Final Exam PQ (p1-90) Flashcards
Arthropod borne infections are direct infections
F
Drinking water cannot transmit infective agents since it is hypoosmotic
F
Aerogenic infection is a form of direct infection
F
Infective agents cannot survive in the soil, so soil cannot be a source of infection.
F
Direct infection happens when infected animals pass the infection with water.
F
I f the arthropod is a true vector, if it brings the pathogen into a susceptible animal
F
The arthropod is a true vector, if it can take the pathogen to a further distance.
F
Infection cannot happen through water since bacteria and viruses are inactivated in
water.
F
Meat is never involved in transmission of infections since fermentation of meat kills
agents.
F
Germinative infection is very frequent in mammals
F
New-born animals cannot be infected from the milk thanks to the colostral antibodies.
F
Vertical infection does not occur in mammals
F
Horizontally infections happen only in birds
F
Germinative infection is frequent in mammals, it will result in malformation of the
foetuses.
F
Galactogen infection cannot happen when the animals receive colostrum, since the
antibodies in the colostrum prevent it.
F
Galactogen infection is a form of horizontal infections.
F
) If the dam infects newborn animals, we speak about horizontal infection.
F
Germinative infection can occur mainly in mammals.
F
Horizontal infection does not occur in mammals. F
Vertical infection does not occur in mammals. F
Germinative infection does not occur in mammals. F
Galactogen infection does not occur in mammals F
In germinative infection, the placenta is infected by the mother during pregnancy.F
Germinative infection is a rare form of horizontal infection. F
In germinative infection, the newborn is infected through the milk. F
In the case of cyclozoonoses arthropods are responsible for maintaining the infections F
If humans infect animals we speak about metazoonoses. F
In case of secondary infection, a new pathogen infects an already cured animal. F
In case of secondary infection, two pathogens infect the host simultaneously. F
In case of secondary infection, one of the agents is always a virus. F
Stenoxen agents have a wide host range. F
There is no minimum number of agents necessary to infection, because they can replicate in the host F
The amount of the agent does not influence the outcome of the infection, since it can replicate in the host. F
Virulence is a stable characteristic of an agent. F
Species specific resistance can be overcome by increasing the number of agents. F
Within a pathogenic species no avirulent strains can occur. F
Foetuses do not have immune reactions F
Fetuses have no active immune response F
T he normal microflora of the gut is essential for animals; they cannot live without it F
Foetuses have no immune response; they appear only in 2-4 week old animals F
The age of the animals does not influence their susceptibility to a certain agent F
From 2nd trimester of pregnancy, the foetus produces an immune response against any antigen. F
There is no immune response in the foetus, only from 4 weeks after birth. F
Fetuses cannot be infested since the placenta completely isolates them. F
The incubation time is the time between the appearance of the clinical signs and death of the animal F
Subacute diseases last one or 2 days. F
Intra uterine infections does not occur in mammals since the agents cannot penetrate the placenta. F
In the case of generalised infections the placenta prevents the infection of the foetus. F
The agent does not replicate in dead end hosts F
Dead end hosts do not show clinical signs, they die without signs F
In the case of latent infection the agents are continuously shed F
In the case of latent infections, the agents are continually shed F
Abortion is the main clinical sign of abortive infections F
The animals do not carry the agent after recovery from an infectious disease because the immune system eliminates it. F
Tolerated infections result in high level of immune reaction. F
Infected animals have a high level of antibodies in the case of tolerated infections F
The agent is not shed in the case of inapparent infections. F
When the clinical signs disappear, shedding the agent is finished F
In the case of an abortive infection no clinical signs will be seen F
) In the case of latent infection only mild clinical signs will be seen F
Only animals showing clinical signs can shed infective agents. F
Latent infection is common in the case of Gram-positive bacteria. F
Inapparent infections cannot be detected in laboratory examinations. F
In case of abortive infection, the animal always aborts. F
Tolerated infection can be demonstrated only by serology.F
During a tolerated infection the animals are seropositive. F
) In the case of latent infection no clinical signs can be seen. F
Asymptomatic infections cannot be manifest. F
Animals do not carry the agents after recovery from an infectious disease. F
Mortality show what proportion of the diseased animals die. F
Morbidity shows the percentage of dead animals compared to the size of the herd F
Lethality shows the number of died animals compared to the total number of the herd. F
Prevalence shows the number of diseased animals compared to the total number of the
herd. F
Mortality shows the proportion of dead animals compared to the number of diseases ones. F
Epidemic diseases are fast spreading; they are fast transmitted between continents F
Pandemic diseases have no tendency to spread. F
Lethality shows the ratio of dead animals and the total stock. F
Hemagglutination inhibition test is used for the detection of antigens of certain agents. F
Antigens of certain agents can be detected using PCR F
Surface antigens of certain agents are detected with ELIZA or PCR F
Infective agents can be detected 2-3days after infection using serological tests F
Virus Neutralisation test is used for the detection of antigens of the virus F
MATSA is a form of disease F
Microscopic detection of agents is not used in diagnostic work anymore F
If an animal is infected laboratory tests always detect the agent. F
Polymerase chain reaction is used for the detection of antigens of the agent. F
Microscopic examination of samples is not used in the diagnosis of infectious diseases any more. F
Antibacterial treatment is forbidden in the EU in the case of viral diseases. F
No aetiological treatment is available in the case of viral diseases F
Mass treatment using antibiotics is not allowed in the EU. F
All bacterial agents can be eradicated with antibiotic treatment F
Use of antibiotics in the case of diseases caused by viruses is not allowed because of antibiotic resistance. F
In case of viral diseases, no antibiotics are given. F
Antibiotics may be used only until the disappearance of the clinical signs. F
Only diseased animals have to be treated with antibiotics to prevent resistance. F
There is no anti-viral therapy. F
In case of import of animals into a farm, animals in the quarantine must only be observed, there is nothing to do with them if they do not show clinical signs F
Eggs of different species can be hatched together; they cannot infect each other thanks to the different hatching time. F
Isolated keeping of different age groups of the same species cannot prevent spreading of infectious diseases since all animals of the same species are susceptible to the same
agents. F
Day-old birds cannot be infected in the hatchery because they are protected by yolk Immunity. F
There is no maternal protection in birds. F
Maternal protection occurs only in mammals. F
Animals having epitheliochorial placenta receive maternal antibodies only through the placenta F
The protein and antibody content of the colostrum is stable in the first week after calving F
Absorption of maternal antibodies from the colostrum in the first three days is not changing F
Colostrum is not important in protection of calves since the antibodies can go through the placenta F
The immunoglobulin content of the colostrum is not changed in the first week after birth. F
New-born animals cannot be infected from the milk thanks to the colostral antibodies. F
The protein content of the colostrum remains high for the first two weeks after giving birth. F
The immune globulin content of the colostrum remains high for the first week after giving birth. F
The enteral absorption of immunoglobulins is about the same for a week after birth. F
The endotheliochorial placenta prevents to transport of immunoglobulins to the foetus F
Homologous hyperimmune serum can provide about a year-long protection. F
Adjuvants in vaccines increase the shelf life of vaccines F
The method of vaccination has no effect on the efficacy of the vaccination F
Deletion vaccines can only be used as live vaccines. F
The colostral immunoglobulins have no effect on the vaccination of the new born animals F
DIVA principle can only be used if the animals are vaccinated with deletion vaccines F
For safety reasons only inactivated vaccines are used F
Live vaccines always contain avirulent agents. F
Live vaccines are less effective than the inactivated ones. F
Live vaccines are dangerous, they are not on the market any more. F
Live vaccines are not used in Europe any more. F
Live vaccines do not provide good immunity. F
Marker vaccines are used to mark the site of vaccination. F
It is not allowed to use inactivated deletion vaccines in the EU. F
Marker vaccines are marked with dyes.F
The immune response produced by an attenuated vaccine is low. F
Vaccines containing attenuated strains are not used anymore.F
The amount of antigen in the vaccine has no effect on the efficacy of the vaccine. F
Eradication with selection method is not done nowadays F
Eradication with generation shift cannot be used if the level of infection is high in the herd F
Eradication using generation shift method is mainly used in Poultry F
Implantation of washed embryos from a non infected dam into infected one is a way of eradication F
Eradication using the generation shift method is mainly used in pig herds. F
In the case of generation shift the infected animals must be slaughtered at the beginning of the eradication procedure. F
Caesarean section is the only way of birth when eradication is carried out using the SPF method F
Herd replacement is the cheapest way of eradication of a disease F
Embryo transfer cannot be used for eradication, since the embryo can be infected. F
The selection method cannot be combined vaccination. F
If eradication is made by selection method, vaccination is forbidden.F
Generation shift is a frequently used eradication method in swine. F
In eradication by selective breeding, only the animals shedding the bacteria are eliminated. F
In eradication by selective breeding, vaccination cannot be used. F
Eradication by selective breeding is not used anymore. F
Selection (test and remove) is not used to eradicate a disease anymore. F
There is no neutralizing epitope of parvoviruses. F
SMEDI is caused by goose circovirus. F
SMEDI is caused by porcine circovirus F
If 75-day-old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus respiratory clinical signs can be seen in the piglets. F
If 100-day-old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus, respiratory clinical signs can be seen. F
If 100-day-old swine fetuses are infected with parvovirus, dermatitis is a clinical sign F
If 15 day old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus myoclonia congenital is a
clinical sign F
If 100-day-old swine fetuses are infected with parvovirus, respiratory clinical signs can
be seen F
) If 75 day old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus abortion can be seen F
If 15 day old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus mummification can be seen F
The porcine parvovirus 1 causes renal disorders in adults F
PCR is used for the detection of antibodies against porcine parvovirus 1 F
Porcine SMEDI can only be induced by parvoviruses. F
PPV-1 induces diarrhoea in suckling piglets. F
Neurological disorders are frequent in Porcine parvovirus infections. F
Swine parvovirus maternal antibodies can exist up to 6 to 12 months of age. F
Porcine parvovirus can cause neurological signs in sows. F
Porcine parvovirus frequently causes diarrhoea in piglets. F
Porcine parvoviruses are genetically uniform. F
PPV-1 vaccination must be started at 4-6 weeks of age. F
Vaccination against canine parvovirus 2 is independent from maternal antibodies F
The parvovirus enteritis of dogs is caused by canine parvovirus 1 F
The parvoviral enteritis of dogs is type 3 hypersensitivity F
Maternal antibodies against canine parvovirus can protect dogs for about 2 years F
The replication of canine parvovirus 2 is in the crypt cells of large intestine F
Maternal antibodies of dogs protect not longer than 2 weeks in the case of parvoviral enteritis of dogs F
Canine parvoviruses do not infect cats F
Dog parvovirus enteritis is nowadays very rare. F
Dog parvovirus can be detected directly from Sera, Saliva. Foetus. F
Maternal antibodies usually protect for 2-3 weeks against Canine parvovirus disease. F
Canine parvoviruses form a single antigenic group. F
Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus protect only till 2 weeks age. F
Hyperimmune serum can be used for the treatment of feline panleukopenia F
Feline panleukopenia virus infection of dogs may cause acute diarrhea F
Feline panleukopenia viruses may infect dogs F
Cat panleukopenia virus can infect only cats. F
Cat panleukopenia virus causes disease only in cats.F
To cat panleukopenia virus only cats are susceptible. F
Europe is free of Feline panleukopenia. F
The mink enteritis is a type 2 hypersensitivity F
Aleutian mink disease and mink enteritis are caused by the same virus. F
Aleutian mink disease is caused by protoparvovirus, like cat parvovirus F
Aleutian mink disease virus causes enteritis. F
Vaccines are available against Aleutian mink disease. F
Vaccines are used to prevent Aleutian Mink Disease F
Aleutian mink disease is caused by cat parvovirus F
Aleutian mink disease is a type IV hypersensitivity F
Aleutian mink disease is a type I hypersensitivity F
Attenuated vaccines can be used against Aleutian mink disease F
Inactivated vaccines are used against Aleutian mink disease F
Live vaccines are used against Aleutian Mink Disease. F
Aleutian mink disease virus induces enteritis in older minks F
The Aleutian Mink Disease is usually acute. F
Aleutian Mink Disease occurs only in the US. F
Enteritis is a clinical sign of Aleutian Mink Disease. F
The Derzsy’s disease virus causes pneumonia. F
The Derzsy’s disease virus can infect ducks. F
Derszys disease is caused by a polyomavirus F
The Derzsy’s disease virus causes conjunctivitis F
Derzsy ́ s disease virus does not infect the egg. F
The Derzsy’s disease virus can infect ducks. F
The duck parvovirus can infect goose.
