

A
  • We can implant elaborate memories of made up events that never occurred
  • False events containing information personally relevant to the individual are more likely to incorrectly recall the implanted event
505
Q

What is emotion?

A 
•	Mental state or feeling associated with our evaluation of our experiences
•	Motivated state marked by 
o	Physiological arousal
o	Expressive behaviour
o	Mental experience
506
Q

What is the discrete emotions theory?

A
  • Theory that humans experience a small number of distinct emotions that are rooted in our biology
  • May combine in complex ways
507
Q

What is universality of emotions?

A

o People recognize and generate the same emotional expressions across cultures

508
Q

What are the primary emotions believed to be universal?

A 
	Happy
	Sad 
	Surprise
	Anger
	Disgust
	Fear
	Contempt
509
Q

What are secondary emotions?

A

o Created by combinations of primary emotions

510
Q

What are display rules?

A

o Cross cultural guidelines for how and when to express emotions
o Different cultures show different display rules
o Culture generally does not influence the emotion, just the display of it

511
Q

What are the cognitive theories of emotion?

A
  • Emotions are products of thinking
  • As many emotions as there are thoughts
  • Different thoughts related to stimuli and spark different emotions
512
Q

What is the James Lange theory of emotion?

A
  • Emotions result from our interpretations of our bodily reactions to stimuli
  • We are afraid because we ran away
513
Q

What is the somatic marker theory?

A
  • We use our “gut reactions” to help us determine how we should act
  • Especially automatic responses
  • Evidence says they are not necessary for wise choices, but may be helpful
514
Q

What is the Camon Bard theory of emotion?

A
  • An emotion provoking event leads simultaneously to an emotion and to bodily reactions
  • Sight of bear triggers fear and running at the same time
515
Q

What is the two factor theory of emotion?

A
  • Emotions are produced by an undifferentiated state of arousal along with an attribution (explanation of that arousal)
  • Undifferentiated means same for all emotions
  • Emotions are the explanation of our arousal
  • We see a bear, fight/flight triggered, and we attribute it to the bear so we feel fear
516
Q

What are the unconscious influences on emotion?

A

• Variables outside awareness that can affect feelings

517
Q

What is the automatic generation of emotion?

A

• Emotions generated in a knee-jerk reaction

518
Q

What is the facial feedback hypothesis?

A
  • Blood vessels in face feed back temperature information in the brain altering our experience of emotion in predictable ways
  • Makes you likely to feel emotions corresponding to your facial expressions
519
Q

What is nonverbal leakage?

A

o Unconscious spillover of emotions into nonverbal behaviour

520
Q

What is the curse of knowledge?

A

o We know and make assumptions that others know the same

o What causes miscommunication over text

521
Q

What are illustrators?

A

Hand gestures

522
Q

What are manipulators?

A

o One body part touches another

523
Q

What are emblems?

A

o Gestures recognized by members of a culture, wave, nod, etc.
o Can differ greatly between cultures

524
Q

What is proxemics?

A

o The study of personal space

• When “rules” violated it makes us uncomfortable

525
Q

What are the 3 types of questions asked in a polygraph test?

A

o Relevant – those bearing on the crime in question
o Irrelevant – Not bearing on crime
o Control – reflect probably lies and ask about trivial flaws and supposedly gives baseline

526
Q

What is the guilty knowledge test?

A
  • Alternate to polygraph
  • Relies on premise that criminals harbour concealed knowledge about the crime that innocent people don’t
  • Monitors responses to multiple choice questions in which one is from the crime scene
527
Q

What is an integrity test?

A
  • Questions that presumably assesses workers tendency to steal or cheat
  • Can predict theft, absenteeism, other misbehaviours
  • False positives for extra forgiving people
528
Q

What is positive psychology?

A

• Discipline that has sought to emphasize human strengths and includes
o Resilience
o Coping
o Life satisfaction
o Love
o Happiness
• Character strengths positively associate with long term life satisfaction
• Two styles, individual differences, no one size fits all
(defensive pessimism and optimists)

529
Q

What is defensive pessimism?

A
  • Strategy of anticipating failure and compensating for this expectation by mentally overpreparing for negative outcomes
  • Robing defense mechanisms from these makes performance worse
530
Q

What are optimists in positive psychology?

A
  • Prevent learning about their own social skills

* Display greater physiological responses to stressor

531
Q

What is happiness?

A

o Peoples subjective sense of how satisfied they are with life

532
Q

What is the Broaden and Build theory on happiness?

A

• Theory proposing happiness predisposes us to think more openly

533
Q

What is the durability bias when forecasting happiness?

