Final Exam (new Material) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the incidence of sacral sacral spondylolysis in the general population?

A

It’s rare

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2
Q

What ethnic group is associated with a high incidence of sacral spondylolysis?

A

The native alaskan (Inuit) population

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3
Q

Is sacral spondylolysis the result of congenital conditions, acquired conditions or an age-related condition?

A

It seems to be acquired

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4
Q

What activities are associated with sacral spondylolysis?

A

Kayaking and harpooning

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5
Q

What is the ethnic, gender and locational bias associated with sacral spondylolysis?

A

The native Alaskan (inuit) male at the S1 level

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6
Q

What is the definition of spondylolisthesis?

A

A vertebral slippage

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7
Q

What vertebral condition results in spondylolisthesis?

A

Bilateral spondylolysis

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8
Q

What is the direction of spondylolisthesis?

A

Anterior or forward displacement

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9
Q

What is the posterior direction of vertebral slippage called?

A

Retrospondylolisthesis or retrolisthesis

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10
Q

Identify all names given to type 1 spondylolisthesis

A

Dysplastic spondylolisthesis, congenital spondylolisthesis

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11
Q

What is the locational bias of type 1 spondylolisthesis?

A

L5 or upper sacral segments

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12
Q

What is the location of the defect associated with type 1 spondylolisthesis?

A

More frequently the vertebral arch

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13
Q

What additional conditions are linked to type 1 spondylolisthesis

A

Spina bifida occulta and nerve root compression of the S1 nerve

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14
Q

Identify all names given to type 2 spondylolisthesis

A

Isthmic spondylolisthesis

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15
Q

Which subtype of type 2 spondylolisthesis is stressed in spinal 2?

A

Lytic spondylolisthesis or stress fracture induced spondylolisthesis

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16
Q

What is the cause most frequently given for type 2 spondylolisthesis

A

Microfractures as the result of repetitive stress during hyper flexion and rotation

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17
Q

What is the age group typically associated with type 2 spondylolisthesis

A

Teenagers or young adults

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18
Q

Will spondylolysis always result in type 2 spondylolisthesis

A

No, particularly in cases of unilateral spondylolysis

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19
Q

What spinal canal dimensions are associated with type 2 spondylolisthesis

A

Isthmic spondylolisthesis demonstrates an increase in Sagittarius diameter of the spinal canal

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20
Q

What is the gender bias and locational bias associated with type 2 spondylolisthesis

A

Isthmic spondylolisthesis is common in men at the L5/S1 level

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21
Q

What conditions are often associated with type 3 spondylolisthesis

A

Degenerative spondylolisthesis is often associated with osteoarthritis, intervertebral disc degeneration, ligament laxity and articular facet remodeling

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22
Q

What is the gender bias, locational bias, and spinal canal dimension changes often associated with type 3 spondylolisthesis

A

Degenerative spondylolisthesis is more common in women, particularly at L4/L5, and demonstrates no change in sagittal diameter of the spinal canal

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23
Q

Identify all names given to type 4 spondylolisthesis

A

Traumatic spondylolisthesis

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24
Q

What causes type 4 spondylolisthesis

A

Fracture of the neural arch components

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25
Q

Is there gender, locational, or age bias associated with type 4 spondylolisthesis

A

No

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26
Q

Identify all names given to type 5 spondylolisthesis

A

Pathologic spondylolisthesis

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27
Q

What are the cause(s) associated with type 5 spondylolisthesis

A

Bone diseases such as pager disesase or osteogenesis imperfecta

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28
Q

What determines the length of the intervertebral foramen?

A

The width of the pedicle

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29
Q

What may extend the length of the intervertebral foramen?

A

The transverse process, muscle or ligaments

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30
Q

What forms the superior boundary for the typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The inferior vertebral notch of the pedicle above

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31
Q

What is the average height of the intervertebral foramen?

A

About 13 mm

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32
Q

What are the generic contents of the intervertebral foramen

A

Neural tissue, connective tissue, vascular tissue, lymphatic tissue

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33
Q

What is the percent of neural tissue in the intervertebral foramen?

A

From 8 to 50 percent

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34
Q

What are the characteristics of the Artery of Adamkiewicz?

A

It is a left side, anterior medullary feeder artery, located in the T9/T10 intervertebral foramen, and the primary vascular supply to the lumbar enlargement

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35
Q

What is the most likely region of the thoracic spine for herniation

A

Below T8

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36
Q

What will the intervertebral veins drain into?

A

The external vertebral venous plexus or Batson’s plexus

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37
Q

What is a unique histological feature of the veins of the vertebral column

A

They appear to lack valves

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38
Q

What size lymphatic vessels lie in the intervertebral foramen

A

Medium sized lymphatics

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39
Q

What type(s) of connective tissue will be present in the intervertebral foramen

A

Adipose tissue and loose areolar connective tissue

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40
Q

What is the relationship of cervical intervertebral foramen height to nerve root size

A

The height increases but the nerve root size stays about the same from cranial to caudal

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41
Q

What parts of the cervical vertebra will modify the intervertebral foramen

A

The lateral groove and uncinate process

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42
Q

What is the relationship between aging and cervical spine nerve root characteristics

A

The length of the nerve root increases as it descends from its apparent origin on the spinal cord, but the cross-sectional area of the nerve root decreases

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43
Q

What are the specific attachment sites for a cervical spinal nerve?

A

The sulcus for the ventral primary ramus on the costotransverse bar and the vertebral artery

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44
Q

What contributes to the anterior boundary of the thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

The costocentral joint

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45
Q

What is the amount of contribution of the intervertebral disc to the height of the lumbar intervertebral foramen?

A

About half

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46
Q

Which are the largest spinal nerves

A

L5 and S1 spinal nerves

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47
Q

What increases the length of the intervertebral foramen at L5

A

The lumbosacral tunnel

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48
Q

What forms the lumbosacral tunnel

A

The lumbosacral ligament, transverse process of L5 and sacral Ala

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49
Q

What condition is the result of encroachment on the L5 spinal nerve

A

The far out syndrome

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50
Q

What ligaments may contribute to the loss of size in the lumbar intervertebral foramen

A

The transforaminal ligament and corporotransverse ligament

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51
Q

What is unusual about the sacral intervertebral foramen compared to other intervertebral foramina

A

A completely osseous boundary exists

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52
Q

What is more likely the cause of nerve irritation at the sacral intervertebral foramen?

A

The tilt or position of the entire sacrum relative to the pelvis

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53
Q

What is unique about the relationship of spinal nerve to intervertebral foramen at S5-Co1?

A

There are two nerves present, S5 nerve and Co1 nerve

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54
Q

What are some examples of destructive lesions of the vertebral body?