F
The circovirus is too small so it’s a bad antigen F
Circovirus can easily be cultured in different homologous cell lines. F
Circoviruses can be cultured easily in many cell lines. F
Resistance of circovirus is very low, in the environment they are inactivated within a day. F
Only causes the depletion of B-lymphocytes. F
The circovirus has circular RNA in its genome. F
The Derzsy’s disease virus causes pneumonia. F
The Derzsy’s disease virus can infect ducks. F
Derszys disease is caused by a polyomavirus F
The Derzsy’s disease virus causes conjunctivitis F
Derzsy ́ s disease virus does not infect the egg. F
The Derzsy’s disease virus can infect ducks. F
The circovirus is too small so it’s a bad antigen F
Circovirus can easily be cultured in different homologous cell lines. F
Circoviruses can be cultured easily in many cell lines. F
Resistance of circovirus is very low, in the environment they are inactivated within a day. F
The circovirus has circular RNA in its genome. F
Detection of PCV2’s DNA is enough for the correct diagnosis. F
In pigs the porcine circovirus 2 can cause BFD. F
Porcine circovirus 2 always causes clinical signs in pigs F
Porcine circovirus 2 always causes clinical signs in cattle F
There is no efficient vaccine against PCV2 F
Porcine circoviruses cannot be responsible for reproductive disorders F
Porcine circoviruses are genetically and antigenically uniform. F
For prevention of Swine circovirus disease only general hygienic measures can be used. F
Swine circovirus causes only respiratory signs. F
Incubation period of porcine circovirus disease is short, some days. F
Predisposing factors for Porcine Circovirus associated disease can be Food management. F
Porcine circovirus-1 may damage the foetus. F
Porcine circoviruses cannot be responsible for reproductive disorders. F
Reproductive disorders caused by Porcine circoviruses are only significant in North America. F
PMWS is a type 3 hypersensitivity F
PMWS is a type 4 hypersensitivity F
One of the most common pathological signs of PMWS is glomerulonephritis F
A clinical sign of PMWS can be haemorrhages in the skin F
In pigs the porcine circovirus 1 can cause PMWS F
PDNS is a type IV hypersensitivity F
Porcine dermatitis nephropathy can only be caused by circoviruses. F
Porcine dermatitis and nephropathy syndrome are only caused by PCV-2. F
PDNS is only caused by PCV-1. F
PDNS does not occur in Hungary. F
PDNS is caused by both PCV-1 and PCV-2. F
PDNS is not caused by PCV F
PDNS is a rare infection causing clinical signs only in piglets before weaning. F
Prevention of PDNS is with live attenuated vaccines. F
In pigs the porcine circovirus 2 can cause BFD. F
Avian circovirus causes clinical signs similar to those seen in PDNS. F
The pigeon circovirus is not an important disease because the virus causes feather and beak deformities F
The beak and feather diseases causes typically neurological signs F
In parrots porcine circovirus 2 causes the psittacine beak and feather disease F
Pigeon circoviruses are antigenically uniform. F
Avian circoviruses do not cause clinical signs in domestic birds. F
Avian circoviruses do not cause disease in wild birds. F
Inactivated vaccines are used against pigeon circovirus infections. F
Pigeon circovirus infections do not occur in Hungary, the disease is prevented by vaccination. F
Vaccines are available for Pigeon Circoviruses. F
Clinical signs of PBFDV (Psittacine Beak and Feather Disease Virus) are only seen at time of moulting. F
The chicken infectious anaemia virus is also commonly detected in goose. F
The chicken infectious anaemia virus causes only anaemia F
The chicken anaemia virus does not replicate in lymphoid progenitors F
The chicken infectious anaemia causes clinical signs similar to those seen in PDNS F
Vertical infectious is not possible in chicken infectious anaemia F
The chicken infectious anaemia is a disease of hens F
Infectious Chicken anaemia virus can cause clinical signs only in layer hens. F
Chicken anaemia virus infection can result in high mortality of chickens over 3 weeks of age. F
There is no vaccine available against papillomaviruses F
Bovine papillomavirus is malign. F
The sarcoid is caused by equine papillomavirus F
The sarcoid is the disease of cattle F
Papillomaviruses replicates in the kidney F
Bovine papillomavirus can cause metastasis in horse F
Papillomaviruses cause cervical cancer in dogs F
Papillomaviruses can be cultured in epithelial cell lines. F
Treatment of haemorrhagic nephritis enteritis virus can be effective with vaccine against circovirus. F
The haemorrhagic nephritis enteritis virus causes glomerulonephritis F
The primary replication of haemorrhagic nephritis enteritis virus is in small intestine F
Polyomavirus never infects mammals F
Goose haemorrhagic enteritis and nephritis is frequent in ducks F
Haemorrhagic enteritis and nephritis of geese is only prevalent in France F
Haemorrhagic nephritis and enteritis of geese is caused by herpes viruses. F
Goose polyomavirus causes haemorrhagic nephritis and enteritis in all age groups. F
Haemorrhagic nephritis and enteritis of geese is caused by a Herpesvirus. F
Adenoviruses are enveloped viruses, therefore they are sensitive to detergents F
Adenoviruses are arboviruses. F
Adenoviruses are not too resistant enveloped viruses. F
Adenoviruses have mostly a broad host spectrum (euryxen pathogens) F
Adenoviruses are poor antigens F
There is no cross reactivity and cross protection among adenoviruses within genera F
There are no serological cross-reactions between different adenovirus species. F
Adenovirus infections always result in severe disease F
Several adenoviruses of domestic animals are zoonotic agents F
Adenoviruses usually cause central nervous diseases with high lethality. F
Only attenuated vaccines can be applied for immunization against adenoviruses. F
Adenoviruses infect only mammalian hosts. F
Adenoviruses usually cause central nervous diseases with high lethality. F
The hepatitis-hydropericardium syndrome can be caused by siadenoviruses F
Only attenuated vaccines can be applied for immunization against adenoviruses. F
Adenoviruses are zoonotic agents. F
Cholelithiasis is frequently seen in ovine adenovirus 4 infections of rams F
Adenoviruses can cause purulent bronchoalveolar pneumonia in calves and lambs F
Infertility and abortions are the most significant signs of bovine adenovirus infections F
No long-term carrier stage is seen in canine adenovirus serotype 1 infections. F
Lymphocyte cell count is not changed during Canine adenovirus 1 infection. F
Canine Adenovirus 1 infection doesn’t cause viraemia F
The canine adenovirus causes disease only in dogs F
Canine adenovirus infects only dogs F
Only inactivated vaccines are available against infectious canine hepatitis infections F
Glaucoma is a frequent sign of peracute canine infectious hepatitis F
Dogs carry Canine adenovirus serotype-1 usually in the spleen. F
The Canine adenovirus-1 can cause disease only in dogs. F
Infectious Canine Hepatitis is usually seen in elderly dogs. F
Causative agent of Rubarth ́s disease is CAdV-2. F
Canine infectious hepatitis is caused by several adenovirus serotypes. F
Canine adenovirus is characterized by hepatitis and abortion. F
CAdV-2 causes CNS disease in puppies. F
Rubarth’s disease is caused by CAdV-2. F
Rubarth’s disease is a disease of older cats. F
Adenoviruses frequently cause encephalitis in chicken F
Chicken adenoviruses are species-specific. F
Antibiotic therapy is forbidden in turkey haemorrhagic enteritis F
Marble Spleen Disease virus causes lymphatic tumours in geese. F
Egg drop syndrome virus causes cloaca paralysis F
Egg drop syndrome virus causes severe inflammation of the ovaries in hens F
The egg drop syndrome is mostly transmitted by arthropods F
The postmortem lesions of egg drop syndrome virus and polyoma virus in goose are the same F
The pathological lesions of egg drop syndrome virus and polyoma virus in goose are the same F
The egg drop syndrome virus may cause respiratory disease in young geese F
Egg drop syndrome usually appears in the beginning of the laying season F
The Egg Drop Syndrome virus causes hepatitis and hydropericardium in young geese. F
The Egg Drop Syndrome virus is mainly transmitted by arthropods. F
The Egg Drop Syndrome virus damages the oviduct of day-old chicken. F
Egg Drop Syndrome is a disease of chickens of all age groups. F
Adenoviruses of birds, is characteristic with mild diarrhoea and rough, hard eggshell. F
Egg Drop Syndrome is caused by an Aviadenovirus. F
Herpesviruses are good antigens. F
Alphaherpesviruses are host specific slowly multiplying (>24hrs) viruses F
Herpes viruses are resistant to detergents F
Herpesviruses are strong antigens, therefore single vaccinations provide lifelong protection F
There are no serological cross-reactions between different herpesvirus species. F
Because the genome of herpesvnruses is very stable, no attenuated mutant vaccine strains are available. F
Infectious bovine vulvovaginitis virus strains cause abortions and foetal deformities F
The infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus (IBRV) causes haemorrhagic gastroenteritis. F
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus also causes mastitis in cows F
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus is transmitted by arthropods F
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis virus frequently causes encephalitis in old cow and bulls F
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis virus frequently causes encephalitis in old sow and bulls F
Attenuated vaccines are used in pregnant cows against Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis virus. F
Pregnant cows can be immunized against IBRV only with attenuated vaccines. F
