Final Exam Practice Test Flashcards

1
Q

You can either spend $100 on a new economics textbook or a new CD player. If you choose to buy the new economics textbook, the opportunity cost is:

A

the new CD player

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is a positive statement? Which is a normative statement?

X. The federal minimum wage is increasing to $6.50 an hour. Y. The minimum wage should be high enough that families will not live in poverty. Z: A higher minimum wage typically increases the unemployment rate for teenagers.

A

C. X is positive; Y is normative; Z is positive

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3
Q

A period of falling real gross domestic product is an indicator of a(n):

A

recession.

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4
Q

If nominal wages have risen by 50% over a ten-year period and aggregate prices have increased by 40% in that same period, then we can safely conclude that the real wages of the workers have:

A

increased by about 10%.

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5
Q

When overall price levels rise over time, this is referred to as:

A

inflation

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6
Q

Based on the “Guns and Butter” Figure 3-1, points A, B, E, and F:

A

indicate combinations of guns and butter that society can produce using all of its factors efficiently.

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7
Q

If Farmer Sam MacDonald can produce 200 pounds of cabbages and 0 pounds of potatoes or 0 pounds of cabbages and 100 pounds of potatoes and faces a linear production possibility curve for his farm, the opportunity cost of producing an additional pound of potatoes is ________ pound(s) of cabbage.

A

2

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8
Q

The law of demand states that, other things equal:

A

as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease.

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9
Q

If goods A and B are substitutes, a decrease in the price of good B will:

A

decrease the demand for good A.

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10
Q

If people demand more of product A when the price of B falls, then A and B are:

A

complements

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11
Q

Which of the following is likely to cause a rightward shift in the demand for home-delivered pizza?

A.

a higher price of pepperoni

B.

a lower price of pizza

C.

a larger population

D.

a lower price of fast-food hamburgers

E.

a lower price of pepperoni

A

a larger population

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12
Q

Suppose oranges and clementines are considered to be substitutes. Holding everything else constant, if the price of oranges increases, then the:

A

demand for clementines will increase.

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13
Q

Use the “Supply of Coconuts” Figure 6-1. If the prices of inputs (e.g., labor, fertilizer, and fuel) used to produce and transport coconuts are increasing, then the movement in the model could be:

A

C to A.

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14
Q

A shift to the left of a supply curve is caused by:

A

an increase in the cost of an input.

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15
Q

Changes in government spending and taxes in an effort to change overall spending in an economy is:

A

fiscal policy.

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16
Q

Which of the following will result in an increased price of milk?

A.

an increase in the number of milk suppliers

B.

a shift to the right of the demand curve for milk

C.

a shift to the right of the supply curve for milk

D.

an increase in the production technology of milk suppliers.

E.

a decrease in the number of milk buyers

A

a shift to the right of the demand curve for milk

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17
Q

Assume that corn is an input in the production of beef but not in the production of pork. Further, beef and pork are substitutes. A decrease in the price of corn will:

A

increase the supply of beef and decrease the demand for pork.

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18
Q

Many public utilities burn oil to generate electricity. If the price of oil increases, we would expect there to be:

A

a shift to the left in the supply curve of electricity and a higher price for electricity.

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19
Q

The government imposes a price ceiling below the equilibrium price. The price ceiling will cause:

A

a shortage of the good.

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20
Q

Rent controls set a price ceiling below the equilibrium price and therefore:

A

quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.

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21
Q

Which one of the following transactions is included in a current year’s GDP as investment spending?

A.

ABC company purchased 10,000 shares of IBM stock.

B.

Anton purchased his friend’s condo.

C.

Melanie bought a new washing machine for her condominium.

D.

Maggie bought a play-gym set for her day-care business.

E.

Ronnie bought a new BMW.

A

Maggie bought a play-gym set for her day-care business.

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22
Q

Which of the following would NOT be a part of GDP?

A

used car sales

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23
Q

Which of the following is included in GDP this year?

A.

Social Security payments from the U.S. government to retired people

B.

the purchase of a 1965 Ford Mustang

C.

the purchase of 100 shares of Microsoft stock

D.

the purchase of a ticket to a Rolling Stones concert this year.

E.

the purchase of used golf clubs.

A

the purchase of a ticket to a Rolling Stones concert this year.