A

Tuberculosis, hemangiomas, osteoporosis

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55
Q

What may reduce the impact of intervertebral disc loss of integrity on the intervertebral foramen in the cervical and thoracic spine?

A

The joint of Luschka in the cervcals, the costocentral joint in the thoracics

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56
Q

What are some examples of osteophyte formation that influence the intervertebral foramen

A

The bony spurs of the vertebral body and para-articular processes on the lamina

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57
Q

What are some examples of acquired alterations of the spinal curves identified in class?

A

Obesity, pregnancy and the use of heavy backpacks

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58
Q

What is the recommended weight of a backpack compared to individual weight for the developing spine?

A

Backpack weight should not exceed 10% individual body weight

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59
Q

What are the curvatures of the vertebral column?

A

Anterior, Posterior, and lateral

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60
Q

What is the direction of the primary curve of the vertebral column?

A

Posterior

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61
Q

Why is the posterior curve also called the primary curve?

A

It is the first curve to appear embryologically

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62
Q

What are adult remnants of primary curve along the vertebral column?

A

The thoracic and dorsal curve and the pelvic and sacrococcygeal curve

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63
Q

What are the names given to curves that form during development to reverse the direction of regions along the vertebral column

A

Anterior curve, secondary curve, compensatory curve

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64
Q

What are the names of the anterior curves, secondary curves, and compensatory curves

A

The cervical curve and lumbar curve

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65
Q

What segmental levels form the cervical curve

A

C2-T1

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66
Q

What is the earliest time of appearance of the cervical curve?

A

The third fetal month

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67
Q

What is the traditional time of appearance of the cervical curve said to be?

A

During the last trimester in utero

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68
Q

What is the time during which the “adult” cervical curve is said to appear

A

Within the first year after birth

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69
Q

What developmental events are indicated in the formation of the adult cervical curve?

A
  1. Centers for vision and equilibrium will appear in the brain
  2. Musculature attaching the skull, cervical region, and upper thorax together develops
  3. The head is held upright
  4. The intervertebral disc height becomes greater anterior than posterior
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70
Q

At what age will the infant begin to hold the head erect?

A

Usually between the third and fourth month after birth

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71
Q

What is the name given to the integration of visual and motor pathways associated with holding the head erect?

A

The righting reflex

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72
Q

What is the location for the apex of the cervical curve?

A

Typically between C4 and C5

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73
Q

What is the location for the cervical kyphosis

A

Between occiput and C1

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74
Q

What is the name given to the primary cervical curve?

A

Cervical kyphosis

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75
Q

What is the vertebral relationship between the cervical curve and the cervical enlargement?

A

Cervical curve C2-T1; cervical enlargement C3-T1

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76
Q

What is the time of appearance of the lumbar curve?

A

Between 12 and 18 months after birth

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77
Q

What infant activities are associated with the development of the lumbar curve

A

Crawling and walking

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78
Q

What developmental events are indicated in the formation of the adult lumbar curve?

A
  1. Crawling will cause the abdomen to put tension on the lumbar region and pulls it forward
  2. Muscle development is promoted to compensate for the swayback of the lumbar
  3. Intervertebral disc height will become greater anterior compared to posterior
  4. Walking will further promote muscle and intervertebral disc development
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79
Q

What happens within the intervertebral disc to facilitate the lumbar curve development?

A

The nucleus purposes of L4 will shift its position within the annulus fibrosis

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80
Q

Which sense is a requirement for holding the head erect, standing, sitting, and walking?

A

Vision

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81
Q

What is the gender bias associated with lumbar curve convexity

A

Females have greater convexity of the lumbar curve

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82
Q

What is the vertebral relationship between the lumbar curve and lumbar enlargement

A

Lumbar curve T12-L5; lumbar enlargement T9-T12

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83
Q

What is the formation of the lateral curve often correlated with?

A

Faster development of the muscles on the side of handedness

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84
Q

What is the time of appearance of the lateral curves

A

They appear after 6 years old

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85
Q

What locations of lateral curves are recognized?

A

Cervical, thoracic or dorsal, and lumbar

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86
Q

Which lateral curves are best developed?

A

Thoracic or dorsal, and lumbar

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87
Q

What is the relationship between the curve direction and handedness?

A

A right-handed person has high probability for a right thoracic, left lumbar curve combination

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88
Q

What is the incidence of a right thoracic, left lumbar curve combination in the population

A

About 80% of the population demonstrate this

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89
Q

What does the suffix “osis” mean

A

A condition

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90
Q

Does “osis” infer a normal or an abnormal condition

A

Neither, it is non-judgemental

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91
Q

What generic names identified abnormal curves of the vertebral column?

A

Lordosis, kyphosis, scoliosis

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92
Q

What is the definition of lordosis

A

A froward bending condition

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93
Q

What is the definition of kyphosis

A

A humpback or hunchback condition

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94
Q

What is the definition of scoliosis

A

A warped or crooked condition

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95
Q

What is the direction of the curve deviation in scoliosis

A

To the side (it is a lateral curve deviation)

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96
Q

Is there a locational bias for the classic definition of lordosis

A

No, there would be an increase in the anterior direction in the cervical spine, a decrease in the posterior direction in the thoracic spine, an increase in the anterior direction in the lumbar spine and a decrease in the posterior direction in the pelvic or sacrococcygeal region

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97
Q

Is there a locational bias for the classic definition of kyphosis?

A

No, there would be a decrease in the anterior direction in the cervical spine, an increase in the posterior direction in the thoracic spine, a decrease in the anterior direction in the lumbar spine and an increase in the posterior direction in the pelvic or sacrococcygeal region

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98
Q

What clinical abnormal curvatures of the vertebral column were stressed in class

A

Military neck, humpback or hunchback, and swayback

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99
Q

What is military neck

A

A decreased anterior curve in the in the cervical region, a straight neck

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100
Q

What is humpback or hunchback

A

An increased posterior curve in the thoracic region

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101
Q

What is swayback

A

An increased anterior curve in the lumbar region

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102
Q

What is classic classification of military neck

A

A kyphosis

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103
Q

What is classic classification of humpback or hunchback

A

A kyphosis

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104
Q

What is classic classification of swayback?

A

A lordosis

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105
Q

What does the use of the term lordotic try to imply?

A

A normal cervical and normal lumbar anterior curve

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106
Q

What does the use of the term kyphotic try to imply?

A

A normal thoracic or dorsal and normal pelvic or sacrococcygeal posterior curve

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107
Q

What prefixes are used to convert abnormality in curve patterns?

A

Hyper and hypo

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108
Q

What does the term hyperlordotic infer?

A

An increase in the anterior curve of the cervical or lumbar region

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109
Q

What does the term hypolordotic infer?

A

A decrease in the anterior curve of the cervical or lumbar region

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110
Q

What does the term hyperkyphotic infer?