Because Bovine herpesvirus l causes latent infections; it is not possible to eradicate it from a cattle population. F
Only inactivated vaccines are available against Bovine herpesvirus l. F
Seropositive cattle cannot be carriers of the Infections Rhinotracheitis virus. F
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis virus (IBRV) can be transmitted through vectors. F
The IBR virus causes nephritis in calves usually in the age between one and six months. F
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR) cause serous nasal discharge. F
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis in cattle 6 months of age can cause encephalitis. F
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis is rapidly spread within the herd. F
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis is no longer present in Hungary. F
The respiratory form of Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis is often followed by genital symptoms. F
We can see characteristic clinical signs of Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis in day-old calves.F
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis virus mainly cause encephalitis in cattle older than 6 months. F
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis is rare, BHV-1 only affects cattle. F
In the transmission IBRV, the most important route is the germinative route. F
Genital form of IBR is often followed by abortion. F
Bovine Herpes virus 2 frequently causes abortion F
Bovine herpes mamillitis virus can cause mastitis in cows F
The bovine herpes mamillitis virus causes lesions on the skin of the milkers, therefore it is a zoonotic agent. F
Bovine herpesvirus 2 is the most frequent primary cause of mastitis in cattle F
Bovine Herpes Mammillitis virus causes milkers’ nodules in humans. F
Inclusion body rhinitis is predisposing to fatal respiratory disease in pigs F
Malignant catarrhal fever is mostly fatal in sheep. F
Malignant catarrhal fever is an alphaherpesvirus causing latent infection in ganglia. F
Malignant catarrhal fever develops only in suckling calves up to two weeks of age. F
Malignant catarrhal fever can be seen only in calves younger than one month. F
Malignant catarrhal fever causes only mild respiratory disease in sheep F
Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus F
Malignant catarrhal fever is frequently seen in cats F
Cattle should be vaccinated against malignant catarrhal fever F
Goats are the reservoir hosts of the malignant catarrhal fever virus F
The incubation period of malignant catarrhal fever is less than one week F
Malignant catarrhal fever is quickly spreading from cattle to cattle. F
Cattle should be vaccinated against malignant catarrhal fever in every six months. F
The malignant catarrhal fever is caused by Bovine Herpes virus-2 F
Rodents are the reservoir hosts of the Malignant Catarrhal Fever virus. F
Swine are the reservoir host of the Malignant Catarrhal Fever virus. F
The Malignant Catarrhal Fever is caused by Bovine herpesvirus-2. F
We vaccinate calves 2 times against Malignant Catarrhal Fever.F
Malignant Catarrhal Fever does not occur in Europe. F
Malignant Catarrhal Fever spreads slowly within a cattle herd. F
Malignant Catarrhal Fever does not occur in Hungary. F
The Aujeszy’s disease virus is stenoxen. F
Wild boars are not susceptible to Aujeszy’s disease virus. F
Dogs should be vaccinated against Aujeszys disease F
Carnivores are the reservoir hosts of the Aujeszky’s disease virus F
The Aujeszys disease in cats is usually a mild respiratory disease with quick recovery F
The natural reservoir hosts of the Aujeszys disease virus are rodents F
The Aujeszy disease causes fatal pneumonia in Ruminants and Carnivores F
The Aujeszy disease is zoonosis F
The Aujeszy disease virus is stenoxen F
Rats are the reservoir hosts of the Aujeszky’s disease. F
Rodents are are the natural reservoir hosts of the Aujeszky’s disease F
The Suid herpesvirus 1 frequently causes encephalitis in humans. F
In adult swine the most frequent manifestation of Aujeszky’s disease is encephalitis F
Cattle should be vaccinated against Malignant Catarrhal Fever. F
Aujeszky disease causes pneumonia in susceptible piglets. F
Aujeszky disease doesn’t cause clinical signs in susceptible piglets. F
Aujeszky disease causes pruritus in susceptible piglets. F
Aujeszky disease causes 20-30% mortality in susceptible piglets. F
Older pigs are more frequently affected by Aujeszky ́s. F
Equine rhinopneumonitis virus is transmitted by arthropods. F
For immunisation against equine rhinopneumonitis virus mostly marker vaccines are used. F
Equine rhinopneumonitis virus causes cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the foetal hepatocytes. F
Equid herpesvirus 4 more frequently causes encephalitis than Equid herpesvirus 1 F
Equine rhinopneumonitis virus can cause purulent metritis F
Only equine herpesvirus 4 can cause abortion F
Pregnant mares abort usually in the acute phase of equine rhinopneumonitis F
After EHV1 infection pregnant mares abort in the acute febrile stage F
Immunisation against equine rhinopneumonitis virus provides life long protection F
Equine rhinopneumonitis virus is present only in North America F
Vaccinated horses cannot get infected with Equid herpesvirus 1 F
Equid herpesvirus 1 associated abortions are always sporadic F
Only pregnant mares should be immunized against Equid herpesvirus-1 infection. F
A single vaccination against Equid herpesvirus-1 provides life-long protection. F
Equine rhinopneumonitis virus can cause only respiratory problems. F
For immunisation against Equine rhinopneumonitis virus mostly marker vaccines are used. F
A single vaccination of a horse against EHV-1 induces protection for several years. F 27) Equine herpesvirus-4 primarily causes abortion in horses F
Vaccination containing Equine herpesvirus-1 also provides protection against EHV-4. F
Equine herpesvirus-1 primarily causes respiratory symptoms in horses. F
One vaccination is enough to prevent Equine herpesvirus-1. F
Horses should be vaccinated against Equine herpesvirus-1 every six months. F
Equid herpesvirus 5 causes encephalitis in foals F
Equine herpesvirus-2 and 5 causes pustular vulvovaginitis F
Equid herpesvirus-2 may cause Coital Exanthemas in horse. F
Equid herpesvirus-2 and 5 cause diarrhoea and hepatitis in foals. F
It is enough to vaccinate mares 2 times against Equine herpesvirus-2. F
Abortion is frequent complication of coital exanthema in mares F
Coital exanthema virus frequently causes abortion. F
Equine Coital Exanthema can cause abortion storms in studs. F
Equine herpesvirus-3 cause abortion storms. F
Feline herpesvirus infects dogs as well. F
Canine herpesvirus infection can cause blue eye disease. F
Herpesvirus infection of dogs is most severe in 3-6 months old puppies. F
Felid herpesvirus does not cause viraemia and abortion. F
Abortion is uncommon in feline rhinotracheitis of pregnant animals. F
Abortion is rare in rhinotracheitis infected pregnant cats. F
Feline herpesvirus does not cause respiratory signs, only viraemia and abortion F
Felid herpesvirus 1 spreads slowly in cat populations F
Ulcerations of the oral mucosa are frequent signs of Feline Rhinotracheitis. F
Feline Infectious Rhinotracheitis occurs in summer because Felid herpesvirus-1 is transmitted by mosquitoes. F
Feline herpesvirus-1 is mainly transmitted by mosquitoes. F
Felid herpesvirus-1 is moderately contagious: spreads slowly in cat populations.F
Feline Infectious Rhinotracheitis virus is transmitted mainly through the air. F
The infectious laryngotracheitis is seen only in young chickens. F
Diarrhoea is frequent in infectious laryngotracheitis of chickens. F
Encephalitis is a frequent complication in Infectious Laryngotracheitis of chickens F
Ducks are the most susceptible to infectious laryngotracheitis virus F
Chickens above 6 weeks of age are not susceptible to infectious laryngotracheitis F
The infectious laryngotracheitis can cause viraemia and pneumonia in young.. F
Infectious laryngotracheitis virus is typically transmitted by the germinative route F
Infectious laryngotracheitis is most frequently seen in day-old chickens F
Infectious laryngotracheitis virus is shed mainly with faeces F
Infectious Laryngotracheitis virus replicates in the liver of cats. F
Germinative route is the most important factor in the transmission of the Infectious Laryngotracheitis virus. F
Infectious Laryngotracheitis is most frequently seen in day-old turkey. F
Infectious Laryngotracheitis usually occurs clinically under 6 weeks of age. F
Infectious Laryngotracheitis virus invades the kidneys after viraemia. F
Infectious Laryngotracheitis of poultry spreads germinatively. F
Infectious Laryngotracheitis causes eggshell deformation. F
Infectious Laryngotracheitis frequently damages the oviduct of hen. F
The vaccines of Marek’s disease are not efficient. F
Lymphoproliferative form of Marek’s disease can be present in hens (older age). F
Lymphoproliferative form of Mareks disease is a chronic disease F
The duck herpesvirus causes cross immunity against Marek disease F
The free virions spread to organs independent of cells in the case of Marek disease F
Transient paralysis form of Mareks disease can be present in hens F
Neurological form of Mareks disease can be present in 4 week old chicken. F
There is in ovo vaccine against Mareks disease F
Intake of GaHV2 happens most frequently per os. F
Germinative infection does occur in Mareks disease F
In case of viraemia the GaHV2 spreads to fowl’s organs in red blood cells F
Marek disease is usually seen in chickens below 2 weeks of age. F
Marek disease virus is shed with faeces in high titres F
Marek disease is caused by turkey herpesvirus F
Transient paralysis by Marek’s disease usually ends in full recovery F