A

o Belief good and bad moods will last longer than they do

o Overestimate long term impact of events on our moods

534
Q

What is the hedonic treadmill when forecasting happiness?

A

o Tendency for our moods to adapt to external circumstances

o We have a “set point” we always return to but this level differs for everyone

535
Q

What is motivation?

A

• Psychological drives that propel us in a specific direction

536
Q

What is the drive reduction theory?

A
  • Proposes certain drives, like hunger, thirst, and sexual frustration, motivate us to act in ways that minimize aversive states
  • All drives are unpleasant but satisfaction of them results in pleasure
  • Ensures our survival and reproduction
  • Motivates us to maintain psychological homeostasis
537
Q

What is the Yerkes-Dodson law regarding drives and arousal?

A

o Inverted U-shaped relation between arousal on the one hand and mood and performance on the other hand
o Shows when moderately aroused we have ideal balance of motivation and control to accomplish goals

538
Q

What are incentive theories about motivation

A
  • We’re often motivated by positive goals
  • Intrinsic motivation – motivated by internal goals
  • Extrinsic motivation – motivated by external goals
539
Q

People who are depressed tend to report a lot of fatigue, and report spending less time in social situations. Thus, depression is __________ correlated with fatigue and __________ correlated with spending a lot of time in social situations.

A

positively; negatively

540
Q

The Dean believes that the placement of motivational posters on the walls in classrooms will lead to better grades. To test his hypothesis, he randomly assigns certain classrooms to have the posters while others do not. He then records average grades of classes held in classrooms with posters compared to grades of classes held in other classrooms. He also documents other information, like class topics and class size. What is the independent variable in this study?

A

Motivational posters

541
Q

Which of the following is a lasting contribution by the school of thought known as structuralism?

A

It emphasized the need for systematic observation.

542
Q

__________ are general explanations, whereas __________ are specific predictions derived from these explanations.

A

theories; hypotheses

543
Q

In ___________ conditioning, the focus is change to voluntary behaviours whereas in _____________ conditioning, the focus is change to involuntary behaviours.

A

operant; classical

544
Q

Which of the following phenomena was found to be common among patients who reported being abducted by aliens?

A

Sleep paralysis

545
Q

The emotion of ‘alarm’, which is a mixture of fear and surprise, is one example of a

A

secondary emotion.

546
Q

Tracey has trouble reading her textbooks that are right in front of her, and James has trouble reading the board at the front of his classrooms. Based on this information, it is likely that Tracey has __________ and James has __________.

A

hyperopia; myopia

547
Q

You ask your friend Drea what she had for dinner last night, and she responds that she can’t remember because her “short-term memory isn’t working.” Based on the information you have learned in your psychology course, what might you say to Drea about her short-term memory?

A

The duration of your short-term memory is really only about 20 seconds, so that is not related to your forgetting.

548
Q

Nic smiled when he heard a song that reminded him of a great summer, years ago. That song was very popular that summer, so it became associated with a lot of fun events. Which type of learning does this represent?

A

classical conditioning

549
Q

The blood–brain barrier, which keeps harmful molecules from entering the brain, is composed of __________ that form a fatty coating around tiny blood vessels.

A

glial cells

550
Q

During the lecture, Dr. Brown moved his right hand forward, as if he were knocking on a door, while highlighting an important point. This gesture is one example of

A

an illustrator.

551
Q

Researchers have demonstrated that people who believe that hypnosis will help them quit smoking have much greater success in quitting than people who don’t believe that hypnosis will be effective. Which theory of hypnosis is supported by this evidence?

A

sociocognitive theory

552
Q

Suppose you were one of the early students in the new field of psychology. Your mentor is interested in answers to questions such as “Why do we see in colour?” “Why do people cry when they are sad?” and “Why do we dream?” Your mentor’s approach is most consistent with the __________ perspective.

A

functionalist

553
Q

As the number of losses by the Edmonton Oilers hockey team increase, the number of fans decrease. This is an example of a __________ correlation.

A

negative

554
Q

_______________ can vary from culture to culture and are socially acceptable ways of showing emotion in public settings.

A

Display rules

555
Q

As you look out the window of the car, the scenery moves past very quickly. Your impression of this scenery is briefly stored in which memory system?

A

iconic memory.

556
Q

Suppose Dr. Fish has a hypothesis that dogs make people happy. He supports his hypothesis by interviewing people at the dog park who are smiling and laughing. This demonstrates

A

the confirmation bias.