A

An increase in the posterior curve of the thoracic/dorsal or pelvic/sacroccocygeal region

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111
Q

What does the term hypokyphotic infer?

A

A decrease in the posterior curve of the thoracic/dorsal or pelvic/sacrococcygeal region

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112
Q

What are the curve classifications for military neck

A

A kyphosis or hypolordotic curve

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113
Q

What are the curve classifications for humpback or hunchback

A

A kyphosis or kyperkyphotic curve

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114
Q

What are the curve classifications for swayback

A

A lordosis or hyperlordotic curve

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115
Q

What is the more compelete, accepted definition of scoliosis

A

An abort all lateral curve coupled with axial rotation

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116
Q

What is the radiological test for skeletal maturity

A

The riser sign, an indication of bone maturity in the iliac apophysis

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117
Q

What are the classifications of scoliosis according the scoliosis research society

A

Magnitude, location, direction, etiology, structural scoliosis and non-structural scoliosis

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118
Q

What does magnitude of scoliosis refer to?

A

The length and angle of the curve deviation on x-ray

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119
Q

What is often used to measure the magnitude of scoliosis

A

The Cobb method

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120
Q

What does location of scoliosis infer

A

The location of the vertebral segment forming the apex of the curve deviation

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121
Q

What does direction of scoliosis mean?

A

The cause of the scoliosis

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122
Q

What is structural scoliosis

A

A more radical form of scoliosis, it may worsen, associated with structural deformities of the vertebra or intervertebral disc, frequently has a fixed angle of trunk rotation

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123
Q

What is nonstructural scoliosis

A

A mild form of scoliosis, unlikely to worsen, not associated with structural deformities of the vertebra or intervertebral disc and lacks a fixed angle of trunk rotation

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124
Q

What is the classification of scoliosis that is unique to the individual patient?

A

Idiopathic scoliosis

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125
Q

What does idiopathic scoliosis infer?

A

The scoliosis is unique to the individual, it has no known cause, unknown etiology

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126
Q

What is the incidence of idiopathic scoliosis in the population

A

1 to 4 percent of the population

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127
Q

Based on age of onset, what are the types of idiopathic scoliosis

A

Infantile, juvenile, and adolescent

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128
Q

What is the age range for infantile idiopathic scoliosis

A

From birth to 3 years old

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129
Q

What is the age range for juvenile idiopathic scoliosis

A

From 3 years old to 10 years old

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130
Q

What is the age range for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis

A

Over 10 years old

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131
Q

Identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of infantile idiopathic scoliosis

A

Left thoracic, male, less than 1% incidence

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132
Q

Identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of juvenile idiopathic scoliosis

A

Right thoracic, females over 6 years old, and 12-21% incidence

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133
Q

Identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of adolescent idiopathic scoliosis

A

Right thoracic or right thoracic and left lumbar, females, and 80% incidence

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134
Q

What is the genetic factor associated with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis

A

An autosomal dominant factor that runs in families

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135
Q

What is the relationship between curve deviation, incidence, and curve worsening

A

The greater the deviation, the lower the incidence, and the more likely to worsen

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136
Q

What is the name given to segments that lie in the transition zones of the vertebral column

A

Transition vertebrae

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137
Q

What are the transition zones of the vertebral column

A

Occipitocervical, cervicothoracic, thoracolumbar, lumbosacral, and sacrococcygeal zones

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138
Q

How are specific segments within a transition one identified

A

By adjacent region of the segment, process of transition, and specific segment (occipitalization of C1)

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139
Q

What does the suffix “ization” refer to?

A

In the process of becoming

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140
Q

What are the possible transition zone - segment combinations?

A

Cervicalization of occiput, occipitalization of C1
Dorsalization of C7, cervicalization of T1
Lumbarization of T12, dorsalization of L1
Sacralization of L5, lumbarization of S1
Coccygealization of S5, sacralization of Co1

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141
Q

What is/are characteristic(s) of cericalization of occiput

A

An increase in occipital bone size, formation of new or larger lines on the occipital bone

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142
Q

What is/are the characteristic(s) of occipitalization of C1?

A

The atlas may be partially or completely fused to the occiput

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143
Q

What is another way of implying occipitalization of C1

A

Atlas assimilation

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144
Q

What is the incidence of occipitalization of C1

A

0.1 to 0.8%

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145
Q

When do the centers of ossification for the odontoid process first appear

A

During the last trimester in utero

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146
Q

When does the bilateral ossification center for the odontoid process fuse?

A

At or shortly after birth

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147
Q

What joint forms between the odontoid process ossification centers and the centrum of C2?

A

The sub dental synchondrosis

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148
Q

What joint classification is present between the C2 odontoid process and centrum?

A

Amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

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149
Q

Ossification between the odontoid process and centrum joint of C2 first appears at what age?

A

4 years old

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150
Q

A joint between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 is last identified at what age?

A

At 7 years old

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151
Q

What is the name given to the condition in which the joint formed between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 persists beyond age 7?

A

Os odontoideum

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152
Q

What is an os odontoideum

A

A persistence beyond age 7 of the joint formed between the centrum and odontoid process centers of ossification

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153
Q

What is the name given to the joint between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 which is still evident beyond age 7?

A

Persistent subdental synchondrosis

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154
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between the tip of the dens and the odontoid process centers of ossification?

A

Tip of the dens synchondrosis

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155
Q

What is the classification of the joint formed between the tip of the dens and odontoid process centers of ossification?

A

Amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

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156
Q

At what age will the tip of the dens center of ossification appear

A

Sometime in early adolescence

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157
Q

Based on the age of appearance, how is the tip of the dens center of ossification classified?

A

Secondary center of ossification

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158
Q

At what age will the tip of the dens fuse with the odontoid process?

A

Before age 12

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159
Q

If the joint formed between the tip of the dens and odontoid process centers of ossification persists beyond age 12, what is the condition called?

A

Terminal ossicle

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160
Q

What is basilar impression

A

Persistence of the nonunion of the basilar and condylar parts of the chondrocranium such that the cartilage deforms due to the weight of the brain

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161
Q

What is basilar invagination

A

The upper cervical spine appears to be invaginated into the skull on x-ray analysis

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162
Q

What is/are the characteristic(s) of dorsalization of C7?

A

The addition of a rib and changes in superior articular facet orientation are typical

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163
Q

What is the incidence of rib-related changes following dorsalization of C7

A

From one-half to two and one-half percent of the population

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164
Q

Do patients typically present with symptoms specific for dorsalization of C7?

A

No, they are typically asymptomatic

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165
Q

What is the gender bias suggested in dorsalization of C7

A

Female

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166
Q

What alteration in C7 facet orientation may accompany dorsalization?

