Final Exam Notes Flashcards

1
Q

What time period does antepartum consist of?

A

From the moment you become pregnant to the moment you deliver

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2
Q

EDC/EDD stands for?

A

Estimated date of delivery

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3
Q

Thyroid issues in pregnancy can cause?

A

multiple miscarriages

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4
Q

Lordosis means?

A

spine curvature

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5
Q

cervical os means?

A

opening of cervix

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6
Q

When are fetal heart tones not present?

A

in a tubal pregnancy

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7
Q

When is a mildly elevated white count normal?

A

during pregnancy

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8
Q

What lab value is always lower in pregnancy?

A

hemoglobin

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9
Q

What should be checked during 2nd trimester?

A

blood glucose

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10
Q

Goodell’s Sign refers to?

A

When the vaginal portion of the cervix becomes softer due to vascularization

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11
Q

Chadwick’s Sign refers to?

A

Bluish appearance to the cervix; probable sign of pregnancy.

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12
Q

Oxytocin is known as?

A

Labor hormone (contracts uterus), the ‘love’ hormone

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13
Q

Relaxin causes?

A

relaxation of uterus

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14
Q

Embryonic Stage time period?

A

is from conception through the end of 8th wk of pregnancy

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15
Q

Fetal Stage time period?

A

Week 9-Birth

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16
Q

Full Term time period?

A

38-40 weeks after conception

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17
Q

Naegele’s Rule is calculated how and for what reason?

A

Last Menstrual Period-3 months + 7 days

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18
Q

Four Types of Pelvis and most common/favorable?

A

Gynecoid (most common and favorable); Android, Anthropoid, Platypelloid

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19
Q

GTPAL means?

A

Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortions, Living Children

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20
Q

Gravida definition?

A

Total number of pregnancies

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21
Q

Leopold’s Maneuver is what?

A

Feeling for baby’s head and back to determine the position of the baby.

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22
Q

How is fundal height measured?

A

By measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the highest part of the uterus

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23
Q

What should a pregnant woman take for headaches?

A

Tylenol Only; not safe over 20 wks.

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24
Q

What is a stable HR in a baby?

A

110-160

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25
Q

Where are Braxton Hicks felt?

A

Only in front of the uterus; caused by uterine irritability.

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26
Q

What can a pregnant woman do to decrease urine loss?

A

Kegel Exercises

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27
Q

What age defines a geriatric mother?

A

Over 35

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28
Q

What is a normal amount of fetal kicks per hour?

A

10 or more.

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29
Q

What problem can happen if there is not enough amniotic fluid?

A

Baby can have kidney problems.

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30
Q

Nuchal cord means?

A

Umbilical cord wrapped around baby’s neck

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31
Q

Placental circulation is?

A

The direction of flow is different from that in the normal body

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32
Q

Why is psyche important in a laboring mom?

A

It is difficult for the uterus to dilate if mom is trying to maintain control and has anxiety.

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33
Q

Fetal Attitude refers to?

A

Relation of fetal body parts to each other

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34
Q

Fetal Lie means?

A

Orientation of long axis of fetus to long axis of woman; can be longitudinal or transverse

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35
Q

What positions are best for a baby delivery?

A

LOA or ROA

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36
Q

How are contractions measured?

A

From the beginning of one to the beginning of the next

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37
Q

What is the key for a ticket to stay in L&D?

A

Progressive cervical changes

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38
Q

What are signs of true labor?

A

Contractions 45 seconds to 1 minute, for greater than one hr and increasing in intensity; symmetrical, regular, predictable contractions and do not stop

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39
Q

Latent Phase of labor consists of?

A

30-45 second contractions; every 5-20 mins apart

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40
Q

Active Labor consists of?

A

Dilation from 4 to 7 cm; contractions 45-60 seconds long and 2-5 mins apart, membranes may rupture

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41
Q

Transition phase consists of?

A

8-10cm dilation, 60-120 second long intense contractions with rest periods of 30-90 seconds; this stage lasts 10-60 minutes

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42
Q

2nd Stage of Labor happens when?

A

Pushing, fully dilated

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43
Q

3rd Stage of Labor happens when?

A

Delivery of Placenta; risk of hemorrhage increases as length of 3rd stage increases

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44
Q

What should you do if fetal distress is present?

A

Turn Pitocin off if being induced; give fluid bolus of Lactated Ringers, change maternal position, FHR

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45
Q

When is APGAR score assessed?

A

At 1 and 5 minutes

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46
Q

What is the purpose of a fundal massage?

