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Health Promotion 2700 > Final Exam Notes > Flashcards

Final Exam Notes Flashcards

1
Q

What time period does antepartum consist of?

A

From the moment you become pregnant to the moment you deliver

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2
Q

EDC/EDD stands for?

A

Estimated date of delivery

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3
Q

Thyroid issues in pregnancy can cause?

A

multiple miscarriages

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4
Q

Lordosis means?

A

spine curvature

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5
Q

cervical os means?

A

opening of cervix

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6
Q

When are fetal heart tones not present?

A

in a tubal pregnancy

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7
Q

When is a mildly elevated white count normal?

A

during pregnancy

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8
Q

What lab value is always lower in pregnancy?

A

hemoglobin

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9
Q

What should be checked during 2nd trimester?

A

blood glucose

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10
Q

Goodell’s Sign refers to?

A

When the vaginal portion of the cervix becomes softer due to vascularization

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11
Q

Chadwick’s Sign refers to?

A

Bluish appearance to the cervix; probable sign of pregnancy.

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12
Q

Oxytocin is known as?

A

Labor hormone (contracts uterus), the ‘love’ hormone

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13
Q

Relaxin causes?

A

relaxation of uterus

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14
Q

Embryonic Stage time period?

A

is from conception through the end of 8th wk of pregnancy

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15
Q

Fetal Stage time period?

A

Week 9-Birth

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16
Q

Full Term time period?

A

38-40 weeks after conception

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17
Q

Naegele’s Rule is calculated how and for what reason?

A

Last Menstrual Period-3 months + 7 days

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18
Q

Four Types of Pelvis and most common/favorable?

A

Gynecoid (most common and favorable); Android, Anthropoid, Platypelloid

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19
Q

GTPAL means?

A

Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortions, Living Children

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20
Q

Gravida definition?

A

Total number of pregnancies

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21
Q

Leopold’s Maneuver is what?

A

Feeling for baby’s head and back to determine the position of the baby.

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22
Q

How is fundal height measured?

A

By measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the highest part of the uterus

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23
Q

What should a pregnant woman take for headaches?

A

Tylenol Only; not safe over 20 wks.

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24
Q

What is a stable HR in a baby?

A

110-160

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25
Q

Where are Braxton Hicks felt?

A

Only in front of the uterus; caused by uterine irritability.

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26
Q

What can a pregnant woman do to decrease urine loss?

A

Kegel Exercises

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27
Q

What age defines a geriatric mother?

A

Over 35

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28
Q

What is a normal amount of fetal kicks per hour?

A

10 or more.

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29
Q

What problem can happen if there is not enough amniotic fluid?

A

Baby can have kidney problems.

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30
Q

Nuchal cord means?

A

Umbilical cord wrapped around baby’s neck

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31
Q

Placental circulation is?

A

The direction of flow is different from that in the normal body

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32
Q

Why is psyche important in a laboring mom?

A

It is difficult for the uterus to dilate if mom is trying to maintain control and has anxiety.

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33
Q

Fetal Attitude refers to?

A

Relation of fetal body parts to each other

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34
Q

Fetal Lie means?

A

Orientation of long axis of fetus to long axis of woman; can be longitudinal or transverse

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35
Q

What positions are best for a baby delivery?

A

LOA or ROA

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36
Q

How are contractions measured?

A

From the beginning of one to the beginning of the next

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37
Q

What is the key for a ticket to stay in L&D?

A

Progressive cervical changes

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38
Q

What are signs of true labor?

A

Contractions 45 seconds to 1 minute, for greater than one hr and increasing in intensity; symmetrical, regular, predictable contractions and do not stop

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39
Q

Latent Phase of labor consists of?

A

30-45 second contractions; every 5-20 mins apart

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40
Q

Active Labor consists of?

A

Dilation from 4 to 7 cm; contractions 45-60 seconds long and 2-5 mins apart, membranes may rupture

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41
Q

Transition phase consists of?

A

8-10cm dilation, 60-120 second long intense contractions with rest periods of 30-90 seconds; this stage lasts 10-60 minutes

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42
Q

2nd Stage of Labor happens when?

A

Pushing, fully dilated

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43
Q

3rd Stage of Labor happens when?

A

Delivery of Placenta; risk of hemorrhage increases as length of 3rd stage increases

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44
Q

What should you do if fetal distress is present?

A

Turn Pitocin off if being induced; give fluid bolus of Lactated Ringers, change maternal position, FHR

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45
Q

When is APGAR score assessed?

A

At 1 and 5 minutes

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46
Q

What is the purpose of a fundal massage?