The chronic form of Marek disease is due to circuses of higher virulence F
Transient paralysis by Marek disease usually ends in full recovery. F
Marek’s disease is most frequently seen in geese and ducks. F
Humoral immunity plays the central role in the host’s defence against the Marek’s disease virus. F
The neurological form of the Marek’s disease is seen only in day-old chicks. F
Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of acute Marek’s disease. F
Marek ́s disease virus can ́t be prevented by vaccination, because it ́s immunosuppressive. F
The neurological form of Marek ́s disease has a mass appearance. F
The incubation time of acute Marek ́s disease is 1-2 days. F
The neurological form of Marek ́s disease leads to significant liver degeneration. F
Both serotypes of the Marek ́s virus cause disease in geese. F
North America is free of Marek ́s disease. F
Marek’s disease virus is shed mainly via the faeces. F
Marek ́s disease in the blood multiplies in the endothelial cells. F
Marek ́ s disease is a beta herpes virus. F
Marek’s disease primarily targets day old chickens. F
The neoplastic form of Marek’s is caused by low virulence strains. F
Prevention against Marek ́s: no measures needed as the disease remains mostly symptomless. F
No vaccination is needed against Marek’s disease. F
Marek’s disease viruses are uniform in their virulence. F
Only sporadic clinical cases of duck viral enteritis are seen in an affected flock F
Duck plaque (viral enteritis) can’t cause high mortality without secondary bacterial infection F
Duck viral enteritis is seldom fatal F
Treatment is the most effective control method for duck viral enteritis. F
Duck plague is more sever in wild birds than in domestic ducks. F
Duck plague only affects young ducklings F
Duck plague is only seen in day old ducklings F
Duck viral enteritis is usually mild, osmotic diarrhoea. F
Duck plague infects exclusively domestic and wild ducks. F
Antibiotic treatment is the most effective control method for Duck Viral Enteritis. F
Duck plague infects exclusively domestic and wild ducks. F
Beak deformity is a typical sign of Duck Plague. F
Muscovy duck are resistant to the Duck Viral Enteritis. F
Duck Plague/Duck viral Enteritis cause high mortality in all ages. F
Duck Plague/Duck viral Enteritis clinical signs in young ducks are only seen in birds up to 4 weeks of age. F
Duck Plague/Duck viral Enteritis vaccination is not needed as clinical signs are mild. F
Duck Plague only causes hepatitis in young ducks. F
Duck Plague only causes disease in ducks and geese. F
Duck Plague virus causes high mortality in both old and young birds. F
Duck Plague is a disease of young ducks only. F
In most cases the Duck Plague disease remain symptomless. F
Duck Plague is more severe in wild birds than domestic ducks. F
Pigeon herpesvirus mainly causes encephalitis in adult pigeons. F
Pigeon herpesvirus infections usually result a haemorrhagic deadly disease. F
Pigeon herpesvirus kills mostly day old pigeons F
Pigeon herpesvirus infection causes feather development problems F
Pigeon herpesvirus mainly causes encephalitis in adult pigeons F
Pigeon herpesvirus has the highest mortality in day-old pigeons. F
The eradication of monkeypox was successful F
Poxviruses cause inclusion body in the nucleus F
Pox viruses cause lesions in 4 stradia at the site of primer replication F
Parapox viruses cause long lasting immunity F
Poxvirus never cause viraemia and generalized infection. F
Poxvirus are a strong antigens, except for Orthopoxvirus F
Parapoxviruses are strong antigens. F
Avipox viruses can cause fever and rash in children (chickenpox). F
Cowpox causes a pockmark after Infection F
Cowpox virus frequently causes abortions and encephalitis of calves. F
Cowpox virus frequently cause transplacental infection and immunotolerance. F
The Cowpox virus infection is prevented by regular vaccination in endemic countries. F
In cattle the Cowpox infection is mostly fatal F
Recovering from Cowpox leaves lifelong immunity. F
Pseudocowpox virus is closely related to smallpox virus. F
Pseudocowpox virus can infect cats F
Pseudocowpox spreads slowly on a farm F
Pseudocowpox virus usually causes nodules on face of infected cats F
Pseudocowpox causes a pockmark after infection F
Pseudocowpox virus usually causes itchy red nodules on the face of infected person F
Pseudocowpox does not cause a milkers nodule F
Pseudocowpox infections result a long lasting immunity F
Pseudo-cowpox can cause Pseudo-lumpy skin disease in cats. F
Recovering from Pseudo-cowpox leaves/results in lifelong immunity. F
Pseudo-cowpox virus only infects cloven-hoofed animals. F
Bovine papular stomatitis virus can frequently cause coinfection with herpes mamillitis virus F
Vaccination against bovine popular stomatitis provides life-long immunity F
Bovine Papular Stomatitis virus causes vesicles in the oral cavity and hoofs of cattle. F
Calves should be vaccinated against Bovine Papular Stomatitis. F
The mortality of lumpy skin disease is high (above 80%). F
In lumpy skin disease the fertility is good. F
In lumpy skin disease the direct contact is very important. F
The mortality of lumpy skin disease is less than 30% F
The milk production is increased in lumpy skin disease F
The lumpy skin disease is only present in Africa F
Lumpy skin disease causes high mortality in cattle F
Lumpy skin disease is present only in Asia F
Lumpy Skin Disease results high mortality. F
Lumpy Skin Disease is caused by Parapoxviruses. F
Generalization is frequent in lumpy skin disease virus infections. F
The contagious pustular dermatitis can cause pneumonia. F
The contagious pustular dermatitis virus is related to goatpox virus F
Contagious pustular dermatitis virus can infect cows F
The orf virus is same as pseudocowpox F
Contagious pustular dermatitis (orf) virus causes skin lesions in pigs F
Contagious pustular dermatitis is often deadly at any age F
Vaccination against contagious pustular dermatitis virus provides lifelong protection. F
Contagious Pustular Dermatitis can only be seen on the teats of ewes. F
Inactivated vaccines are used against Contagious Pustular Dermatitis. F
Orf is a rare disease of sheep flocks and cattle herds. F
Sheep pox virus is a zoonotic agent. F
A clinical sign of sheeppox can be horseshoe shaped pockmarks on the wool covered body F
Vaccines against sheep poxvirus are widely used in Europe. F
The sheep and goatpox occurs worldwide. F
Sheep and goat poxviruses are mainly taken through the oral route F
The sheep and goat poxvirus is mainly spread by mosquitos F
Clinical signs of sheep and goatpox are seen only at site of the primer replication F
Goat pox virus is a zoonotic agent F
Sheep pox virus can cause skin lesions in humans F
Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of sheeppox virus F
Sheep and goat pox are endemic in Europe. F
Sheep – and goat pox are enzootic in Europe. F
Sheep – and goat pox virus is transmitted only vertically. F
Swinepox virus can infect cattle. F
The swinepox is always generalised F
Swinepox virus is a zoonotic agent F
Swine Pox is frequently generalized in adult pigs. F
Swine pox virus frequently causes interstitial pneumonia. F
Swine pox virus can cause respiratory signs and abortion. F
Swine pox is frequently generalized in adult pigs. F
The swinepox virus causes high economic losses. F
Myxomatosis is a zoonotic disease. F
Myxomatosis causes frequently serious clinical signs and high losses in Lepus europeus. F
A clinical sign of myxomatosis is the swollen belly F
Myxomatosis is not present in America F
Mosquito net can always prevent the myxomatosis F
Late summer is the best period to vaccinate rabbits against myxomatosis F
The attenuated myxomatosis virus has replaced the virulent virus in France F
Myxomatosis causes serious clinical signs in cotton tailed Rabbits F
Myxomatosis is only found in Australia F
There are no vaccines available against Myxomatosis. F
Virulent strains of the myxoma virus are only present in Australia. F
Myxomatosis virus causes high morbidity and mortality in hares. F
Tumour formation in the parenchymal organs is typical of Myxomatosis. F
Myxomatosis virus spread out to the world from China. F
Only domestic rabbits are susceptible to Myxomatosis. F
Avian poxviruses always cause cross immunity. F
Fowlpox is a zoonotic disease. F
The serious form of the fowlpox is the cutaneous form F
Fowlpox virus cause long lasting immunity F
Fowlpox virus can infection only chicken F
The diphtheritic form of fowlpox is usually less severe than the cutaneous F
Heterologous viruses of avian pox frequently cause generalization F
Fowl pox viruses cause generalized diseases in seals. F
The mucosal form of Fowl pox is benign. F
Only inactivated vaccines can be used for prevention against fowl pox. F
Fowlpox is eradicated from most of the European countries. F
Attenuated vaccines are forbidden to be used against Fowlpox. F
Avian pox viruses are species specific. F
ASF virus is shed in the urine of the infected animals F
The leading clinical sign in African swine fever is excess salivation F
The African swine fever virus genome codes only 2 proteins F
The African swine fever virus infects the swine by air F
In African swine fever cases of abortion are never observed F
The primary replication site of African swine fever virus is the oronasal mucosa. F
Vaccines are available in EU to be used in the control of African swine fever F
Vaccines are available to be used in the control of ASF F
In Europe the main route of infection is the transmission of the African swine fever by ticks F
ASF is always a peracute disease F
The African swine fever virus replicated in lymphocytes F
Wild boars may be chronically infected with African swine fever virus F