A

It reduces the risk of hemorrhage in mom

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47
Q

Which infectious agent is the most prevalent and significant in health care settings?

A

Bacteria

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48
Q

What are some possible reservoirs for infectious agents?

A

People, animals, soil, food, water, milk, inanimate objects

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49
Q

What is a portal of exit?

A

A means for a micro-organism to leave its source

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50
Q

What are some common portals of exit?

A

Respiratory, blood, GI (feces, saliva, vomit) and GU (vaginal secretions, urine) systems, breaks in skin or through tissue.

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51
Q

Incubation Period

A

Organisms growing and multiplying

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52
Q

Prodromal Stage

A

Person is most infectious (vague and nonspecific signs of disease)

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53
Q

Full stage of Illness

A

Signs and symptoms present

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54
Q

Convalescent period

A

Period of recovery

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55
Q

What are the Stages of Infection?

A

Incubation period, Prodromal Stage, Full stage of Illness, Convalescent period

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56
Q

What are some cardinal signs of infection?

A

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

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57
Q

What are some lab values indicating infection?

A

Elevated WBC (normal 5-10k), elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, presence of pathogens in urine, blood, cultures or sputum

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58
Q

What are the four major categories of hospital acquired infections?

A

CAUTI’s (catheter UTI), surgical site infection, central line associated bloodstream infection, ventilator associated pneumonia

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59
Q

Risk factors for VRE

A

Prolonged hospitalization, long-term use of vancomycin, recent surgery, compromised immune system

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60
Q

What is the body’s defense against infection?

A

inflammatory response, immune response, normal flora

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61
Q

What is the primary immune response?

A

Antibodies

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62
Q

What do antibodies do?

A

Bind with antigens to inactivate an immune response

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63
Q

T/F Immune function declines with aging.

A

True

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64
Q

Passive immunity (natural) means?

A

Immunity passed from mom to baby via breastmilk, placenta

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65
Q

Passive immunity (artificial) means?

A

Antibodies produced in another animal or person and given to at-risk individual to prevent disease after exposure

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66
Q

Active Immunity (natural) means?

A

exposure to antigen naturally

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67
Q

Active Immunity (artificial) means?

A

Antigen given in form of vaccine to stimulate antibody production

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68
Q

What is an inactivated vaccine?

A

A vaccine that is given to stimulate production of antibodies, but the microorganism has been killed

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69
Q

What is a live vaccine?

A

Microorganism exists in the vaccine in a weakened form

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70
Q

Which live vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy and immunocompromised patients?

A

MMR (immunocompromised) & Var (pregnancy and immunocompromised)

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71
Q

What are three distinct roles of the nurse?

A

Patient advocate, collaborator, coordinator

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72
Q

What are some of the national patient safety goals? (NPSG)

A

Patient identification, improve staff communication, medication safety, safe use of alarms, infection prevention, identify patient safety risks (mental health assessment), prevent surgical error

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73
Q

What are keys to effective collaboration by the RN?

A

Inform, empower, assist in goal setting, be patient-centered

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74
Q

What are outcomes of successful collaboration?

A

Reduced use and cost of resources, improved patient safety.

75
Q

Covert conflict means?

A

Avoiding and ignoring

76
Q

Overt conflict means?

A

Openly disagreeing and confronting

77
Q

What is the basic cell of the nervous system?

78
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

79
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

80
Q

What function do cranial nerves serve?

A

sensory, motor or mixed

81
Q

What function do spinal nerves serve?

A

motor and sensory activities; each with a specific function

82
Q

What are somatic reflexes?

A

skeletal muscle contraction

83
Q

What are autonomic reflexes?

A

Reflexes that activate cardiac, smooth muscle, and glands

84
Q

How long does white matter grow steadily?

A

For the first four decades of life

85
Q

What is the limbic system responsible for?

A

The drive for basic needs, melatonin release, circadian rhythm, emotions

86
Q

Which neurological system is linked to addiction?

A

The limbic system

87
Q

What is increased intracranial pressure?

A

A condition or trauma that causes pressure within the cranial vault

88
Q

What are consequences of increased intracranial pressure?

A

Cerebral edema, increased ICP, and decreased cerebral perfusion

89
Q

What are risk factors for ICR problems in the elderly?

A

degenerative diseases and/or conditions, falls

90
Q

What are risk factors for ICR problems in adolescents and young adults?

A

Trauma, MVA, ATV accidents

91
Q

What are risk factors for ICR problems in infants and toddlers?