A

It reduces the risk of hemorrhage in mom

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47
Q

Which infectious agent is the most prevalent and significant in health care settings?

A

Bacteria

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48
Q

What are some possible reservoirs for infectious agents?

A

People, animals, soil, food, water, milk, inanimate objects

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49
Q

What is a portal of exit?

A

A means for a micro-organism to leave its source

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50
Q

What are some common portals of exit?

A

Respiratory, blood, GI (feces, saliva, vomit) and GU (vaginal secretions, urine) systems, breaks in skin or through tissue.

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51
Q

Incubation Period

A

Organisms growing and multiplying

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52
Q

Prodromal Stage

A

Person is most infectious (vague and nonspecific signs of disease)

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53
Q

Full stage of Illness

A

Signs and symptoms present

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54
Q

Convalescent period

A

Period of recovery

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55
Q

What are the Stages of Infection?

A

Incubation period, Prodromal Stage, Full stage of Illness, Convalescent period

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56
Q

What are some cardinal signs of infection?

A

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

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57
Q

What are some lab values indicating infection?

A

Elevated WBC (normal 5-10k), elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, presence of pathogens in urine, blood, cultures or sputum

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58
Q

What are the four major categories of hospital acquired infections?

A

CAUTI’s (catheter UTI), surgical site infection, central line associated bloodstream infection, ventilator associated pneumonia

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59
Q

Risk factors for VRE

A

Prolonged hospitalization, long-term use of vancomycin, recent surgery, compromised immune system

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60
Q

What is the body’s defense against infection?

A

inflammatory response, immune response, normal flora

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61
Q

What is the primary immune response?

A

Antibodies

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62
Q

What do antibodies do?

A

Bind with antigens to inactivate an immune response

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63
Q

T/F Immune function declines with aging.

A

True

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64
Q

Passive immunity (natural) means?

A

Immunity passed from mom to baby via breastmilk, placenta

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65
Q

Passive immunity (artificial) means?

A

Antibodies produced in another animal or person and given to at-risk individual to prevent disease after exposure

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66
Q

Active Immunity (natural) means?

A

exposure to antigen naturally

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67
Q

Active Immunity (artificial) means?

A

Antigen given in form of vaccine to stimulate antibody production

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68
Q

What is an inactivated vaccine?

A

A vaccine that is given to stimulate production of antibodies, but the microorganism has been killed

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69
Q

What is a live vaccine?

A

Microorganism exists in the vaccine in a weakened form

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70
Q

Which live vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy and immunocompromised patients?

A

MMR (immunocompromised) & Var (pregnancy and immunocompromised)

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71
Q

What are three distinct roles of the nurse?

A

Patient advocate, collaborator, coordinator

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72
Q

What are some of the national patient safety goals? (NPSG)

A

Patient identification, improve staff communication, medication safety, safe use of alarms, infection prevention, identify patient safety risks (mental health assessment), prevent surgical error

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73
Q

What are keys to effective collaboration by the RN?

A

Inform, empower, assist in goal setting, be patient-centered

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74
Q

What are outcomes of successful collaboration?

A

Reduced use and cost of resources, improved patient safety.

75
Q

Covert conflict means?

A

Avoiding and ignoring

76
Q

Overt conflict means?

A

Openly disagreeing and confronting

77
Q

What is the basic cell of the nervous system?

A

A neuron

78
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A

12

79
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31

80
Q

What function do cranial nerves serve?

A

sensory, motor or mixed

81
Q

What function do spinal nerves serve?

A

motor and sensory activities; each with a specific function

82
Q

What are somatic reflexes?

A

skeletal muscle contraction

83
Q

What are autonomic reflexes?

A

Reflexes that activate cardiac, smooth muscle, and glands

84
Q

How long does white matter grow steadily?

A

For the first four decades of life

85
Q

What is the limbic system responsible for?

A

The drive for basic needs, melatonin release, circadian rhythm, emotions

86
Q

Which neurological system is linked to addiction?

A

The limbic system

87
Q

What is increased intracranial pressure?

A

A condition or trauma that causes pressure within the cranial vault

88
Q

What are consequences of increased intracranial pressure?

A

Cerebral edema, increased ICP, and decreased cerebral perfusion

89
Q

What are risk factors for ICR problems in the elderly?

A

degenerative diseases and/or conditions, falls

90
Q

What are risk factors for ICR problems in adolescents and young adults?

A

Trauma, MVA, ATV accidents

91
Q

What are risk factors for ICR problems in infants and toddlers?

A

accidents, congenital defects

92
Q

What is important to know when assessing LOC?

