Final Exam-Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the cancer statistic for dogs and cats?

A

1 out f 3 dogs and 1 out of 4 cats get cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What breeds of dog have a lifetime risk of 50% in developing cancer in their lifetime?

A

Golden retrievers

Boxers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What types of cancers do dogs in urban areas have a higher risks of having?

A

Tonsillar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What increases the risk of hemangiosarcoma in dogs?

A

Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of cancer increases in dogs you have been exposed to topical insecticides and dips?

A

Bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can bladder cancer be prevented?

A

Eating vegetables, especially carrots to prevent transitional cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three steps of carcinogenesis? Which are reversible?

A
  1. Initiation - reversible
  2. Promotion
  3. Progression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 6 hallmarks of cancer?

A
  1. Sustained proliferative signaling
  2. Resisting cell death
  3. Inducing angiogenesis
  4. Enabling replicative immortality
  5. Activating invasion and metastasis
  6. Evading growth suppressors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What occurs during the initiation stage of carcinogenesis

A

The carcinogen interacts with the cellular DNA and causes damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why are initiated cells not cancer cells yet?

A

There is no autonomal growth ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What occurs during the promotion stage of carcinogenesis?

A

Clonal expansion of initiated cells by mutated genes. This action alone ( independent of initiation) can not cause tumor development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What occurs during the progression stage of carcinogenesis?

A

Tumor obtains ability to grow and invade tissue and metastasis to distant locations with increased genetic instability and nuclear alterations of the cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What occurs during sustained proliferative signaling in cancer cells?

A

Cancer cells produce growth factor ligands resulting in autocrine proliferation and paracrine signaling to the stroma around the cell and to other cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can cancer cells die?

A
  1. Apoptosis
  2. Necrosis
  3. Autophagy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which way in which cancer cells die requires ATP?

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What insult must occur in order for their to be apoptosis, necrosis or autophagy of a cancer cell?

A

Apoptosis: Chemotherapy, radiology, withdrawal of growth factors, death signals
Necrosis: Ischemia-reprefusion
Autophagy: Starvation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which genetic mutation causes most cancer?

A

P53 mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does P53 do for cells?

A

It can recognize damaged DNA , repair, or signal for apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is angiogenesis not suppressed?

A
  1. Female cycle
  2. Inflammation
  3. Wound healing
  4. When cancer cells are located 2 mm or more from a vessel become hypoxic and release mediators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is angiogenic switch-shift?

A

Activators of angiogenesis turn the switch on, while inhibitors, turn it off. There is a balance between these, but in cancer it switches to on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the difference between angiogenic vessels and primary vessels?

A

They are tortuous, dilated, irregularly shaped. Blood pressure may be slow/intermittent, and lead to inefficient delivery of drugs/radiation (makes it harder to treat).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some drugs that can be used to treat cancer via inhibiting angiogenesis?

A
  1. Bevacizumab

2. Palladia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the angiogenesis-metronomic therapy?

A

Administration of low dose chemotherapy and anti-inflammatory COX2 on a daily or every other day dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is angiogenesis-metronomic therapy effective against?

A
  1. Circulating progenitor cells

2. Circulating endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some benefits to angiogenesis-metronomic therapy?

A
  1. Sensitize endothelium to chemotherapy
  2. Reduce T-cell regulation at malignant site
  3. Normalizes newly formed vessels
  4. Works on tumors resistant to chemotherapy
  5. Reduce production of growth factors
  6. Low toxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why do most patients die of cancer?

A

The results of metastases via the lymphatics and/or hematogenous routes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the two theories of activation of invasion and metastasis of cancer cells?

A
  1. Seed and soil

2. Hemodynamic consideration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How does the seed and soil theory of cancer metastasis work?

A

An organ will have matching receptors to tumor cells and will host the tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does the hemodynamic consideration theory of cancer metastasis work?

A

Cancer cells get lodged at capillary beds of rich organs like the liver and lungs where they thrive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the phases of metastasis?