The resistance of the African swine fever virus is very low F
African swine fever is generally transmitted by mosquitoes F
African swine fever can cause disease in humans F
African swine fever virus can be inactivated by irradiation T
African Swine Fever virus infects every cloven hoofed animal F
African Swine Fever does not occur in Europe.F
Only activated vaccines are used for the prevention of African Swine Fever. F
In ASF cases abortion is never observed F
Attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of African swine fever. F
African Swine Fever virus has a low resistance. F
The clinical signs of African Swine Fever are more severe in wild boars than in farmed pigs. F
There is a widespread vaccination in endemic areas to prevent African Swine Fever. F
In Europe the ticks are the most important means in the transmission of the ASF virus. F
The moderately virulent ASF virus does not cause fever. F
In case of infection by highly virulent ASF virus we can see skin necrosis as clinical sign. F
The main tool against African Swine Fever is vaccination. F
Vaccination is used for prevention of African Swine Fever. F
African Swine Fever is endemic in Central Europe. F
African Swine Fever virus infects pigs and ruminants. F
African Swine Fever is caused by any arbovirus. F
Virus neutralization is the most important tool for African Swine Fever diagnosis. F
African Swine Fever infection of humans leads to cold like symptoms. F
The ASF virus can be detected by hemagglutination test F
The boutons in the intestines are characteristic pathological findings in case of ASF. F
Picornaviridae are enveloped viruses F
The resistance of Picornaviridae is low, they cannot survive in the environment F
Just State Vet medical steps and general preventative measures are used for prevention for Picornavirus. F
Cardioviruses have a narrow host range F
Picornavirus is characterized by encephalitis and severe diarrhoea. F
There is widespread vaccination to control teschovirus encephalomyelitis F
Teschovirus encephalomyelitis virus is transmitted by arthropods F
There is widespread vaccination using inactivated vaccines to prevent teschovirus encephalomyelitis. F
Porcine teschovirus encephalomyelitis virus is maintained by rodents.F
Porcine teschovirus encephalomyelitis virus can infect pigs and cattle.F
Porcine teschovirus encephalomyelitis virus cannot survive in the environment. F
Dogs and cats can be infected with Teschen disease virus. F
The main clinical sign of Teschen disease in sheep is pneumonia F
Teschen disease occurs in cattle, sheep and pigs F
Enteritis and pneumonia are frequent postmortem lesions of Teschen disease F
Enlargement of the spleen and haemorrhages are typical postmortem lesions of Teschen
disease F
Haemorrhages are typical postmortem lesions of Teschen disease F
Teschen disease is frequent all over the world F
Diarrhoea is a typical clinical sign of Teschen disease. F
Dogs and cats can be infected with Teschen disease virus. F
Teschen disease is endemic in Brazil. F
Teschen is caused by Enterovirus. F
Teschen disease causes diarrhoea in piglets. F
Inactivated vaccines are widely used in Europe to prevent Talfan disease F
There is widespread vaccination in Europe for prevention of Talfan disease F
The clinical signs of Talfan disease are more severe than that of Teschen disease F
Talfan disease occurs in any age groups F
Haemorrhages are typical postmortem lesions of Talfan disease F
Pigs and ruminants are susceptible to the agent of Talfan disease. F
The agent of Talfan disease is shed lifelong after the infections. F
Talfan infects piglets older than 4 months. F
Vesicles can be seen in the liver in the case of swine vesicular disease F
Swine vesicular disease virus cannot cause viraemia F
The resistance of swine vesicular disease virus is very low; it cannot survive in the environment F
Haemorrhages in the serous membranes can be frequently seen postmotem in the case of swine vesicular disease F
Haemorrhages can be seen post mortem in the case of swine vesicular disease F
The mortality of swine vesicular disease is 40-50% F
The mortality of swine vesicular disease is very high, it can be 50-60% F
Swine vesicular disease is frequently seen in Europe F
Only pigs are susceptible to swine vesicular disease virus. F
Swine vesicular disease is frequent among pigs F
Swine vesicular disease occurs only in Africa, it never occurred in Europe F
Swine vesicular disease virus can infect only pigs F
Swine Vesicular Disease virus can infect swine and ruminants. F
Swine Vesicular Disease virus does not cause viraemia, only local lesions can be seen. F
Swine vesicular disease virus cannot survive in the environment. F
Swine Vesicular Disease cause skin lesions in bovids. F
Swine Vesicular Disease is present only in Italy. F
Swine Vesicular Disease is present only in Hong Kong. F
Swine Vesicular Disease has been present in all European countries, but now only present in South-East Asia. F
Swine Vesicular Disease causes skin lesions in cattle. F
Swine Vesicular Disease is frequent among pigs. F
Haemorrhages in the parenchymal organs are frequent postmortem lesions of avian encephalomyelitis F
Haemorrhages are frequent postmortem lesions of avian encephalomyelitis. F
There is no germinative infection in the case of avian encephalomyelitis F
Avian encephalomyelitis is not transmitted germinatively. F
Avian Encephalomyelitis is not transmitted through the egg. F
Avian encephalomyelitis is caused by a double stranded DNA virus. F
Avian encephalomyelitis is caused by enterovirus. T
Avian encephalomyelitis is caused by a hepatovirus. F
Avian encephalomyelitis is not transmitted germinatively. F
Avian encephalomyelitis virus kills the embryo.F
Avian encephalomyelitis is present only in chickens. F
Avian encephalomyelitis virus is killed at hatching temperature. F
Infection via eggs does not occur in Avian encephalomyelitis.F
Avian encephalomyelitis is not transmitted through the egg. F
Germinative infection can happen in the case of duck hepatitis F
Duck hepatitis cannot be prevented with vaccination F
Duck hepatitis A virus does not cause viraemia. F
Duck hepatitis A virus can cause germinative infection. F
Clinical signs of duck hepatitis can be seen mainly in laying ducks. F
Germinative infection is the primary way of infection with Duck hepatitis A Virus. F
There are no vaccines for the prevention of Duck hepatitis. F
Clinical signs of duck hepatitis can be seen in all age groups. F
Duck Viral Hepatitis is present in Hungary on a large scale. F
Duck Viral Hepatitis is caused by type 1 and 2 coronavirus. F
Duck Viral Hepatitis causes haemorrhagic enteritis in older ducks.F
Encephalomyocarditis infections are rare. F
Encephalomyocarditis virus can infect only pigs. F
Encephalomyocarditis virus has a narrow host range.F
FMD is a chronic disease F
FMD spreads slowly within the herd F
Foot and mouth disease is serologically uniform F
Foot and mouth disease virus is uniform, there are no serotype or subtypes of it F
FMD ulcers are usually sharp edged and regular round shaped F
The primary replication site for FMD is the tongue mucosa F
The peracut form of FMD causes severe haemorrhages and death by shock F
The chronic form of FMD means arthritis F
FMD is transmitted by insect vectors F
The SAT-1,2 and 3 serotypes of FMD virus are present in Africa and Arabia. F
The main host (reservoir) of foot and mouth disease virus is swine F
There are no neutralizing antibodies produced against foot and mouth disease virus F
For laboratory tests FMD samples should be submitted frozen F
The resistance of foot and mouth disease virus is low F
In Europe supportive therapy is applied in the treatment of FMD F
Frothy and sticky nasal discharge is the characteristic sign of FMD F
All serotypes of foot and mouth disease can be detected worldwide F
The FMD virus is enveloped T
FMD virus cannot be propagated in cell culture F
FMD virus cannot be isolated in cell culture F
The FMD mortality is nearly 100% F
The mortality of foot and mouth disease is very high in all age groups F
The FMD suspected sample should be sent to lab by post (in mail) F
The primary replication sites of foot and mouth disease are the lymph nodes F
The primary replication sites of foot and mouth disease is the bone marrow F
Horses are susceptible to foot and mouth disease F
Cattle shed foot and mouth disease virus for a shorter time comparing to swine F
The foot and mouth disease virus is very sensitive to the environmental conditions F
Foot and mouth disease is transmitted by insect vectors F
We can observe the most severe foot and mouth disease signs on sheep F
In the control of foot and mouth disease vaccines are used in Europe F
Vaccination using attenuated vaccines is the main way of control of foot and mouth in Europe F
Foot and mouth disease virus can only infect animals F
Water buffalos are not susceptible for FMD. F
Serological examinations are important in diagnosis of FMD. F
The resistance of FMD virus is rather low, in the environment it is inactivated within days. F
Resistance of FMD virus is low, in the environment, they are inactivated within days. F
FMD virus is genetically and serologically uniform.F
Vaccination against FMD can prevent the infection. F
Genotype C of FMD virus is the most frequently detected worldwide. F
Shedding of FMD virus starts 3 days after the infection. F
Europe is endemically infected with Foot and Mouth disease. F
Pigs are not susceptible to Foot and Mouth disease. F
Vaccination is currently used against Foot and Mouth disease in Europe.F
Foot and Mouth disease virus can only infect ruminants. F
Foot and Mouth disease is caused by enteroviruses.F
Foot and Mouth disease is not present in South America. F
Foot and mouth disease are endemic in Europe. F.