A

Your patient’s baseline

93
Q

What is evident in deep brain injuries?

A

Vital sign changes

94
Q

Full consciousness definition

A

A&Ox4

95
Q

Disorientation definition

A

Not oriented to person, place, time

96
Q

Obtundation definition

A

Lethargic

97
Q

Stupor definition

A

Awakes with vigorous or painful stimuli

98
Q

Semicomatose definition

A

Painful stimuli may result in stirring

99
Q

Coma definition

A

Unarousable; nonpurposeful response

100
Q

Deep Coma definition

A

brain-dead

101
Q

What are the most common nursing assessment findings on those with affected intracranial regulation?

A

Motor & mental functioning issues

102
Q

What can increased ICP cause?

A

Increased ICP restricts blood flow, causing ischemia

103
Q

What is Caloric testing?

A

Hot or cold stimuli on face.

104
Q

What is an abnormal sign in Romberg testing?

A

ataxia (swaying)

105
Q

What is a positive (abnormal) Brudzinski sign?

A

Pain when flexing head to chest (meningitis sign)

106
Q

What is a positive (abnormal) Kernig sign?

A

Pain when flexing knees and hips or straightening legs

107
Q

Which is a worse sign, decorticate or decerebrate posturing?

A

Decerebrate

108
Q

What can you do to prevent dysfunction in intracranial regulation?

A

Have a good diet, exercise regimen, no tobacco, be safe!

109
Q

What is active transport?

A

A process in which energy moves substances against the concentration gradient (high to low, low to high); moves things back and forth

110
Q

What lab values are higher in the blood if you are not well hydrated?

A

Sodium, Potassium and hematocrit

111
Q

What is osmosis?

A

The movement of water across cell membranes from less concentrated solution to more concentrated solutions

112
Q

What is colloid osmotic pressure?

A

A form of osmotic pressure that is exerted by proteins (albumin) in a blood’s plasma that pulls water into the circulatory system

113
Q

What does osmolality mean/refer to?

A

thickness of solutes

114
Q

What happens in a hypertonic solution?

A

It shrinks/squishes a cell

115
Q

What happens in a hypotonic solution?

A

It enlarges a cell

116
Q

Diffusion goes from a ___ concentration to a ___ concentration

A

high, low

117
Q

Filtration is the ….

A

movement of fluid and solutes together across a membrane from one compartment to another; it is like putting coffee through a filter

118
Q

Sodium lives ____ the cell

A

outside

119
Q

Potassium lives ___ the cell

A

inside

120
Q

How much fluid intake should a normal individual have per day?

A

2500 ML/day

121
Q

How much fluid output should an individual have per day of urine?

A

1400-1500 ML’s of urine

122
Q

How can you maintain homeostasis within the body?

A

Drink water, limit salt, consume potassium

123
Q

Potassium is responsible for?

A

Skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle function

124
Q

What is calcium responsible for and where is most found?

A

Regulating muscle contractions (Cardiac), most is found in skeletal system

125
Q

What is Magnesium responsible for?

A

Operating the sodium potassium pump, regulating cardiac and neuromuscular function, relaxing muscle contractions

126
Q

What is Bicarbonate?

A

A major body buffer that regulates acid-base balance

127
Q

How are babies different with fluid loss?

A

Babies lose a lot of fluid when they have diarrhea.

128
Q

Does stress increase or decrease production of ADH?

A

Increase

129
Q

What can beta-blockers help with?

A

Reducing the response to adrenaline

130
Q

What are signs of fluid volume excess?

A

Neuro: Changes in LOC, confusion, headaches, seizures
Respiratory: Pulmonary congestion
Cardiovascular: Bounding pulse, high BP, JVD, S3 heart sounds, tachycardia
GI: Anorexia, nausea
Edema: pitting edema

131
Q

What should you assess for fluid volume deficits?

A

Hypotension, weak pulses, perfusion, LOC, muscle strength, electrolytes, CBC, specific gravity–urine

132
Q

Electrolytes balance the ____ in your body

A

fluid

133
Q

Electrolytes balance your __ level

A

pH

134
Q

Homeostasis occurs via ____, _____, and ____ _____

A

diffusion, osmosis and active transport

135
Q

Fluid overload in the body is held in ______ _____ in an effort to store it until the body can process it.

A

interstitial spaces

136
Q

When providing holistic care, whose perspective should we use to look at life?

A

The patient’s

137
Q

What are components of the holistic nursing assessment?

A

The assessment of the entire physical body, the use of our five senses during the exam and the use of caring and being present during assessment.

138
Q

What is culture shock?