A
  1. Primary tumor
  2. Vascularization
  3. Detachment
  4. Intravasation
  5. Circulating tumour cell
  6. Adhesion to blood vessel wall
  7. Extravasation
  8. Growth of secondary tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In what cells does lymphoma form in and in what organs does it arise?

A
Lymphoreticular cells 
Organs:
1. Lymph nodes
2. Spleen
3. Bone Marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the signalment for a dog with lymphoma?

A

6-9 year old Boxer, bull mastiff, basset hound, St. Barnard, Bulldog and Airdale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the etiologies of lymphoma?

A
  1. Genetic: Gain or loss of chromosomes along with P53 mutation and N-ras
  2. Infectious factors: Helicobacter
  3. Environmental factors: 2,4 D, magnetic fields
  4. Immunosuppression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the anatomic classifications of canine lymphoma from most common to least common?

A
  1. Multi-centric
  2. Gastrointestinal
  3. Mediastinal
  4. Cutaneous
  5. Hepatosplenic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the ways in which canine lymphoma can be classified?

A
  1. Anatomic site
  2. Extranodal vs. Nodal
  3. Histologic: Who system
  4. Grade
  5. Immunophenotype
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the grades of lymphoma? What is more common?

A

Low grade: small cells

Intermediate to high grade: Large cells and lymphoblasts ( more common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the different immunophentotypes of lymphoma? Why are these important? Which is most common?

A
  1. B cell (more common)
  2. T cell

Determine how patient will response to therapy and survive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What can T cell lymphomas in dogs be associated with?

A
  1. Hypercalcemia

2. Decreased response and survival time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the clinical signs of multicentric LSA in dogs?

A
  1. Lymphadenopathy
  2. Hepatosplenomegally
  3. Weight loss, anorexia, lethargy, fever if patient is in substage B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which type of lymphoma is most likely to result in a patient with substage B?

A

T cell LSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are some differentials for lymphadenopathy in dogs?

A
  1. Immune mediated disease
  2. Disseminated infection from virus, bacteria, fungus
  3. Other forms of neoplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the clinical signs of GI lymphoma in dogs?

A

Weight loss and diarrhea from malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the clinical signs of mediastinal lymphoma in dogs?

A
  1. Regurgitation
  2. Hypercalcemia
  3. PU/PD
  4. Pre-caval syndrome
  5. Dyspnea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

Any syndrome associated with cancer but not due to the tumor directly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the clinical signs/diagnostic indicators of a dog with paraneoplastic syndrome?

A
  1. Anemia (most common)
  2. Fever
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Hypercalcemia ( T cell LSA)
  5. Monoclonal gammopathies (B cell LSA)
  6. Cachexia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What types of neoplasia can cause hypercalcemia? Why is it important to check for neoplasia if a dog is hyperalcemic?

A
  1. Anal sac carcinomas
  2. Thyomas
  3. T cell LSA ( 10-35%)

2/3 case of hypercalcemic dogs have neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the mechanism behind hypercalcemia with neoplasia? Is this the only mechanism?

A

The tumor increases production of PTHrp

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is LSA in dogs diagnosed?

A
  1. Fine needle aspirate with cytology and flow cytometry ( most common)
  2. Biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Why would we do a biopsy in a dog with suspected LSA?

A

If the FNA can’t confirm the diagnosis, the grade the tumor, and give it a subclassification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which lymph node should be avoided when doing a biopsy of LSA? Why?

A

Mandibular
It drains the mouth and prevents dental disease, plus has a high chance of masking diagnosis due to high cell reactivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is LSA in dogs staged?

A
  1. CBC/chem
  2. Thoracic rads
  3. Bone marrow aspirate

Staged from I to V with a and b subclassifications

52
Q

Stage I LSA in dogs

A

Single node or lymphoid tissue in single organ

53
Q

Stage II LSA in dogs

A

Multiple lymph nodes in regional area

54
Q

Stage III LSA in dogs

A

Generalized lymph node involvement

55
Q

Stage IV LSA in dogs

A

Liver and/or spleen involvement

56
Q

Stage V LSA in dogs

A

Blood and bone marrow and/or other organ system involvement

57
Q

What are the substages of LSA in dogs?