A

The superior articular facet of C7 may change from the back, upward, and medial to that of a typical thoracic facet…back, upward, and lateral; the inferior articular facet is unchanged

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167
Q

What alteration in C6 facet orientation may accompany dorsalization?

A

C6 demonstrates a change in inferior articular facet orientation from forward, lateral, and downward to forward, medial, and downward; the superior articular facet unchanged

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168
Q

What percent of the population may demonstrate thoracic-like features at C7

A

Up to 46%

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169
Q

What rib-related changes may accompany cervicalization of T1?

A

The first rib may decrease in mean relative length or become absent

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170
Q

What will result from fusion of a short rib to the T1 transverse process?

A

The transverse foramen

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171
Q

What is the incidence of cervicalization of T1 in the population

A

Up to 28% of the population

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172
Q

What rib-related changes may accompany dorsalization of L1

A

Elongated bones shaped like ribs may appear

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173
Q

What is the incidence of lumbar ribs in the population

A

Over 7% of the population demonstrates lumbar ribs

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174
Q

What L1 facet orientation changes may accompany dorsalization

A

The superior articular facet may change from concave, back upward, and medial to flat, back, upward, and lateral; the inferior articular facet is unchanged

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175
Q

What T12 facet orientation changes may accompany dorsalization

A

The inferior articular facet may change from convex, forward, lateral, and downward to flat, forward, medial, and downward; the superior articular facet is unchanged

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176
Q

What is the gender bias associated with dorsalization of L1

A

Males are two to three times more affected

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177
Q

What rib-related changes may accompany lumbarization of T12?

A

A significant shortening of the mean relative length of 113 mm of the twelfth rib or it becomes absent

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178
Q

What T12 facet orientation changes may accompany lumbarization

A

The superior articular facet may change from flat, back, upward, and lateral to concave, back, upward, and medial; the inferior articular facet is unchanged

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179
Q

What T11 facet orientation changes may accompany lumbarization

A

The inferior articular facet may change from flat, forward, medial, and downward to convex, forward, lateral, and downward; the superior articular facet is unchanged

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180
Q

What is characteristic of lumbarization of S1

A

The failure of synostosis between S1 and S2, squaring of the vertebral body of S1 and flaring of the sacral ala

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181
Q

What unique characteristic of lumbarization of S1 were stressed in class?

A

Squaring of the vertebral body of S1 and flaring of the sacral ala

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182
Q

What is failure of synostosis between S1 and S2?

A

The segments do not completely fuse together

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183
Q

What articular facet changes accompany lumbarization of S1?

A

None

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184
Q

What is characteristic of sacralization of L5

A

L5 may be partially or completely fused to the sacrum

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185
Q

What it is the incidence of sacralization of L5 in the population

A

41 to 85%

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186
Q

Which segment demonstrates the greatest morphological variation along the spine?

A

L5

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187
Q

What articular facet changes accompany sacralization of L5

A

None

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188
Q

What is the incidence of variation within the sacrococcygeal region in the population

A

Up to 14%

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189
Q

Which of the muscles attaching to the spinous processes represent layer one of the true back?

A

Trapezius, latissimus dorsi

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190
Q

Which of the muscles attaching to spinous processes represent layer two of the true back?

A

Rhomboid major and minor

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191
Q

Which muscles attaching to transverse processes represent layer two of the true back

A

Levator scapulae

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192
Q

The trapezius is innervated by what nerve?

A

The spinal accessory nerve

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193
Q

What forms the spinal accessory nerve innervations the trapezius

A

C1-C5 cord levels contribute to the spinal root of the spinal accessory nerve

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194
Q

What forms the thoracodorsal nerve innervations the latissimus dorsi

A

Ventral rami from C6-C8

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195
Q

Which of the muscles of the true back are innervated by the dorsal scapular nerve

A

Levator scapulae, rhomboid major, rhomboid minor

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196
Q

What forms the dorsal scapular nerve

A

The ventral ramus of C5

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197
Q

What part of the vertebra forms the osseous origin for the splenius muscles

A

The spinous process

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198
Q

What is the innvervation of the splenius capitis

A

Dorsal rami of middle cervical spinal nerves (C3-5 cord levels)

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199
Q

What is the innervation of the splenius cervicis

A

Dorsal rami of lower cervical spinal nerves (C5-C7 cord levels)

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200
Q

Which muscles represent the fourth layer of the true back

A

The erector spinal or sacrospinalis muscles

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201
Q

Which muscles are identified as erector spinae or sacrospinalis muscles

A

Iliocostalis, longissimus, Spinalis

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202
Q

What is the innervation of the iliocostalis lumborum

A

Dorsal rami of lower thoracic and all lumbar spinal nerves

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203
Q

What is the innervation of the iliocostalis thoracis

A

Dorsal rami of upper 6 thoracic spinal nerves (T1-6 cord levels)

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204
Q

What is the innervation of the iliocostalis cervicis

A

Dorsal rami of T1, T2 spinal nerves, sometimes C8 spinal nerve (C8, T1, T2 cord levels)

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205
Q

What muscles are classically identified as longissimus muscles

A

Longissimus thoracis, longissimus cervicis and longissimus capitis

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206
Q

What is the innervation of the longissimus thoracis

A

Dorsal rami of all thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves (cord levels T1-12, L1-5)

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207
Q

What is the innervation of the longissimus cervicis

A

Dorsal rami of C4-8 and T1-2 spinal nerves (C4-8 & T1-2 cord levels)

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208
Q

What is the innervation of the longissimus capitis

A

Dorsal rami of C1-3 or C4 spinal nerves, (C1-3 or C4 cord levels)

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209
Q

What muscles are classically identified as spinalis muscles

A

Spinalis thoracis, cervicis, and capitis

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210
Q

What is the innervation of the spinalis thoracis

A

Dorsal rami of all thoracic and upper lumbar nerves

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211
Q

What is the innervation of the spinalis cervicis

A

Dorsal rami of all cervical spinal nerves (C1-8 cord levels)

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212
Q

What is the innervation of the spinalis capitis

A

Dorsal rami of lower cervical and upper thoracic spinal nerves

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213
Q

Which muscles are identified as transversospinalis muscles

A

Semi spinalis, multifidis, and rotators

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214
Q

What is the innervation of the semi spinalis thoracis

A

Dorsal rami of T1-6 spinal nerves (cord levels T1-6)

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215
Q

What is the innervation of the semispinalis cervicis

A

Dorsal rami of C6-8, spinal nerves (cord levels C6-8)

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216
Q

What is the innervation of the semispinalis capitis

A

Dorsal rami of C1-6 spinal nerves (Cord levels C1-6)

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217
Q

What regional subdivisions are now identified with multifidis muscles?