A

accidents, congenital defects

92
Q

What is important to know when assessing LOC?

A

Your patient’s baseline

93
Q

What is evident in deep brain injuries?

A

Vital sign changes

94
Q

Full consciousness definition

95
Q

Disorientation definition

A

Not oriented to person, place, time

96
Q

Obtundation definition

97
Q

Stupor definition

A

Awakes with vigorous or painful stimuli

98
Q

Semicomatose definition

A

Painful stimuli may result in stirring

99
Q

Coma definition

A

Unarousable; nonpurposeful response

100
Q

Deep Coma definition

A

brain-dead

101
Q

What are the most common nursing assessment findings on those with affected intracranial regulation?

A

Motor & mental functioning issues

102
Q

What can increased ICP cause?

A

Increased ICP restricts blood flow, causing ischemia

103
Q

What is Caloric testing?

A

Hot or cold stimuli on face.

104
Q

What is an abnormal sign in Romberg testing?

A

ataxia (swaying)

105
Q

What is a positive (abnormal) Brudzinski sign?

A

Pain when flexing head to chest (meningitis sign)

106
Q

What is a positive (abnormal) Kernig sign?

A

Pain when flexing knees and hips or straightening legs

107
Q

Which is a worse sign, decorticate or decerebrate posturing?

A

Decerebrate

108
Q

What can you do to prevent dysfunction in intracranial regulation?

A

Have a good diet, exercise regimen, no tobacco, be safe!

109
Q

What is active transport?

A

A process in which energy moves substances against the concentration gradient (high to low, low to high); moves things back and forth

110
Q

What lab values are higher in the blood if you are not well hydrated?

A

Sodium, Potassium and hematocrit

111
Q

What is osmosis?

A

The movement of water across cell membranes from less concentrated solution to more concentrated solutions

112
Q

What is colloid osmotic pressure?

A

A form of osmotic pressure that is exerted by proteins (albumin) in a blood’s plasma that pulls water into the circulatory system

113
Q

What does osmolality mean/refer to?

A

thickness of solutes

114
Q

What happens in a hypertonic solution?

A

It shrinks/squishes a cell

115
Q

What happens in a hypotonic solution?

A

It enlarges a cell

116
Q

Diffusion goes from a ___ concentration to a ___ concentration

117
Q

Filtration is the ….

A

movement of fluid and solutes together across a membrane from one compartment to another; it is like putting coffee through a filter

118
Q

Sodium lives ____ the cell

119
Q

Potassium lives ___ the cell

120
Q

How much fluid intake should a normal individual have per day?

A

2500 ML/day

121
Q

How much fluid output should an individual have per day of urine?

A

1400-1500 ML’s of urine

122
Q

How can you maintain homeostasis within the body?

A

Drink water, limit salt, consume potassium

123
Q

Potassium is responsible for?

A

Skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle function

124
Q

What is calcium responsible for and where is most found?

A

Regulating muscle contractions (Cardiac), most is found in skeletal system

125
Q

What is Magnesium responsible for?

A

Operating the sodium potassium pump, regulating cardiac and neuromuscular function, relaxing muscle contractions

126
Q

What is Bicarbonate?

A

A major body buffer that regulates acid-base balance

127
Q

How are babies different with fluid loss?

A

Babies lose a lot of fluid when they have diarrhea.

128
Q

Does stress increase or decrease production of ADH?

129
Q

What can beta-blockers help with?

A

Reducing the response to adrenaline

130
Q

What are signs of fluid volume excess?

A

Neuro: Changes in LOC, confusion, headaches, seizures
Respiratory: Pulmonary congestion
Cardiovascular: Bounding pulse, high BP, JVD, S3 heart sounds, tachycardia
GI: Anorexia, nausea
Edema: pitting edema

131
Q

What should you assess for fluid volume deficits?

A

Hypotension, weak pulses, perfusion, LOC, muscle strength, electrolytes, CBC, specific gravity–urine

132
Q

Electrolytes balance the ____ in your body

133
Q

Electrolytes balance your __ level

134
Q

Homeostasis occurs via ____, _____, and ____ _____

A

diffusion, osmosis and active transport

135
Q

Fluid overload in the body is held in ______ _____ in an effort to store it until the body can process it.

A

interstitial spaces

136
Q

When providing holistic care, whose perspective should we use to look at life?

A

The patient’s

137
Q

What are components of the holistic nursing assessment?