A

A: Without systemic signs
B: With systemic signs

58
Q

What are the different types of molecular diagnostic techniques that can be used to help diagnosed LSA?

A
  1. PARR: PCR for antigen receptor rearrangement
  2. IHC: Immunohistochemistry
  3. ICC: Immunocytochemistry
  4. Flow Cytometry
59
Q

What is PARR measuring with LSA and what can it tell us about the tumor?

A

Clonality, the hallmark of hematopoietic malignancies. Can tells us if it is lymphoid hyperplasia or lymphoma, B or T cell immunophenotype?

60
Q

What is the difference between ICC and IHC?

A

ICC is done on cytology slides for LSA and IHC is done on histopathology slides for LSA

61
Q

How does ICC and IHC work?

A

A slide from a LSA cytology or biopsy is measured for markers that tell use if the cells are B or T cells based off of an antigen to antibody reaction.

62
Q

What are the markers to identify B lymphocytes with ICC/IHC? Markers for T cells?

A

CD79a and CD 20

CD3

63
Q

What is the best diagnostic test to use with LSA?

A

Flow cytometry, as it evaluates live cells labeled with antibodies

64
Q

What can flow cytommetry tell us about LSA?

A

If the cell population is homogenous or heterogenous and what size the cells are, in addition to the immunophenotype ( it is prognostically significant_

65
Q

What are the prognostic factors of LSA in dogs?

A
  1. WHO clinical stage ( I-V)
  2. WHO clinical substage ( a or b)
  3. Anatomic location
  4. Prolonged steroid treatment before diagnosis
  5. Histologic grade: high grade responds to treatment better
  6. Immunophenotype: T cell worse
  7. Flow cytometry: large cells/ low level MHC worse
  8. Chemotherapy-induced hematologic toxicity
66
Q

Which anatomical locations of LSA are the worse prognostically?

A
  1. Leukemic
  2. Diffuse Cutaneous
  3. Alimentary
67
Q

What is associated with a prolonged first remissions of LSA in a canine patient?

A

Moderate neutropenia from chemotherapy induced hematologic toxicity

68
Q

How is canine LSA treated?

A
  1. Chemotherapy is the standard of care
  2. Prednisolone
  3. Radiation
  4. Surgery
69
Q

If LSA in dog is not treated, how long will the patient survive?

A

4-6 weeks

70
Q

What can prednisone do for a LSA patient?

A

It can slow the disease process and improve quality of life

71
Q

What is complete remission?

A

Disappearance of all signs and symptoms of cancer, although cancer may still be in the body

72
Q

What is the multi-agent chemotherapy protocol for LSA treatment in dogs? How successful is it?

A
CHOP
C: cyclophosphamide 
H: Doxorubicin (hydroxydaunorubicin)
O: Vincristine (Oncovin) 
P: Prenisone 

80-95% remission and survival times of 10-14 months

73
Q

At what point in time after starting chop, do you determine is LSA patient is in complete remission

A

Week 19, where all therapy stops and months re-evaluations are instituted

74
Q

Which drug would you use alone in treating LSA in dogs?

A

Doxorubicin IV every three weeks for 5 treatments and combine with prednisone for last 4 weeks

75
Q

How would you monitor LSA patients who are on chemotherapy?

A
  1. Physical Exam: Weight, body temperature and lymph node measurements
  2. CBC: Cytopenias
76
Q

Why is rescue chemotherapy typically used in LSA?

A

The majority of dogs that achieve a remission will eventually relapse

77
Q

What is the protocol for an LSA patient that relapsed after their first CHOP treatment?

A

DO another CHOP treatment and make sure the cumulative dose of doxorubicin doesn’t go over the limit. If this doesn’t work, give CCNU (lomustine) and L-asparaginase (Elspar)

78
Q

Why is radiation therapy so successful with LSA? What consideration should be taken into account?

A
It is very sensitive to radiation and can work locally, regionally, and whole body. 
Considerations: 
1. Palliations vs. curative intent 
2. Cost 
3. Length of treatment
79
Q

How is cutaneous lymphoma in dogs treated?