A

Lumbar multifidis, thoracic multifidis and cervical multifidis

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218
Q

What is the innervation of the classic multifidis

A

Dorsal rami of C3-8, T1-12, L1-5 and S1 spinal nerves (Cord levels C3-8, T1-12, L1-5 and S1)

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219
Q

Contraction of the multifidis cervicis will result in what movements

A

Alters the zygapophyseal capsular ligament response to load distribution determines the cervical spine response to injury as evidenced by neck pain and is a significant contributor to postural control of the head and neck

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220
Q

What innervate the rotators

A

Dorsal rami at the level of insertion are believed to do so

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221
Q

What muscles are included in the suboccipital muscle group

A

Rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis Posterior minor, obliques capitis inferior and obliquus capitis superior

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222
Q

Which suboccipital muscle lacks an attachment to the skull

A

Obliquus capitis inferior

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223
Q

Which nerve will innervate all suboccipital muscles

A

Dorsal ramus of C1, the suboccipital nerve

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224
Q

Contraction of rectus capitis posterior major will result in what movements

A

Turns the face to the side, bilaterally acts to extend the head

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225
Q

Contraction of rectus capitis posterior minor will result in what movements

A

Extends the head

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226
Q

Contraction of the obliquus capitis inferior will result in what movement

A

Turns the face to the side

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227
Q

Contraction of the obliquus capitis superior will result in what movements

A

Lateral flexion/lateral bending of the head bilaterally acts to extend the head

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228
Q

An increase in the density of muscle spindles is most apparent in which suboccipital muscle?

A

Obliquus capitis inferior

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229
Q

Suboccipital muscle feedback relays to what additional locations in the brain

A

Extraocular nuclei of origin, primary visual cortex and vestibular nuclei

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230
Q

What is the result of communication between suboccipital muscles, visual centers and vestibular centers?

A

Coordination of head and eye position

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231
Q

What is the proposed function of the suboccipital muscle group?

A

Postural stabilizers of the Atlanto-occipital and Atlanto-axial joints

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232
Q

Which suboccipital muscles are known to attach to dura mater

A

Rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor and obliquus capitis inferior

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233
Q

Inter spinalis is paired in which regions of the spine

A

Cervical and lumbar regions

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234
Q

At what locations will interspinalis be absent along the spine?

A

T3-4 down to T10-11

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235
Q

Based on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the interspinalis

A

Acts as a propioceptive transducer in conjunction with intertransversarii to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture

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236
Q

Intertransversarii are paired in which region(s) of the spine?

A

Cervical and lumbar regions

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237
Q

In which region of the spine are intertransversarii best developed

A

Cervical region

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238
Q

Which of the cervical intertransversarii is innervated by dorsal rami of cervical spinal nerves?

A

Posterior medial belly, cervical intertransversarii

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239
Q

Which of the lumbar intertransversarii is innervated by dorsal rami of lumbar spinal nerves

A

Medial belly, lumbar intertransversarii

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240
Q

Which muscle group is innervated by both dorsal rami and ventral rami of spinal nerves?

A

Intertransversarii

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241
Q

Which muscle group is innervated by both dorsal rami and ventral rami of spinal nerves

A

Intertransversarii

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242
Q

Based on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the intertransversarii

A

Acts as a propioceptive transducer in conjunction with interspinalis to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture

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243
Q

What will innervate the longus colli

A

Ventral rami of C2-6 or C7 spinal nerves

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244
Q

Contraction of longus capitis will result in what movements

A

Flex the head

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245
Q

What will innervate the longus capitis

A

The ventral rami of C1-3 spinal nerves

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246
Q

Contraction of rectus capitis anterior will result in what movements

A

Flex the head

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247
Q

What will innervate the rectus capitis anterior

A

Ventral rami of C1-2 spinal nerves

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248
Q

What will innervate the anterior scalene

A

The ventral rami of C2-6 spinal nerves

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249
Q

What will innervate the middle scalene

A

The ventral rami of C3-8 spinal nerves

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250
Q

What will innervate the posterior scalene

A

The ventral rami of C6-8 spinal nerves

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251
Q

Which muscle is said to form the iliolumbar ligaments

A

Quadratus lumborum

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252
Q

What will innervate the quadratus lumborum

A

The ventral rami of T12 & L1-3 or L4 spinal nerves

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253
Q

What will innervate the psoas major

A

Primarily the ventral rami of L2 & L3, may include ventral remains of L1 & L4 spinal nerves

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254
Q

What is the origin of the psoas major

A

Vertebral bodies T12,L1

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255
Q

What will innervate the psoas major

A

The ventral ramus of L1 spinal nerve

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256
Q

What will innervate the iliacus

A

The femoral nerve, primarily the ventral rami of L2 & L3

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257
Q

What will innervate the levator costarum brevis

A

The dorsal rami of T1-12 spinal nerves

258
Q

What will innervate the levator costarum longus

A

The dorsal rami of the lower thoracic spinal nerves

259
Q

What will innervate the serratus posterior superior

A

The ventral rami of T2-5 spinal nerves…. intercostal nerves

260
Q

What will innervate the serratus posterior inferior

A

The ventral rami of T9-11, the intercostal nerves & the ventral ramus of T12, the subcostal nerve

261
Q

What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

A

Limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

262
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

Articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

263
Q

What is the general function of ligaments?

A

Stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint

264
Q

What are the common characteristics of type 1 articular receptors

A

Located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

265
Q

What are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors

A

Located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

266
Q

What is the function of type 3 articular receptors

A

They monitor the joint during extreme motion or beyond normal range of motion

267
Q

What are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors

A

Present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

268
Q

What is the function of type 4 articular receptors

A

Nociceptive, they monitor pain

269
Q

Type 4b articular receptors would be present in what locations

A

Accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

270
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane

A

(1) synovial villi, (2) articular fat pads or Haversian glands, (3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

271
Q

What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane

A

Aid in spreading synovial fluid

272
Q

What is the apparent function of synovial villi

A

Increase the surface of synovial membrane available for secretion - absorption phenomena

273
Q

Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column

A

Lumbar zygapophyses

274
Q

Condensed fibrous connective tissue or fibrocartilage projections of the synovial membrane are called….

A

Synovial menisci or intra-articular discs

275
Q

Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples

A

Femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses

276
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells

A

Are phagocytic

277
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells

A

Secret proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

278
Q

What is the common function of type A and type B synovial cells?

A

Formation and absorption of synovial fluid

279
Q

What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage

A

Water, cells, collagen type 2 fibers and a proteoglycan gel

280
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage

A

Form a network for water retention

281
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties

A

Cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

282
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties

A

Cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

283
Q

It what are the properties of synovial fluid

A

It is a yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

284
Q

Identify the common ligaments of the vertebral column

A

The 9 common ligaments are the anterior longitudinal ligament, intervertebral disc, posterior longitudinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, capsular ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum nuchae, supraspinous ligament and intertransverse ligament

285
Q

What is the maximum number of common ligaments identified with a vertebral couple?