557
Q

Fred has grown up in Ottawa, whereas Amir was raised in Pakistan. They meet and become friends at university, where they are both completing their undergraduate degrees. In one class, Amir just finished a presentation and asked Fred how he thought it went. Fred gave Amir the “thumbs up” sign and Amir became offended. What is the most likely explanation for Amir’s reaction?

A

Emblems may differ across cultures, and “thumbs up” is not a sign of approval in in Amir’s culture.

558
Q

Casey is participating in a psychology experiment where he is asked to indicate whether he heard a sound or did not hear a sound on successive testing trials. If Casey says he did not hear a sound, and no sound was presented, his response would be considered a __________ according to signal detection theory.

A

true negative

559
Q

A group of student researchers watch various buildings on their campus at different times of day to attempt to determine when people will hold a door open for another person. These student researchers are most likely to use which research method design when conducting their study?

A

Naturalistic observation design

560
Q

Fred is afraid of spiders. He won’t even watch a nature show on TV about them. When he sees a picture of a spider, he has a panic attack, but when he avoids looking at the image, his panic goes away. Fred’s avoidance of spiders is being

A

negatively reinforced, because he is rewarded by his anxiety going down.

561
Q

The __________ is where incoming light is converted into nerve impulses and the __________ is where light is most sharply focused.

A

retina; fovea

562
Q

Leslie just started a new job, and got a new company email address. When people ask for his email address, he often responds with his old one by accident. Which source of interference is most likely in this example?

A

Proactive interference

563
Q

John has to give his cat Garfield a pill every day. He always opens up the pill bottle (which makes a popping sound) and removes one pill before giving it to Garfield, and he follows this by giving him a treat as a reward. After a while, John notices that when he opens up the pill bottle, Garfield comes running to him right away. In this example, the __________ is the conditioned stimulus.

A

sound of the pill bottle opening

564
Q

Dr. Trawma wants to study whether cognitive-behavioural therapy or systematic desensitization is better at reducing his patients’ anxiety. The dependent variable in this study is

A

the patients’ levels of anxiety.

565
Q

Alice went to the local coffee shop and ordered her usual drink, before sitting down to read her book. She didn’t realize that a group of her friends were sitting at a table with a giant sign that said “Happy Birthday Alice!” even though she walked right past their table. They had to actually tap her on the shoulder before she noticed them. This is an example of

A

inattentional blindness.

566
Q

Sensory memory has a larger _________ than short-term memory, but a smaller _________.

A

capacity; duration

567
Q

Nicotine activates receptors sensitive to the neurotransmitter __________, and smokers report feelings of stimulation as well as relaxation and alertness.

A

acetylcholine

568
Q

You are walking through a store when you see a good friend. According to the James-Lange theory, what might happen?

A

You experience physiological changes followed by a feeling of happiness.

569
Q

The polygraph should be more accurately titled ________________ rather than a lie detector.

A

an arousal detector

570
Q

Ito was out hunting when a stray bullet hit the front of his head. Most of his prefrontal cortex was severely damaged, but little damage was found elsewhere in his brain. As a result of the accident, change most likely happened to Ito?

A

He experienced a change in personality.

571
Q

When Pavlov placed meat powder or other food in the mouths of canine subjects, they began to salivate. The salivation was a(n)

A

unconditioned response.

572
Q

Naturalistic observation and case study methods are to __________ as correlational methods are to __________.

A

description; prediction

573
Q

You are listening in on a discussion among a group of psychology majors. One major says that field will only move forward if we use objective methods for understanding the principles that guide publicly observable human actions. This statement is most consistent with

A

behaviourism

574
Q

If the dendrites of a neuron were damaged, what problem would that cell have?

A

It would not be able to receive neurotransmitters.

575
Q

Renata doesn’t like to check her email because when she does there is usually a nasty message from her coworker. This is an example of which operant concept?

A

positive punishment

576
Q

Young children tend to have simple dreams, whereas adults tend to have more complex dreams with bizarre features and stronger emotions. This suggests that as we learn more and have more complex thoughts, our dreams also become more complex. Which theory of dreaming is supported by this evidence?

A

neurocognitive theory

577
Q

Milo and Shirley have been happily married for 20 years. They believe they made it to this milestone because they know each other so well. They recently did a quiz that showed them that they don’t know each other as well as they thought! This evidence didn’t change their minds, however, and they still believe that their love is because they know nearly everything about each other. This is an example of

A

belief perseverance.

578
Q

What property of sound is the most similar to the brightness of light?

A

loudness

579
Q

Neurons that fire together will wire together. Which process is associated with this rhyme?

A

long-term potentiation

Psych104 (1 decks)

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