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24
Q

Real GDP is nominal GDP adjusted for:

A

changes in price

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25
Q

To be counted as unemployed, one must:

A

be out of work and be actively looking for a job.

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26
Q

If a country has a working-age population of 200 million, 135 million people with jobs, and 15 million people unemployed and seeking employment, then its unemployment rate is:

A

10%

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27
Q

Which of the following would describe a person who is counted as unemployed by the government?
I. Stan does not have a job but is actively seeking employment.
II. Beverly has a part-time job but would prefer a full-time job.
III. Moesha does not have a job because she recently retired.

A

I only.

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28
Q

Anna recently moved to Boston in order for her husband Joe to begin a new job as an economics professor at Harvard. Anna is an experienced surgeon who is currently interviewing with several different hospitals in Boston. Anna is currently:

A

frictionally unemployed.

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29
Q

Sam, who is 55 years old and has been a steel worker for 30 years, is unemployed because the steel plant in his town closed and moved to Mexico. Sam is experiencing:

A

structural unemployment.

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30
Q

Which of the following equations describes the calculation of the natural unemployment rate?

Natural unemployment = Frictional unemployment + Structural unemployment

B.

Natural unemployment = Actual unemployment - Structural unemployment

C.

Natural unemployment = Cyclical unemployment + Structural unemployment

D.

Natural unemployment = Frictional unemployment + Structural unemployment + Cyclical unemployment

E.

Natural unemployment = Frictional unemployment + Cyclical unemployment

A

.

Natural unemployment = Frictional unemployment + Structural unemployment

31
Q

When a recent college graduate with a major in Economics attends a job fair, it is an example of :

A

frictional unemployment.

32
Q

Over the last year, Eli has been working very hard and his employer has taken notice by giving him a 6% raise in his salary. During this last year, overall prices in the economy have increased by 4%. Given this information, Eli’s real wage has:

A

increased by 2%

33
Q

Which of the following is true?

Unexpected inflation benefits borrowers but does not affect lenders.

B.

Unexpected inflation benefits lenders but does not affect borrowers.

C.

Unexpected deflation benefits lenders but does not affect borrowers.

D.

Unexpected inflation benefits borrowers and hurts lenders.

E.

Unexpected inflation benefits lenders and hurts borrowers.

A

Unexpected inflation benefits borrowers and hurts lenders.

34
Q

Which of the following represents the best scenario for a bank lending its money to a customer?

fixed interest rate of 10% with 7% inflation

B.

fixed interest rate of 11% with 5% inflation

C.

fixed interest rate of 8% with 1% inflation

D.

fixed interest rate of 12% with 7% inflation

E.

fixed interest rate of 19% with 15% inflation

A

fixed interest rate of 8% with 1% inflation

35
Q

If the CPI is 120 in Year 1 and 150 in Year 2, then the rate of inflation from Year 1 to Year 2 is _____.

A

25%

36
Q

Which one of the following price indices is commonly used to measure the cost of living?

wholesale price index

B.

producer price index

C.

GDP deflator

D.

human development index

E.

consumer price index

A

consumer price index

37
Q

If the MPS = .1, then the value of the multiplier equals:

A

10

38
Q

According to the wealth effect, when the price level decreases, the purchasing power of assets:

A

C.

increases and consumer spending increases.

39
Q

As a result of a decrease in the value of the dollar in relation to other currencies, American imports decrease and exports increase. Consequently, there is a(n):

A

D.

increase in aggregate demand.

40
Q

Aggregate demand will increase if:

A

E.

the public becomes more optimistic about future income.

41
Q

The multiplier is equal to:

A

A.

1/[1–MPC].

42
Q

Use the “Shift of the Aggregate Demand Curve” Figure 17-2. A movement from point Con AD2 to point A on AD1 may have been the result of :

A.

a higher aggregate price level.

B.

lower interest rates.

C.

an increase in investment demand due to optimistic GDP forecasts.

D.

a decrease in investment due to higher interest rates.

E.

decreases in the taxes paid by businesses.

A

D.

a decrease in investment due to higher interest rates.

43
Q

If the Fed increases the quantity of money in circulation:

A

E.

interest rates decrease, investment increases, and the aggregate demand curve shifts to the right.

44
Q

Which of the following would likely cause the short-run aggregate supply curve to shift to the left?

A.

An increase in personal income taxes.

B.

A decrease in consumer spending.