286
Q

What is the reason that nine common ligaments are identified but only eight will be attached to any specific vertebral couple

A

The ligamentum nuchae and supraspinous ligaments attach to the spinous tubercles, but only one of these will be identified at a single vertebral couple

287
Q

What is the cervical nucleus pulposus composed of

A

Fibrocartilage

288
Q

What is the water concentration in the lumbar nucleus pulposus at birth and after thirty?

A

Birth….88%; thirty….70%

289
Q

What is the consequence of non-aggregated glycosaminoglycans in the lumbar nucleus pulposus

A

The nucleus pulposus will lose water under deformation conditions

290
Q

What cell is associated with the nucleus pulposus until about age 11

A

Notochord cells

291
Q

What cells are associated with the mature nucleus pulposus

A

Reticulocyte-fibroblast and chondroblast

292
Q

Which type of collagen is dominant in the nucleus pulposus

A

Collagen type 2

293
Q

What is the organizational pattern for collagen fibers in the nucleus pulposus

A

They are irregularly oriented and randomly scattered

294
Q

What is unusual about the cervical annulus fibrosus

A

It lacks any lamellar or layered organization

295
Q

What is the appearance of the cervical annulus fibrosus

A

A horse-shoe with anterior margin thick and the lateral margins tapering to the uncinate processes; the posterior margin is thin

296
Q

What compensates for the thinness of the posterior part of the cervical annulus fibrosus?

A

Posterior longitudinal ligament

297
Q

What is the organization of the lumbar annulus fibrosus

A

It has 12-14 concentric cylindrical lamellar

298
Q

What is the water concentration in the lumbar annulus fibrosus at birth and after thirty?

A

Birth…… 78%; thirty…… 70%

299
Q

Which type of collagen is dominant in the annulus fibrosus

A

Collagen type 1

300
Q

What is the organizational pattern for the collagen fibers in the annulus fibrosus

A

They are parallel with one another in a single lamellus and angled

301
Q

What is the organization of collagen fibers between the lamellae

A

Collagen fibers will be angled in the opposite direction such that a spiral - counterspiral organization is observed

302
Q

What is the average angle of collagen fibers within the annulus fibrosus

A

They average 50 to 60 degrees

303
Q

What is the thickest part of the cartilage end plate

A

Around the periphery

304
Q

What is the principal type of collagen fibers within the cartilage end plate?

A

Collagen fibers are aligned anterior to posterior

305
Q

What is the attachment site for collagen fibers of the inner lamellae of the annulus fibrosus

A

The cartilaginous end plate

306
Q

What is the earliest indicator of intervertebral disc pathology or degeneration

A

Changes in the histology of the cartilage end plate

307
Q

What part of the intervertebral disc is innervated

A

The outer lamellae of the annulus fibrosus

308
Q

What are the types of receptor endings in the intervertebral disc

A

Nociceptors and proprioceptors

309
Q

What is the relationship between size of the intervertebral disc and receptor endings

A

The larger the disc, the greater the variety of receptor endings

310
Q

What is the proposed function of receptor ending density in the anterior part of the intervertebral disc

A

They provide feedback during extension

311
Q

What are the sources of innervation of the intervertebral disc?

A

The sinu-vertebral nerve (sinus vertebral nerve, reccurrent meningeal nerve), fibers from the ventral primary ramus, fibers from the white ramus communicans, fibers from the paradiscal ramus communicans, fibers from the gray ramus communicans

312
Q

What vertebral levels will the anterior longitudinal ligament attach to?

A

Those between occiput and S3 inclusive are traditionally indicated

313
Q

What is the lowest extent of the anterior longitudinal ligament based on recent studies?

314
Q

What is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?

A

It brakes or limits dorsi-flexion or hyperextension of the vertebral column

315
Q

What was ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region identified as?

A

Forestier’s Disease

316
Q

Anterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the lumbar region is now identified as…..?

A

Disuse idiopathic Skeletal hyperostosis or DISH

317
Q

What is the innermost layer of the posterior longitudinal ligament called?

A

The perivertebral ligament

318
Q

What is the function of the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

It brakes or limits flexion of the vertebral column

319
Q

Where is ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly identified

A

The cervical spine with an 80% incidence

320
Q

What is the clinical sign of posterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the cervical spine?

A

A loss of hand and finger dexterity

321
Q

What is the incidence of posterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the thoracic and lumbar spine

A

About 10% at the thoracic and 10% at the lumbar spine

322
Q

What is the clinical sign of posterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the lumbar spine

A

Faltering gait

323
Q

What is the gender, age, and ethnic bias associated with ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

It is greater in males over 50 and has a higher incidence in the Japanese

324
Q

What is the acronym for ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament

325
Q

At one time ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament was an example of what condition

A

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis or DISH

326
Q

What is the relationship of the ligamentum flavum to the vertebral foramen?

A

It forms the posterior boundary of the spinal canal

327
Q

What is the histology of the ligamentum flavum

A

It is formed primarily with elastic fibers, which are yellow in appearance

328
Q

What is the name given to the ligamentum flavum based on appearance and histology

A

It is a yellow elastic ligament

329
Q

What is the function of the ligamentum flavum

A

It brakes or limits flexion of the vertebral column

330
Q

What is now thought to be a major function of the ligamentum flavum

A

It is an early prime factor in extension of the vertebral column

331
Q

Where is ossification of the ligamentum flavum most commonly identified

A

The thoracic spine or thoracolumbar transition zone

332
Q

What is the acronym for ossification of the ligamentum flavum

333
Q

What is the relationship between the capsular ligament and mobility?

A

The more lax/loose the capsular ligament is, the greater the motion of the joint

334
Q

What regions of the vertebral column demonstrate the greatest laxity of capsular ligaments?

A

The cervical and lumbar regions

335
Q

The capsular ligament may blend with which other common ligament

A

The ligamentum flavum

336
Q

What muscle will blend with capsular ligament posteriorly?

A

The multifidis

337
Q

If the zygapophyseal capsular ligament is not significantly involved in restricting motion what is its’ function

A

It is probably involved in propioceptive feedback to the muscle stabilizing the vertebral couple during movement

338
Q

What vertebral levels will the interspinous ligament be attached to?

A

Those between C2 and S1 inclusive are traditionally indicated

339
Q

What is now thought to be a major function of the interspinous ligament

A

It is more likely a propioceptive transducer for spinal reflex

340
Q

What will the ligamentum nuchae be attached to?