A

The feelings a person experiences when placed in a different culture

139
Q

What is world view?

A

How any person or culture perceives or understands the world of others

140
Q

How is health viewed in the West?

A

As an absence of disease, food impacts health in good & bad ways, independence/individualism is valued

141
Q

How is health viewed in the East?

A

Health is a state of harmony involving mind, body and spirit; food can heal imbalances, there are cultural healers

142
Q

What does acculturation mean?

A

The process of accepting another culture as your own

143
Q

What are Tanner Stages?

A

Stages of sexual maturation

144
Q

What are the five stages of the sexual response cycle?

A

Desire, Arousal, Plateau, Orgasm, Resolution

145
Q

STI’s can lead to infertility and PID. T/F

A

True

146
Q

STI’s can cause major issues or death in newborns. T/F

A

True

147
Q

T/F A person exposed to HIV is two to five times more likely to acquire HIV than a person who does not have an STI.

A

True

148
Q

Which STI is the leading cause of infertility?

A

Chlamydia

149
Q

What does integrity mean?

A

Doing the right thing even when no one is looking; admit your mistakes

150
Q

The Nurse Practice Act is written by _______

A

legislatures

151
Q

Who does the Nurse Practice Act protect?

A

The public

152
Q

What are the steps of the nursing process in order?

A

Assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, evaluation

153
Q

What is the Patient Self-Determination Act?

A

An act mandating health care facilities to inform patient’s of their right to make decisions about their medical care

154
Q

What are the 5 rights of delegation?

A

Right task, circumstance, person, direction, supervision

155
Q

T/F The National Counsel of State Boards of Nursing oversees the state boards, develops licensure exams and deals with national standards for nurses and protects the public instead of the nurse.

A

True

156
Q

What can a nurse never delegate?

A

Assessments, client teaching, evaluations

157
Q

What main idea is behind the primary level of prevention?

A

To prevent disease or illness

158
Q

What main idea is behind the secondary level of prevention?

A

To detect and treat an illness

159
Q

What main idea is behind the tertiary level of prevention?

A

Educate the client to prevent further issues

160
Q

What are some barriers to access of health care?

A

Lack of health insurance, lack of a PCP, uneven distribution of services (underserved areas), perceptions to an individual of need

161
Q

What are signs of skin cancer?

A

Asymmetry, Uneven border, variety of color, large diameter, any change in mole appearance or size.

162
Q

Cold increases inflammation T/F

A

False; cold decreases inflammation.

163
Q

T/F Heat increases inflammation

A

True.

164
Q

Maceration definition

A

Too wet

165
Q

What are signs of an infection?

A

errhythema, necrosis, purulent drainage, smell

166
Q

Dehiscence definition

A

Partial or total separation of wound layers

167
Q

Evisceration definition

A

Total separation of wound with perfusion

168
Q

What is the Braden Scale?

A

A measure used to predict risk for pressure ulcers.

169
Q

What are the five principles of ethics?

A

Beneficence, Autonomy, Justice, Fidelity, Veracity

170
Q

What are the five values from the Code of Ethics?

A

Altruism, Social Justice, Integrity, Autonomy, Dignity

171
Q

Nonmaleficence definition

A

One ought not inflict harm

172
Q

Beneficence definition

A

One ought to prevent harm

173
Q

Veracity definition

A

Full disclosure

174
Q

What is a normal pH range of body fluids?

A

7.35-7.45

175
Q

What are the three systems that work together to maintain a normal range of pH?

A

Buffer System, Respiratory System, Renal System

176
Q

Which system acts first in maintaining a normal pH?

A

The buffer system; Bicarb 24-28 mEq/L; used up quickly, not effective long-term

177
Q

Which system acts second in maintaining a normal pH?

A

Respiratory system; the person blows off acid, which causes respiratory alkalosis; less effective over time

178
Q

Metabolic acidosis in the Respiratory drive causes..

A

Increased respiratory rate; must fix the issue via blowing off CO2 or hyperventilate (Kussmal respirations)

179
Q

The renal system is used to compensate for respiratory imbalances T/F

A

True

180
Q

Renal compensation is the slowest compensation T/F

A

True

181
Q

Renal compensation is the most powerful method of compensation T/F

A

True

182
Q

Renal compensation is effective in patients with renal failure. T/F

A

False; renal compensation is ineffective in patients with renal failure.

183
Q

Terbutaline stops contractions by relaxing the uterus. T/F

A

True

184
Q

Magnesium sulfate is given with pre-eclampsia and eclampsia to prevent seizures. T/F

A

True

Health Promotion 2700 (1 decks)

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