A
  1. Treat underlying infection
  2. CCNU + steroids
  3. CHOP at failure
  4. Regional/whole body radiation
80
Q

How has feline lymphoma changed over the year and why?

A

Lymphoma has been associated with FeLV and before the vaccine, 70% of cats with lymphoma had FeLV, were young and had the mediastinal, multicentric or spinal forms. Since the vaccine, only 25% of cats with lymphoma have FeLV, they are older, and the most common form is GI.

81
Q

What are the etiology/risk factors of feline LSA?

A
  1. FelV with subgroup B (Direct)
  2. FIV (Indirect)
  3. 2nd hand tobacco smoke exposure
  4. Immunosuppression (renal transplants with long term cyclosporine administration)
  5. Chronic IBD
82
Q

How is feline LSA classified?

A
  1. Anatomic location
  2. Histologic criteria
  3. Immunophenotype
83
Q

What are the anatomical classifications of feline LSA from most to least common?

A
  1. Alimentary/GI
  2. Mediastinal
  3. Nodal
  4. Extra-nodal
84
Q

Which part of the body is feline lymphoma most likely to invade?

A

Small intestine

85
Q

What is the most common tumor in the GI tract of cats and the most common form of LSA in cats?

A

Alimentary/GI lymphoma

86
Q

Which lymph nodes are usually affected by mediastinal feline LSA? Which immunophenotype is most common?

A

Thymus, mediastinal and sternal lymph nodes

T- cell

87
Q

Which form of feline LSA is most commonly associated with being FeLV positive?

A

Mediastinal

88
Q

What is the relative frequency, age, B/T cell, FeLV association and prognosis with small cell/low grade GI Feline LSA?

A

It is common, in age 13 , more T cell, rare to be associated with FeLV, and a good prognosis

89
Q

What is the relative frequency, age, B/T cell, FeLV association and prognosis with large cell/high grade GI Feline LSA?

A

It is in moderate frequency, at age 10, more B cell, rare to be associated with FeLV, and a poor prognosis

90
Q

What is the relative frequency, age, B/T cell, FeLV association and prognosis with feline mediastinal LSA?

A

It is uncommon, age 2-4, more T cell, common to be associated with FeLV. and a poor to fair prognosis

91
Q

What is the relative frequency, age, B/T cell, FeLV association and prognosis with feline nasal (extranodal) LSA?

A

It is uncommon, occur at 9.5 years, more B cell, rare to be associated with FeLV and has a good prognosis

92
Q

What is the relative frequency, age, B/T cell, FeLV association and prognosis with feline peripheral nodal LSA?

A

It is uncommon, age at 7, equal T and B cell, uncommon to be associated with FelV, and has a poor to fair prognosis

93
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline low grade small cell alimentary LSA?

A

Weight loss
Vomiting/Diarrea
Anorexia
Abnormal abdominal palpation

94
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline lymphoblastic high grade alimentary LSA?

A

The same as low grade small cell LSA except the sings progress more rapidly and more likely to present with palpable abdominal mass

95
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline mediastinal LSA?

A

Dyspnea
Tachypnea
Dull heart/lung sounds
Pleural effusion

96
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline nodal LSA?

A

Lethargy and decreased appetite unless hodgkin’s like ( asymptomatic)

97
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline nasal LSA?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
Sneezing
Upper respiratory noise

98
Q

How is feline LSA diagnosed?

A

FNA alone is not as helpful as in the dog and usually require U/S, CT, tissue for histopathology and the use of PARR, IHC, ICC, and flow cytometry.

99
Q

What specifically is needed to diagnose large cell, high grade GI LSA in cats?

A
  1. PE
  2. Abdominal rads and ultrasound
  3. cytologic/histologic evaluation of mass
  4. Enlarged lymph nodes

Less complicated to diagnosed than small cell, low grade GI LSA

100
Q

Why is it difficult to diagnose small cell, low grade GI LSA in cats?

A

It has a similar clinical presentation to IBD and GI thickening may be mild and not appreciable on palpation due to no mass-effect

101
Q

What is specifically needed to diagnosed small cell, low grade GI LSA in cats?