A

The external occipital protuberance, external occipital crest, the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1, and spinous tubercles between C2 and C7 inclusive are traditionally indicated

341
Q

What is the name given to the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

The funicular layer or part

342
Q

What are the names given to the superficial and deep layer of the ligamentum nuchae

A

Funicular layer and lamellar layer

343
Q

What is the histological make-up of the ligamentum nuchae in quadrupeds?

A

It is a yellow elastic ligament

344
Q

What is the histological make-up of the human ligamentum nuchae

A

It is a yellow elastic ligament, but has more collagen fibers than in quadrupeds

345
Q

What is the primary yellow elastic or elastic ligament of the spine

A

The ligamentum flavum

346
Q

What is the classic function of the human ligamentum nuchae?

A

It brakes or limits flexion of the cervical spine

347
Q

What will the supraspinous ligament be attached to

A

The spinous tubercles along the vertebral column from C7 to sacrum

348
Q

What is the termination level inferiorly for the supraspinous ligament according to current literature?

A

Primarily at L4 (73%); between L4 and L5 (5%)

349
Q

Where is the supraspinous ligament said to be best developed

A

In the lumbar spine

350
Q

What is the classic function of the human supraspinous ligament

A

It brakes or limits flexion of the spine

351
Q

Wha this now thought to be a major function for the supraspinous ligament

A

It is a propioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

352
Q

What is the proposed function of the suboccipital muscle group?

A

Postural stabilizers of the Atlanto-occipital and Atlanto-axial joints

353
Q

Which suboccipital muscles are known to attach to dura mater

A

Rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor and obliquus capitis inferior

354
Q

Inter spinalis is paired in which regions of the spine

A

Cervical and lumbar regions

355
Q

At what locations will interspinalis be absent along the spine?

A

T3-4 down to T10-11

356
Q

Based on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the interspinalis

A

Acts as a propioceptive transducer in conjunction with intertransversarii to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture

357
Q

Intertransversarii are paired in which region(s) of the spine?

A

Cervical and lumbar regions

358
Q

In which region of the spine are intertransversarii best developed

A

Cervical region

359
Q

Which of the cervical intertransversarii is innervated by dorsal rami of cervical spinal nerves?

A

Posterior medial belly, cervical intertransversarii

360
Q

Which of the lumbar intertransversarii is innervated by dorsal rami of lumbar spinal nerves

A

Medial belly, lumbar intertransversarii

361
Q

Which muscle group is innervated by both dorsal rami and ventral rami of spinal nerves?

A

Intertransversarii

362
Q

Which muscle group is innervated by both dorsal rami and ventral rami of spinal nerves

A

Intertransversarii

363
Q

Based on the density of muscle spindles what is the proposed function of the intertransversarii

A

Acts as a propioceptive transducer in conjunction with interspinalis to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture

364
Q

What will innervate the longus colli

A

Ventral rami of C2-6 or C7 spinal nerves

365
Q

Contraction of longus capitis will result in what movements

A

Flex the head

366
Q

What will innervate the longus capitis

A

The ventral rami of C1-3 spinal nerves

367
Q

Contraction of rectus capitis anterior will result in what movements

A

Flex the head

368
Q

What will innervate the rectus capitis anterior

A

Ventral rami of C1-2 spinal nerves

369
Q

What will innervate the anterior scalene

A

The ventral rami of C2-6 spinal nerves

370
Q

What will innervate the middle scalene

A

The ventral rami of C3-8 spinal nerves

371
Q

What will innervate the posterior scalene

A

The ventral rami of C6-8 spinal nerves

372
Q

Which muscle is said to form the iliolumbar ligaments

A

Quadratus lumborum

373
Q

What will innervate the quadratus lumborum

A

The ventral rami of T12 & L1-3 or L4 spinal nerves

374
Q

What will innervate the psoas major

A

Primarily the ventral rami of L2 & L3, may include ventral remains of L1 & L4 spinal nerves

375
Q

What will innervate the psoas major

A

The ventral ramus of L1 spinal nerve

376
Q

What will innervate the iliacus

A

The femoral nerve, primarily the ventral rami of L2 & L3

377
Q

What will innervate the levator costarum brevis

A

The dorsal rami of T1-12 spinal nerves

378
Q

What will innervate the levator costarum longus

A

The dorsal rami of the lower thoracic spinal nerves

379
Q

What will innervate the serratus posterior superior

A

The ventral rami of T2-5 spinal nerves…. intercostal nerves

380
Q

What will innervate the serratus posterior inferior

A

The ventral rami of T9-11, the intercostal nerves & the ventral ramus of T12, the subcostal nerve

381
Q

What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

A

Limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

382
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

Articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

383
Q

What is the general function of ligaments?

A

Stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint

384
Q

What are the common characteristics of type 1 articular receptors

A

Located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

385
Q

What are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors

A

Located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

386
Q

What is the function of type 3 articular receptors

A

They monitor the joint during extreme motion or beyond normal range of motion

387
Q

What are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors

A

Present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

388
Q

What is the function of type 4 articular receptors

A

Nociceptive, they monitor pain

389
Q

Type 4b articular receptors would be present in what locations

A

Accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

390
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane

A

(1) synovial villi, (2) articular fat pads or Haversian glands, (3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

391
Q

What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane

A

Aid in spreading synovial fluid

392
Q

What is the apparent function of synovial villi

A

Increase the surface of synovial membrane available for secretion - absorption phenomena

393
Q

Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column

A

Lumbar zygapophyses

394
Q

Condensed fibrous connective tissue or fibrocartilage projections of the synovial membrane are called….

A

Synovial menisci or intra-articular discs

395
Q

Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples

A

Femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses

396
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells

A

Are phagocytic

397
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells

A

Secret proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

398
Q

What is the common function of type A and type B synovial cells?

A

Formation and absorption of synovial fluid

399
Q

What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage

A

Water, cells, collagen type 2 fibers and a proteoglycan gel

400
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage

A

Form a network for water retention

401
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties

A

Cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

402
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties

A

Cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

403
Q

It what are the properties of synovial fluid

A

It is a yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

404
Q

Identify the common ligaments of the vertebral column

A

The 9 common ligaments are the anterior longitudinal ligament, intervertebral disc, posterior longitudinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, capsular ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum nuchae, supraspinous ligament and intertransverse ligament

405
Q

What is the maximum number of common ligaments identified with a vertebral couple?

406
Q

What is the reason that nine common ligaments are identified but only eight will be attached to any specific vertebral couple

A

The ligamentum nuchae and supraspinous ligaments attach to the spinous tubercles, but only one of these will be identified at a single vertebral couple

407
Q

What is the cervical nucleus pulposus composed of

A

Fibrocartilage

408
Q

What is the water concentration in the lumbar nucleus pulposus at birth and after thirty?