Foot and mouth disease is clinically more severe in pigs than in cattle. F
Foot and mouth disease is caused by F2 viruses.F
In the Asian serotype of FMD there are 3 subtypes, Asia 1, 2 and 3. F
FMD causes most severe symptoms in pigs. F
In sheep, clinical signs are usually more severe than in cattle. F
Only the live attenuated strains can provide good immunity. F
Vaccination of cattle herds is permitted everywhere. F
The replication time of FMD virus is over one day F
VES is more contagious than FMD F
Vaccines are ideally used for the prevention against swine vesicular exanthema F
Swine vesicular exanthema virus is present worldwide F
The Vesicular Exanthema of swine virus infects only pigs. F
VES causes the highest mortality in pregnant sows F
VES can be easily differentiated from FMD by the character of the vesicles. F
We can differentiate VES from FMD by the lack of lameness. F
Rodents are the reservoir hosts of Vesicular Exanthema of Swine virus. F
Midges are the main vectors of the Vesicular exanthema of swine virus. F
Cat queens frequently abort in the acute phase of Feline Calici virus infection. F
Feline caliciviruses cause haemorrhagic enteritis F
Virulent systemic feline calicivirus causes more severe symptom in kittens. T
RHD induces clinical signs mostly in animals younger than 2 months F
RHD virus can be propagated in cell culture F
Vaccines against RHDV-1 induce protection against RHDV-2 too F
Encephalitis is a frequent sign of the rabbit haemorrhagic disease F
Rabbit haemorrhagic disease virus is transmitted by mosquitoes F
Australia is free of rabbit haemorrhagic disease F
Rabbit haemorrhagic disease virus usually causes death in 1-3 weeks old rabbits F
There are no vaccines available against rabbit haemorrhagic disease F
The incubation time of rabbit haemorrhagic disease is usually over 3 weeks F
The Rabbit Haemorrhagic Disease is present only in Australia. F
Rabbit Haemorrhagic Disease virus usually causes death in 1-3 weeks old rabbits. F
There are no vaccines available against Rabbit Haemorrhagic Disease. F
The Rabbit Haemorrhagic Disease is a chronic illness with low morbidity. F
The avian hepatitis E is a zoonotic disease F
Hepatitis E virus causes characteristic clinical symptoms in swine. F
Broilers are regularly vaccinated against avian nephritis virus F
Avian nephritis is more frequent in waterfowl than in chicken F
Avian nephritis virus caused by a picornavirus F
Avian nephritis virus is transmitted by rodents F
Avian nephritis virus caused by a picornavirus. F
Attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of chicken from avian nephritis virus. F
Togaviruses are strongly resistant to the environmental conditions F
Togaviruses cause airborne infection F
Togaviruses cause encephalomyelitis in horses in East-Asia and in Australia only F
No vaccines are available against togaviruses F
Horse encephalomyelitis viruses are transmitted by ticks F
Abortion is the main clinical sign of togavirus infection results in abortion of horses F
The leading clinical sign of togavirus infection is the frothy nasal discharge F
Togavirus infection in horses results in hepatitis F
Rodents serve as reservoirs for Venezuelan horse encephalomyelitis virus F
Horses encephalomyelitis vaccines defend against African horse sickness (cross protection) F
Horse encephalomyelitis viruses are transmitted by ticks F
Birds serve as reservoirs for Venezuelan horse encephalomyelitis virus. F
Western equine encephalitis causes the highest mortality. F
Equine encephalitis can be diagnosed easily by gross pathology. F
Recovery from equine horse encephalitis induces immunity that lasts only 1 year F
Equine encephalitis vaccines are available only for humans F
Eastern equine encephalomyelitis virus infects only horses F
Ticks are involved in the transmission cycle of EEE. F
Viral equine encephalomyelitis is usually diagnosed on the basis of clinical signs F
The Eastern Equine Encephalitis is present in Japan and Korea. F
Togaviruses caused encephalomyelitis of horses occurs frequently worldwide. F
Humans are not susceptible to horse encephalomyelitis togaviruses. F
Vaccines cannot be used to prevent Togaviruses caused encephalomyelitis of horse. F
Mainly ticks are the vectors of Equine encephalomyelitis viruses. F
Equine encephalomyelitis viruses cause disease in horse populations worldwide. F
Togavirus infections can unambiguously be diagnosed based on clinical signs and pathology.
F
In Europe vaccination of horses against equine encephalomyelitis is compulsory. F
Togavirus infection results in abortion of horses F
Flavivirus from distinct serotypes without serological cross-reactions F
Pestiviruses are zoonotic F
Pestiviruses are arboviruses F
Flaviviruses are resistant to lipid solvents. F
Louping ill is seen in cattle in North America F
The louping ill was introduced to Australia to control rabbit population F
The louping ill is seen in cattle in Great Britain and Scandinavia F
The principle vector of the Louping ill virus is Rhipicephalus appendiculatus F
Louping ill is present only in tropical and subtropical countries. F
Abortion and foetal malformations are the most typical signs of louping ill in sheep F
The Louping Ill is seen in rabbits in Australia. F
Louping ill is usually seen in rabbits. F
Louping-Ill is a disease of swine.F
Louping ill occurs in the Far-East. F
Louping ill is transmitted by mosquitoes and midges F
The main vectors of tick borne encephalitis virus are sylvatic mammalian species F
The Tick-borne encephalitis is widespread in North America F
The main vectors of the tick-borne encephalitis virus are sylvatic mammalian species F
The main vectors of the tick-borne encephalitis virus are Hyalomma and Dermocentor species F
The tick-borne encephalitis virus is resistant to detergents F
Mainly birds develop tick-borne encephalitis F
Tick-borne encephalitis viruses are present only in tropical regions. F
The tick-borne encephalitis is widespread in North America. F
Ruminants are long term carries of tick-borne encephalomyelitis virus. F
Tick-borne encephalomyelitis most frequently is seen clinically in ruminants. F
The West Nile Fever can be diagnosed unambiguously by the clinical signs F
The West Nile Fever virus infects mostly swine and cattle F
WNV typically causes reproductive problems in cattle F
West Nile fever can be unambiguously diagnosed on the basis of clinical signs F
Fomites play the most significant role in the transmission of WNV F
West Nile Virus is only present in Africa F
WNV causes central nervous signs in 80-90% of the infections F
WNV cannot be isolated in cell cultures F
Horses are the reservoirs host of WNV F
The weather does not influence the occurrence of WNV outbreaks F
West-Nile fever practically is restricted to Africa. F
Humans are not susceptible to West Nile disease virus. F
The West Nile Virus is genetically uniform, but at least 15 serotypes are known. F
Fomites play the most significant role in the transmission of the West Nile Virus. F
West Nile Virus typically causes reproductive problems in cattle. F
The principal vectors of the West Nile Virus are midges.F
West Nile Virus mainly causes diarrhoea in sheep. F
West Nile Virus causes central nervous signs in 80-90% of the infections. F
West Nile Virus cannot be isolated in cell cultures. F
West Nile Virus is the only known zoonotic flavivirus. F
BVD virus is particularly resistant to disinfectants F
Rodents play a central role in the maintenance of BVD virus in the environment F
Non cytopathic strains of Bovine viral diarrhoea virus (BVDV) can cause hydrocephalus and cerebellar hypoplasia F
In utero infection with cytopathic BVDV strain results immunotolerant calves F
Swine are not susceptible to BVD F
Two serotypes of the BVD virus are known so far, serotype 2 is more virulent. F
Cytopathic strains of Bovine Viral diarrhoea (BVDV) alone can cause mucosal disease F
Non cytopathic strains of Bovine Viral Diarrhoea virus (BVDV) do not cause transplacental infection F
Intrauterine BVD virus infection always causes abortion F
BVD virus cannot be transmitted via artificial insemination F
BVD virus cannot be propagated in cell cultures F
Mucosal disease usually emerges in cattle farms as explosive outbreaks with high morbidity
F
The only efficient way of BVD eradication is the replacement of all animals on the farm F
Bovine neonatal pancytopenia (BNP) is an immunopathy observed in immunotolerant, BVDV infected calves F
Bovine neonatal pancytopenia (BNP) is caused by a bovine viral diarrhea F
Wild birds are the natural hosts of the BVDV. F
Only inactivated vaccines can be used for the prevention against BVD F
The BVD virus genotype 2 is less virulent than genotype 1.F
The BVD virus cannot be transmitted via artificial insemination. F
Only cattle is susceptible to BVD virus. F
BVD virus exists in several serotypes. F
BVDV cannot be propagated in cell cultures. F
Rodents play a central role in the maintenance of BVD virus in the environment. F
Bovine Viral Diarrhoea cannot be transmitted with AI. F
Mucosal Disease, only inactivated vaccines can be used for the prevention against BVD. F
Because Europe is free from BVD, it is forbidden to use vaccines against it. F
Because IBDV is an immunosuppressive virus, no vaccines available against it F
The Border disease virus causes pneumonia in sheep F
The border disease is present only in the United Kingdom F
The border disease virus frequently causes encephalitis in ewes F
Border disease in most frequently seen in horses F
The Border disease is a haemorrhagic, respiratory syndrome in sheep F
Border disease is a respiratory and enteric disease of lambs. F
The CSFV causes central nervous signs only in suckling piglets F
Classical swine fever infection in the second half of the pregnancy leads to foetal development problems F
Shedding of Classical swine fever virus starts 1 week after the infection F
In Europe it is obligatory to vaccinate against Classical swine fever F
All wild type strains of classical swine fever virus are highly virulent F
Six distinct serotypes of CSF virus are recognized so far F
CSF virus is an arbovirus F
CSF virus is a zoonotic agent F
Pigs shed CSF virus only during the clinical stage of the disease F
Based on pathology and clinical signs, chronic classical swine fever is easy to diagnose F
Fomites do not play a role in the transmission of the Classical Swine Fever Virus. F
Swine shed CSFV only in the terminal phase of the disease.F
Europe is free from CSFV . F
Classical Swine Fever is always an acute disease with high mortality in wild boars. F
The large intestine are the earliest lesions in Classical Swine Fever.F
The diagnosis of Classical Swine Fever is based on paired serum investigations. F
The clinical signs of African Swine Fever and Classical Swine Fever are very different. F