A
  1. Ultrasound
  2. Tissue for histopath
  3. Immunophenotypic tests ( IHC, ICC, flow cytometry)
102
Q

What will be seen on ultrasound in feline GI LSA?

A

Thickening of muscularis propria and lymphadenopathy

103
Q

What type of biopsy should you obtain for feline GI LSA diagnosis for histopath?

A

Full thickness as the location of the disease may only located in certain layers

104
Q

How can you differentiate feline GI lymphoma from IBD in the small intestine?

A

If on histopath there is inflammation, treat it and if it does not respond, do immunohistochemistry and it that stiil is not definitive, do PARR (PCR). PARR is the last step.

105
Q

A cat has a stage I LSA, what does that mean?

A

Single extra nodal tumor or a single nodal tumor

106
Q

A cat has a single extra nodal tumor with a regional lymph node LSA, what stage is this?

A

II

107
Q

A cat has a resectable primary GI tumor with mesenteric node involvement, what stage is this?

A

II

108
Q

A cat with LSA has two or more nodal areas on one side of the diaphragm affected, what stage is this?

A

II

109
Q

If a cat with LSA has two single tumors on opposite sides of the diaphragm, what stage is this?

A

III

110
Q

If a cat has a paraspinal or epidural tumor with LSA, what stage is this?

A

III

111
Q

If a cat with LSA has primary unresectable intrabdominal neoplasia, what stage is this?

A

III

112
Q

What is the difference between stage IV and V with feline lymphoma?

A

Stage V involves the bone marrow and/or CNS along with the liver and spleen while stage IV only involves the liver and/or spleen

113
Q

When do you need to stage a LSA tumor in a cat?

A
  1. If you are trying to decide between surgery/radiation (locoregional) or chemotherapy (systemic)
  2. Prognostic information for owner
  3. Required for a clinical trial
114
Q

What diagnostic tests need to be done in order to stage feline LSA?

A
  1. Bone marrow aspirate/biopsy
  2. Peripheral lymph node cytology
  3. Thoracic radiographs
  4. Abdominal ultrasound
115
Q

What do we base our treatment off of with feline LSA?

A

Whether the patient as low grade or high grade LSA

116
Q

What is the treatment for high grade feline LSA?

A

Similiar to the treatment in dogs…CHOP or COP( don;t use doxorubicin) protocol
with rescue therapy of CCNU, elspar and prednisolone ( not prednisone)

117
Q

How would you treat a cat with low grade, small cell LSA? How effective is this treatment and how long do they typically survive?

A

Prednisolone and Chlorambucil (Leukeran)

90-95% response rate
2 year survival

118
Q

How is feline nodal LSA treated?

A

CHOP or COP if high grade
Chlorambucil/pred combo with low grade
Surgery/radiation with hodgkin’s like

119
Q

What are the good prognostic factors for feline LSA?

A
  1. Complete response/remission with therapy
  2. Negative FeLV status
  3. Early clinical stage
  4. Grade
  5. Not immunophenotyped alone
120
Q

What is the most common cutaneous tumor in dogs?

A

Mast cell tumors

121
Q

What breeds are predisposed to the development of mast cell tumors?

A

Boxers, boston terriers, labradors, pugs, bulldogs, mixed

122
Q

What do mast cell tumors look like and behave like?

A

Anything and have a wide range of biologic behavior

123
Q

What is the most clinical presentation of mast cell tumors?

A

Cutaneous or subcutaneous on the trunk or limbs that comes and goes or appeared overnight with redness, swelling, and pain. A darier’s sign, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, and collapse can occur.

124
Q

What are the two forms of a mast cell tumors?

A
  1. Visceral form

2. Primary GI

125
Q

What is receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) KIT ?

A

RTK’s conveys growth factor signals from outside the mast cell to the inside and c-kit is a proto oncogene that encodes the KIT. A mast cell tumor may occur because a stem cell factor bins to the KIT and promotes proliferation, differentiation and maturation of the mast cells.