C.

An increase in the price of imported oil.

D.

An increase in consumer spending.

E.

A decrease in the price of imported oil.

A

C.

An increase in the price of imported oil.

45
Q

A general increase in wages will result in the:

A

B.

short-run aggregate supply shifting to the left.

46
Q

Use the “Shifts of the AD–AS Curves” Figure 19-1. In the short run, a decrease in investment is illustrated by:

A

Panel (B).

47
Q

A decrease in aggregate demand will generate _______ in real GDP and _______ in the price level in the short run.

A

C.

a decrease; a decrease

48
Q

A positive demand shock will:

A

A.

increase the aggregate price level and the aggregate output.

49
Q

If commodity prices rise unexpectedly, it will cause:

A

A.

a negative supply shock.

50
Q

Use the “Inflationary and Recessionary Gaps” Figure 19-3. In Panel (a), the intersection of SRAS with AD indicates:

A

A.

an economy experiencing a recessionary gap.

51
Q

Use the “Policy Alternatives” Figure 19-5. In Panel (a), suppose that the initial equilibrium is at real GDP level Y1 and price level P2. At real GDP level Y1 there is:

A

B.

a recessionary gap.

52
Q

Use the “AD–AS” Figure 19-8. Suppose that initially the economy is at long-run equilibrium. Then the government decides to cut taxes, as a result

A

E.

AD will shift to the right.

53
Q

Fiscal policy refers to:

A

D.

the manipulation of government spending and taxations.

54
Q

Expansionary fiscal policy includes:

A

C.

decreasing taxes.

55
Q

Use the “AD–AS” Figure 20-9. Consider an economy that is producing an output level of Y1. Then the economy is in:

A

C.

an inflationary gap and contractionary fiscal policy can remove the gap.

56
Q

Assume that marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, and potential output is $800 billion. If current real GDP is $700 billion, which of the following policies would bring the economy to potential output?

A

D.

Increase government spending by $20 billion.

57
Q

The reserve ratio is the:

A

C.

fraction of deposits the banks hold in their vaults.

58
Q

If banks were required to keep 100% of deposits in reserves, they could:

A

B.

make no loans.

59
Q

The Federal Reserve System is the _______ for the United States.

A

C.

central bank

60
Q

The major tools of monetary policy available to the Federal Reserve System include:

A

B.

reserve requirements, open-market operations, and the discount rate.

61
Q

To _______ the money supply, the Fed could ________.

A

B.

increase; conduct open-market purchases

62
Q

A business will want to borrow to undertake an investment project when the rate of return on that project is:

A

A.

greater than the interest rate.

63
Q

Monetary policy attempts to affect the overall level of spending in the economy by changes in:

A

A.

interest rates and the quantity of money.

64
Q

Use the “Changes in the Money Supply” Figure 31-2. If the supply of money shifts from S1 to S2, the Fed must have _______ government bonds in the open market.

A

bought

65
Q

The market in which foreign currencies are traded is known as the:

A

D.

foreign exchange market.

66
Q

Suppose that the value of the euro fell from $1.47 on January 1, 2009 to $1.40 on January 12, 2009. This implies that:

A

D.

The euro depreciated and the dollar appreciated during this period of time.

67
Q

Suppose that the U.S. and European Union (EU) are the only trading partners in the world. If interest rates in the U.S. are significantly lower than those in the EU, we would expect:

A

B.

the demand for the dollar to fall, depreciating the dollar.

68
Q

Suppose that the U.S. and European Union (EU) are the only trading partners in the world. If the EU imposes some import tariffs on U.S. goods, we would expect:

A

C.

the demand for the dollar to decrease, depreciating the dollar.

69
Q

All other things being equal, if the economy of Europe expands rapidly and this increases tourism dramatically in the United States, which of the following will be the likely result?

A

D.

The U.S. dollar will appreciate.

70
Q

All other things unchanged, a decrease in the value of the dollar against the euro _______ U.S. net exports and shifts the aggregate demand curve to the _______.

A

B.

increases, right

71
Q

When a country’s currency experiences a real appreciation, this causes:

A

E.

exports to fall, and imports to rise.

72
Q

A fixed exchange rate is:

A

B.

set by government.

73
Q

A decrease in the demand for American-made goods will

A

decrease the demand for dollars in the foreign exchange market.

74
Q
A