All known strains of the Classical Swine Fever virus are of highly virulence. F
Classical swine fever virus is shed with faces, when boutons appear in the intestines. F
Classical swine fever can be eradicated from wild boar populations by oral vaccination. F
Classical swine fever virus is rarely complicated by secondary infections. F
Classical swine fever can be diagnosed easily by the characteristic symptoms and lesions. F
Classical swine fever virus doesn’t induce neutralizing antibody production. F
Classical swine fever virus is inactivated in chilled meat at -20°C.F
.Only DIVA vaccines should be used to prevent classical swine fever in swine stocks. F
Classical swine fever virus causes lympho-histiocytic encephalitis in carnivores. F
Classical swine fever Virus spreads slowly in the host and causes mainly chronic disease. F
Complicated forms of the Classical swine fever are rarely seen. F
Classical swine fever can unambiguously diagnosed by the clinical signs and pathology. F
Piglets of sows vaccinated against CSF are vaccinated at 6-12 months. F
To prevent CSF, we vaccinate pigs older than 6 months of age with live vaccine. F
To prevent CSF we use inactivated vaccines made from the Chinese strain. F
Shedding may start 2-3 days after first clinical signs. F
CSF can be prevented by inactivated vaccines. F
CSF always causes abortion in pigs.F
Hungary does not have to make any preventative action against CSF. F
First symptom of CSF is drooping ears.F
Classical swine fever virus (CSFV) is mainly transmitted by mosquitoes. F
The presence of CSFV in a herd does not influence reproduction parameters. F
Central nervous signs are never seen in CSF. F
Serological cross reactions my occur between BVD virus and CSFV. F
It is a disease of domestic swine and wild boars, but several other species are also suceptible. F
For prevention state medical steps and vaccination are used in Europe. F
Boutons in the large intestine are the earliest lesions in CSF. F
In Europe vaccination of domestic pigs against Classical swine fever is common. F
In Europe vaccination of domestic swine populations against CSF is compulsory. F
Classical swine fever virus strains are classified into several serotypes F
Orbiviruses spread by droplet (aerosol) infection F
Orbiviruses are serologically uniform F
Reoviruses are sensitive to lipid solvents and detergents. F
Orthoreoviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis of horses F
Avian orthoreoviruses cause mainly nephritis and encephalitis F
Mammalian orthoreoviruses can cause pneumoenteritis only in suckling animals F
Orthoreovirus can cause tenosynovitis in pigs F
Avian orthoreoviruses usually cause disease in adult birds F
Yolk immunity does not influence the efficacy of vaccination against avian orthoreovirus F
Horses usually develop lethal hemorrhagic enteritis in Orthoreovirus infections. F
Orthoreoviruses can cause encephalitis in cattle.F
Avian orthoreoviruses infect only via inhalation and parenterally.F
Avian orthoreoviruses only infect via PO infections.F
Tenosynovitis is caused by only one Orthoreovirus. F
Rotaviruses are sensitive to environmental conditions F
Rotavirus infection is sporadic within the herd F
Rotavirus only infects mammals F
Clinical signs of rotavirus infection are usually seen in animals older than 2 weeks of age F
Swine is not susceptible to rotavirus infection F
Rotavirus infection results in high mortality F
Avian rotaviruses are transmitted by germinative infection F
Clinical signs of rotavirus infection are usually seen in animals older than 2 weeks of age F
Rotaviruses damage the mucosa of the large intestines F
Rotaviruses are serologically uniform F
Avian rotaviruses can cause tenosynovitis. F
Rotaviruses can cause chronic enteritis and persistent infection. F
Rotaviruses cause mainly respiratory signs in cattle. F
Rotaviruses mainly cause respiratory disease in older animals. F
Rotaviruses typically cause respiratory disease in 3-6 month old calves. F
Rotavirus is species specific. F
Rotaviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis in birds.F
Bluetongue is present only in tropical areas F
Rodents serve as reservoirs of bluetongue F
Ibaraki disease virus can be used to immunize cattle against bluetongue F
Wild birds play the most important role in the distribution of bluetongue F
Bluetongue occurs only in Africa and Australia F
Bluetongue is transmitted by ticks F
Bluetongue virus is typically vectored by ticks F
Goats are not susceptible to bluetongue virus F
Bluetongue disease occurs only in Africa F
Bluetongue virus infects also horses and dogs F
Sheep are less sensitive to Bluetongue than swine. F
Bluetongue causes transient infection in cattle. F
Bluetongue is named after the pseudo-melanosis of the tongue. F
Bluetongue infects also horses and dogs. F
Ibaraki disease virus immunizes against bluetongue. F
Bluetongue disease is present only in tropical and sub-tropical countries. F
Wild birds are the natural reservoir host of the Bluetongue virus. F
The most severe clinical manifestation of Bluetongue disease is usually seen in goats. F
Bluetongue has 24 known serotypes. F
Bluetongue is an enteral disease of turkeys. F
Bluetongue causes symptoms mostly in sheep and goat. F
Bluetongue is not present in Europe. F
Bluetongue also infects pigs.F
No long-term carrier stage is observed in Bluetongue virus infections. F
Ruminants and swine are the most important hosts of the Bluetongue virus. F
Serological cross protection exists between 25 known serotypes of Bluetongue virus. F
The serotype 8 strain of the bluetongue virus, which emerged in Western Europe, does not cause clinical signs in cattle. F
Epizootic haemorrhagic disease was described only in Australia so far F
African horse sickness is mostly a peracute disease F
African horse sickness virus is endemic in Russia since 2008 F
African horse sickness is spread by ticks F
African horse sickness is zoonotic F
Encephalitis is the most frequent sign of African horse sickness F
Acute form of African horse sickness occurs mainly in zebras and horses F
Zebras are not susceptible to African horse sickness F
Wild birds play the most important role in the spreading of African horse sickness F
In the pathogenesis of African horse sickness, viraemia lasts longer in horse than in zebras. F
The African horse sickness is endemic in Europe and in the USA.F
African horse sickness was transported to Europe by migratory birds. F
African horse sickness can cause encephalitis. F
African Horse Sickness is a frequent disease, distributed worldwide. F
The differential diagnosis of African Horse Sickness and Tetanus is rather complicated. F
African Horse Sickness is spread primarily by “small mosquitos”. F
African Horse Sickness is caused by an arbovirus. F
Reservoir for African Horse Sickness is zebras and donkeys. F
African Horse Sickness is presented mainly per-acutely in donkeys.F
African Horse Sickness virus only infect horses. F
Haemorrhagic meningoencephalitis is the most frequent sign of the African Horse Sickness. F
African horse sickness is a world-wide distributed and frequent disease. F
Equine encephalosis causes the most severe clinical signs in Zebras F
Horse encephalosis occurs only in America F
Equine encephalosis causes high mortality F
Attenuated and inactivated vaccines are available against equine encephalosis. F
Horse encephalosis appeared several times in Europe between 2006 and 2009 F
Meat type hybrids are more sensitive to Gumboro disease than layers F
Clinical signs of Gumboro disease can be seen in chickens older than 8 weeks F
Clinical signs of Gumboro disease can be seen in chickens younger than 8 weeks F
Clinical signs of Gumboro disease can be seen in chickens younger than 8 days F
Bursitis virus causes the highest mortality in day old chicks F
The bursitis virus is very sensitive to the environmental conditions F
Bursitis virus causes disease only in chicken F
Both serotypes of bursitis virus are pathogenic F
In Europe only low virulence strains of infectious bursitis virus can be found F
Pigeons are the most susceptible to IBDV F
Both serotypes of bursitis virus are pathogenic F
The bursitis virus mostly causes germinative infection F
IBDV type 2 is used for immunization of chicken against infectious bursal disease F
Ibdv is a zoonotic virus F
The infectious bursal disease virus is transmitted only vertically F
Only inactivated vaccines can be used against infectious bursal disease F
The infectious bursal disease virus is very sensitive to detergents F
In Europe only low virulence strains of Infectious Bursal Disease Virus (IBDV) can be found. F
Young chicken can be immunized only with inactivated IBDV vaccines. F
Vaccines provide high level of protection against all IBDV strains. F
IBDV serotype 2 is used for immunization of chicken against Infectious Bursal Disease. F
Moderately attenuated (“hot”) IBDV vaccines are used for the immunization of young chicken without yolk immunity. F
There is no vaccine available against infectious bursitis virus. F
The infectious bursitis virus spreads by mosquitoes. F
Infectious bursal disease causes severe illness, mainly in waterfowl. F
The most frequent sign of infectious bursal disease is lameness.F
Only attenuated live vaccines are effective against infectious bursal disease. F
The most frequent sign of infectious bursal disease is lameness due to the inflammation of the subtendinal bursae. F
The infectious bursitis virus is inactivated within 1-2 days in the environment. F
A frequent sign of the infectious bursitis is encephalitis. F
The infectious bursitis virus does not cause any damage in chickens under the age of two weeks. F
Bats have an important role in the epidemiology of influenza F
Influenza viruses are classified into genera by their HA and NA proteins F
Influenza causes persistent infection in donkey F
The main host of influenza is the swine F
Influenza viruses are classified into genera by their HA and NA proteins F
Cat is susceptible to human seasonal influenza F
HPAI strains belong into a certain haemagglutinin types F
Influenzas Causes enteric symptoms in human. F
Anti-neuraminidase drugs inhibit the decapsidation of influenza viruses F
The HPAI causes skin haemorrhages in swine F
Swine influenza outbreaks occur usually during summer F
The mortality of swine influenza is high F
Swine influenza is easily transmitted to people F
In swine all influenza variants can be detected F
In a horse influenza outbreak all infected horses must be killed F
Racehorses should be vaccinated before the influenza season F
Breeding mares should be vaccinated before the influenza season F
Influenza causes persistent infection in horses F
The HPAI infection can be unambiguously differentiated from Newcastle disease by the clinical signs F
Influenza viruses are shed by birds exclusively in the nasal discharge F