A

The assessment of the entire physical body, the use of our five senses during the exam and the use of caring and being present during assessment.

138
Q

What is culture shock?

A

The feelings a person experiences when placed in a different culture

139
Q

What is world view?

A

How any person or culture perceives or understands the world of others

140
Q

How is health viewed in the West?

A

As an absence of disease, food impacts health in good & bad ways, independence/individualism is valued

141
Q

How is health viewed in the East?

A

Health is a state of harmony involving mind, body and spirit; food can heal imbalances, there are cultural healers

142
Q

What does acculturation mean?

A

The process of accepting another culture as your own

143
Q

What are Tanner Stages?

A

Stages of sexual maturation

144
Q

What are the five stages of the sexual response cycle?

A

Desire, Arousal, Plateau, Orgasm, Resolution

145
Q

STI’s can lead to infertility and PID. T/F

146
Q

STI’s can cause major issues or death in newborns. T/F

147
Q

T/F A person exposed to HIV is two to five times more likely to acquire HIV than a person who does not have an STI.

148
Q

Which STI is the leading cause of infertility?

149
Q

What does integrity mean?

A

Doing the right thing even when no one is looking; admit your mistakes

150
Q

The Nurse Practice Act is written by _______

A

legislatures

151
Q

Who does the Nurse Practice Act protect?

A

The public

152
Q

What are the steps of the nursing process in order?

A

Assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, evaluation

153
Q

What is the Patient Self-Determination Act?

A

An act mandating health care facilities to inform patient’s of their right to make decisions about their medical care

154
Q

What are the 5 rights of delegation?

A

Right task, circumstance, person, direction, supervision

155
Q

T/F The National Counsel of State Boards of Nursing oversees the state boards, develops licensure exams and deals with national standards for nurses and protects the public instead of the nurse.

156
Q

What can a nurse never delegate?

A

Assessments, client teaching, evaluations

157
Q

What main idea is behind the primary level of prevention?

A

To prevent disease or illness

158
Q

What main idea is behind the secondary level of prevention?

A

To detect and treat an illness

159
Q

What main idea is behind the tertiary level of prevention?

A

Educate the client to prevent further issues

160
Q

What are some barriers to access of health care?

A

Lack of health insurance, lack of a PCP, uneven distribution of services (underserved areas), perceptions to an individual of need

161
Q

What are signs of skin cancer?

A

Asymmetry, Uneven border, variety of color, large diameter, any change in mole appearance or size.

162
Q

Cold increases inflammation T/F

A

False; cold decreases inflammation.

163
Q

T/F Heat increases inflammation

164
Q

Maceration definition

165
Q

What are signs of an infection?

A

errhythema, necrosis, purulent drainage, smell

166
Q

Dehiscence definition

A

Partial or total separation of wound layers

167
Q

Evisceration definition

A

Total separation of wound with perfusion

168
Q

What is the Braden Scale?

A

A measure used to predict risk for pressure ulcers.

169
Q

What are the five principles of ethics?

A

Beneficence, Autonomy, Justice, Fidelity, Veracity

170
Q

What are the five values from the Code of Ethics?

A

Altruism, Social Justice, Integrity, Autonomy, Dignity

171
Q

Nonmaleficence definition

A

One ought not inflict harm

172
Q

Beneficence definition

A

One ought to prevent harm

173
Q

Veracity definition

A

Full disclosure

174
Q

What is a normal pH range of body fluids?

175
Q

What are the three systems that work together to maintain a normal range of pH?

A

Buffer System, Respiratory System, Renal System

176
Q

Which system acts first in maintaining a normal pH?

A

The buffer system; Bicarb 24-28 mEq/L; used up quickly, not effective long-term

177
Q

Which system acts second in maintaining a normal pH?

A

Respiratory system; the person blows off acid, which causes respiratory alkalosis; less effective over time

178
Q

Metabolic acidosis in the Respiratory drive causes..

A

Increased respiratory rate; must fix the issue via blowing off CO2 or hyperventilate (Kussmal respirations)

179
Q

The renal system is used to compensate for respiratory imbalances T/F

180
Q

Renal compensation is the slowest compensation T/F

181
Q

Renal compensation is the most powerful method of compensation T/F

182
Q

Renal compensation is effective in patients with renal failure. T/F

A

False; renal compensation is ineffective in patients with renal failure.

183
Q

Terbutaline stops contractions by relaxing the uterus. T/F

184
Q

Magnesium sulfate is given with pre-eclampsia and eclampsia to prevent seizures. T/F