Avian influenza can switch directly to human and cause epidemics with high case numbers as result of human to human transmission F
Avian influenza virus is primarily spread through bronchial discharge and aerogenic route F
All Bunyaviruses are transmitted by mosquitoes F
Bunyaviruses cause oral infection F
All bunyaviruses are vectored by insects F
Akabane virus is zoonotic F
Akabane virus causes foetal damages in dogs F
The Akabane disease is mainly seen in geese F
Akabane occurs in South-West Africa and is a disease of swine.F
Schmallenberg virus causes disease only in Suffolk sheep breed F
Schallenberg virus causes foetal damages in humans F
Schmallenberg virus is present worldwide F
Schmallenberg virus causes foetal damages in pigs F
The Schmallenberg virus causes severe disease in humans F
The Schmallenberg virus is a zoonotic agent. F
Ticks are reservoirs and vectors of the Schmallenberg virus. F
Schmallenberg virus was transported to Europe from South-America. F
Wild rabbits are reservoirs of Rift valley fever virus F
Rift valley fever is a human only disease F
The rift valley fever virus causes foetal damages in sheep F
The principle vectors of the rift valley disease are gnats. F
Rift valley fever outbreaks are most frequently seen in horses. F
The most frequent sign of the Nairobi sheep disease is encephalitis. F
The leading symptom of Nairobi disease is renal insufficiency. F
Nairobi sheep disease primarily causes pathological changes in the kidney (renal insufficiency)
. F
Hantaviruses cause hemorrhagic fevers in rodents. F
In domestic animals Hanta viruses typically cause liver dystrophy. F
Hanta viruses cause encephalitis in horses. F
Serological tests can NOT be used for laboratory detection of equine viral arteritis. F
Red blood cells can be used for laboratory detection of equine viral arteritis virus. F
Equine arteritis virus is very resistant to physical damages F
Equine viral arteritis is usually asymptomatic F
Vaccine against Equine Viral Arteritis is never used in Europe F
The Equine Viral Arteritis is caused by retrovirus. F
The equine viral arteritis virus cannot damage the wall of blood vessels F
The equine viral arteritis virus rarely causes asymptomatic infection F
The equine viral arteritis virus always causes clinical symptoms F
EVA is spread by insect vectors. F
Equine viral arteritis in mare is reactivated in pregnancy. F
Equine viral arteritis, aborted embryos have degenerated liver. F
Mares are frequently life-long carriers of the Equine arteritis virus. F
Equine viral arteritis is diagnosed by agarose-gel immunodiffusion (Coggins test). F
Equine viral arteritis virus can infect only by arthropods. F
Equine arteritis virus is very resistant to physical damages. F
Lameness due to inflammatory joints is the most typical sign of Equine infectious arteritis. F
Equine infectious arteritis is a notifiable disease; therefore vaccinations are forbidden. F
PRRS is caused by a coronavirus F
Isolation of PRRS in cell culture can be easily performed in any laboratory F
PRRS has only highly pathogenic variants F
Respiratory signs of PRRS occur just in sows F
PRRS virus replicates in T-lymphocytes F
The pathological signs of PRRS is typical because the lymph nodes are never enlarged F
PRRS cause digestive sign in adult. F
PRRS cause respiratory sign in adult. F
Target cells of PRRSV are alveolar epithelial cells F
PRRS can only be isolated in porcine kidney cells. F
PRRS causes immune suppression in prolonged cases F
PRRS virus causes severe intestinal problems in adult pigs F
PRRS is characterized by respiratory disease in adult pigs F
For PRRS prevention we can get a very good immunization with inactivated vaccines. F
Only inactivated vaccines can be used for the prevention against PRRSV. F
Porcine reproductive and respiratory virus (PRRSV) is a zoonotic agent. F
Porcine reproductive and respiratory vines (PRRSV) does not cause clinical signs in boars. F
Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus cannot cause abortion, only infertility of the sows. F
There are no vaccines for the prevention of Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome.
F
The blue ear disease is caused by dog coronavirus. F
The blue ear disease is caused by FIP. F
The blue ear disease is caused by chicken coronavirus. F
Does PRRS virus have 3 genotypes. F
PRRS is deadly in adult animals. F
Target cells of PRRSV are alveolar epithelial cells. F
PRRS virus can only be isolated in porcine kidney cell culture. F
The Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) is only present in North-America. F
Human coronavirus was not known before 2020 F
Recombination between coronaviruses is rare F
Human coronaviruses usually cause death. F
IBV can cause haemagglutination. F
PDCoV can cause haemagglutination. F
CCoV can cause haemagglutination. F
TGEV can cause haemagglutination. F
FIPV can cause haemagglutination. F
PEDV can cause haemagglutination. F
Coronaviruses can survive for months in the environment. F
In the case of transmissible encephalopathies meningoencephalitis is a typical postmortem lesion F
TGE virus does not reach the mammary gland. F
TGE virus can cause haemagglutination in vitro F
TGE virus causes respiratory signs in piglets. F
TGE virus does not cause dehydration F
The pathognomonic sign of TGE is necrosis in the large intestine. F
Porcine transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) is completely eradicated in Europe. F
TGE causes 100% mortality in sows. F
The incubation time of TGE is usually 5-7 days. F
TGEV is widespread and fully replaced porcine epidemic diarrhoea (PED) virus. F
Porcine respiratory coronavirus induces cross-protection against PED. F
TGE infects only swine. F
The mortality caused by transmissible gastroenteritis of swine is the highest among old sows. F
Transmissible gastroenteritis of swine is a widespread disease, causing high losses in Europe.
F
Transmissible gastroenteritis of pigs is more frequent in the tropical countries that the moderate climate. F
There is no cross protection between transmissible gastroenteritis vines and the pulmonary coronavirus of pigs. F
TGE mainly cause croupous pneumonia. F
TGE replaces the respiratory corona virus. F
Porcine transmissible gastroenteritis is completely eradicated in Europe. F
Only pigs are susceptible to TGE infection. F
TGE is completely eradicated in Europe. F
Transmissible gastroenteritis virus can cause clinical signs in dogs. F
TGE infection is devastating at any age. F
The incubation period of TGE can be as short as 8 hours. F
Pigs has only alphacoronavirus F
The antibodies against porcine respiratory coronavirus protect the pigs against porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus F
Mutations and recombinations do not occur in swine coronaviruses F
PRCoV usually causes pneumonia. F
Porcine respiratory coronavirus causes acute pneumonia in susceptible piglets F
Porcine respiratory coronavirus reduced the prevalence of porcine epidemic diarrhoea. F
Swine pulmonary corona virus has a high mortality by pneumonia. F
Porcine respiratory coronavirus is a modification of the Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus. F
Porcine respiratory coronavirus causes acute pneumonia in susceptible piglets. F
The porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus causes disease in calf F
Porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus can cause disease in humans. F
The virus causing porcine epidemic diarrhoea can replicate in the heart muscle of the foetus
F
Porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus causes more severe symptoms in adult than in young piglets .F
Porcine epidemic diarrhoea is present only in Africa and in the Middle East. F
Porcine epidemic diarrhoea can be transmitted by infected dogs and cats. F
Porcine epidemic diarrhoea frequently occurs in Europe. F
PHEV causes diarrhoea F
Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus is typically vectored by mosquitoes. F
Hemagglutinating coronavirus can cause severe diarrhoea in sows. F
Hemagglutinating coronavirus of pigs is frequently causing malabsorption in sows. F
The hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus multiplicate in hematopoietic stem cells of the bone marrow
F
Deltacoronavirus of pigs is a bat virus. F
Bovine coronavirus is generally spreading in summer F
The bovine coronavirus is of avian origin F
Bovine coronavirus is alphacoronavirus F
Bovine coronavirus does not cause haemagglutination in vitro F
Bovine coronavirus remains at the place of the primary replication, and it does not cause viraemia
F
Certain bovine coronaviruses can cause diarrhoea in children. F
Bovine corona virus causes diarrhoea in adult animals mainly in summer. F
Bovine coronavirus can infect humans. F
Certain bovine coronaviruses can affect humans causing clinical signs. F
Coronaviruses mainly cause central nervous disease in cattle. F
Bovine coronaviruses can cause diarrhoea only in calves up to one month of age. F
Calf coronavirus diarrhoea is characterized by several respiratory signs. F
Mortality of calf respiratory coronavirus is high. F
There are no vaccines for the prevention of coronaviral diarrhoea in cattle. F
Winter dysentery causes symptoms in younger age (up to 6 months of age). F
Dogs have only one type of coronavirus. F
The canine coronavirus is a zoonotic agent. F
Canine coronavirus can always cause enteral disease F
Canine coronaviruses frequently cause encephalitis and hepatitis in puppies. F
Canine coronavirus are only present in North America. F
Canine coronavirus vaccines effectively protect from any Canine coronavirus infection. F
CCoV-IIa infections are endemic worldwide F
Canine enteral coronavirus and porcine coronavirus are genetically closely relative F
There are no protective vaccines available against Canine enteric coronavirus. F
Canine pantropic coronavirus is an agent of kennel cough. F
Canine pantropic coronavirus causes subnormal temperature F
Canine pantropic coronaviruses damage only the mucous membranes F
Pantropic canine coronavirus infections are endemic worldwide. F
Pantropic canine coronavirus causes a mild respiratory disease in suckling dogs. F
Canine respiratory coronavirus and human coronaviruses are genetically very distant relatives in all cases F
Canine respiratory coronavirus infection results cross-protection against CCOV-I. F
In suckling dogs CCoV-II infection causes respiratory disease. F
Almost all cat vaccines contain antibodies against FIP. F
The wet form of FIP is II. type of hypersensitivity. F
The dry form of FIP is I. type of hypersensitivity. F
FIP is caused by jackal coronavirus. F
FIP responds well to antibiotic treatment. F
Most animals infected with feline coronavirus develop FIP F
The dry form of FIP is I. type of hypersensitivity F
The feline coronavirus causes viraemia only in FIP. F