A

Birth….88%; thirty….70%

409
Q

What is the consequence of non-aggregated glycosaminoglycans in the lumbar nucleus pulposus

A

The nucleus pulposus will lose water under deformation conditions

410
Q

What cell is associated with the nucleus pulposus until about age 11

A

Notochord cells

411
Q

What cells are associated with the mature nucleus pulposus

A

Reticulocyte-fibroblast and chondroblast

412
Q

Which type of collagen is dominant in the nucleus pulposus

A

Collagen type 2

413
Q

What is the organizational pattern for collagen fibers in the nucleus pulposus

A

They are irregularly oriented and randomly scattered

414
Q

What is unusual about the cervical annulus fibrosus

A

It lacks any lamellar or layered organization

415
Q

What is the appearance of the cervical annulus fibrosus

A

A horse-shoe with anterior margin thick and the lateral margins tapering to the uncinate processes; the posterior margin is thin

416
Q

What compensates for the thinness of the posterior part of the cervical annulus fibrosus?

A

Posterior longitudinal ligament

417
Q

What is the organization of the lumbar annulus fibrosus

A

It has 12-14 concentric cylindrical lamellar

418
Q

What is the water concentration in the lumbar annulus fibrosus at birth and after thirty?

A

Birth…… 78%; thirty…… 70%

419
Q

Which type of collagen is dominant in the annulus fibrosus

A

Collagen type 1

420
Q

What is the organizational pattern for the collagen fibers in the annulus fibrosus

A

They are parallel with one another in a single lamellus and angled

421
Q

What is the organization of collagen fibers between the lamellae

A

Collagen fibers will be angled in the opposite direction such that a spiral - counterspiral organization is observed

422
Q

What is the average angle of collagen fibers within the annulus fibrosus

A

They average 50 to 60 degrees

423
Q

What is the thickest part of the cartilage end plate

A

Around the periphery

424
Q

What is the principal type of collagen fibers within the cartilage end plate?

A

Collagen fibers are aligned anterior to posterior

425
Q

What is the attachment site for collagen fibers of the inner lamellae of the annulus fibrosus

A

The cartilaginous end plate

426
Q

What is the earliest indicator of intervertebral disc pathology or degeneration

A

Changes in the histology of the cartilage end plate

427
Q

What part of the intervertebral disc is innervated

A

The outer lamellae of the annulus fibrosus

428
Q

What are the types of receptor endings in the intervertebral disc

A

Nociceptors and proprioceptors

429
Q

What is the relationship between size of the intervertebral disc and receptor endings

A

The larger the disc, the greater the variety of receptor endings

430
Q

What is the proposed function of receptor ending density in the anterior part of the intervertebral disc

A

They provide feedback during extension

431
Q

What are the sources of innervation of the intervertebral disc?

A

The sinu-vertebral nerve (sinus vertebral nerve, reccurrent meningeal nerve), fibers from the ventral primary ramus, fibers from the white ramus communicans, fibers from the paradiscal ramus communicans, fibers from the gray ramus communicans

432
Q

What is the lowest extent of the anterior longitudinal ligament based on recent studies?

433
Q

What is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?

A

It brakes or limits dorsi-flexion or hyperextension of the vertebral column

434
Q

What was ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region identified as?

A

Forestier’s Disease

435
Q

Anterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the lumbar region is now identified as…..?

A

Disuse idiopathic Skeletal hyperostosis or DISH

436
Q

What is the innermost layer of the posterior longitudinal ligament called?

A

The perivertebral ligament

437
Q

What is the function of the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

It brakes or limits flexion of the vertebral column

438
Q

Where is ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly identified

A

The cervical spine with an 80% incidence

439
Q

What is the clinical sign of posterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the cervical spine?

A

A loss of hand and finger dexterity

440
Q

What is the incidence of posterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the thoracic and lumbar spine

A

About 10% at the thoracic and 10% at the lumbar spine

441
Q

What is the clinical sign of posterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the lumbar spine

A

Faltering gait

442
Q

What is the gender, age, and ethnic bias associated with ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

It is greater in males over 50 and has a higher incidence in the Japanese

443
Q

What is the acronym for ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament

444
Q

At one time ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament was an example of what condition

A

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis or DISH

445
Q

What is the relationship of the ligamentum flavum to the vertebral foramen?

A

It forms the posterior boundary of the spinal canal

446
Q

What is the histology of the ligamentum flavum

A

It is formed primarily with elastic fibers, which are yellow in appearance

447
Q

What is the name given to the ligamentum flavum based on appearance and histology

A

It is a yellow elastic ligament

448
Q

What is the function of the ligamentum flavum

A

It brakes or limits flexion of the vertebral column

449
Q

What is now thought to be a major function of the ligamentum flavum

A

It is an early prime factor in extension of the vertebral column

450
Q

Where is ossification of the ligamentum flavum most commonly identified

A

The thoracic spine or thoracolumbar transition zone

451
Q

What is the acronym for ossification of the ligamentum flavum

452
Q

What is the relationship between the capsular ligament and mobility?

A

The more lax/loose the capsular ligament is, the greater the motion of the joint

453
Q

What regions of the vertebral column demonstrate the greatest laxity of capsular ligaments?

A

The cervical and lumbar regions

454
Q

The capsular ligament may blend with which other common ligament

A

The ligamentum flavum

455
Q

What muscle will blend with capsular ligament posteriorly?

A

The multifidis

456
Q

If the zygapophyseal capsular ligament is not significantly involved in restricting motion what is its’ function

A

It is probably involved in propioceptive feedback to the muscle stabilizing the vertebral couple during movement

457
Q

What vertebral levels will the interspinous ligament be attached to?

A

Those between C2 and S1 inclusive are traditionally indicated

458
Q

What is now thought to be a major function of the interspinous ligament

A

It is more likely a propioceptive transducer for spinal reflex

459
Q

What will the ligamentum nuchae be attached to?

A

The external occipital protuberance, external occipital crest, the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1, and spinous tubercles between C2 and C7 inclusive are traditionally indicated

460
Q

What is the name given to the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

The funicular layer or part

461
Q

What are the names given to the superficial and deep layer of the ligamentum nuchae

A

Funicular layer and lamellar layer

462
Q

What is the histological make-up of the ligamentum nuchae in quadrupeds?

A

It is a yellow elastic ligament

463
Q

What is the histological make-up of the human ligamentum nuchae

A

It is a yellow elastic ligament, but has more collagen fibers than in quadrupeds

464
Q

What is the primary yellow elastic or elastic ligament of the spine

A

The ligamentum flavum

465
Q

What is the classic function of the human ligamentum nuchae?

A

It brakes or limits flexion of the cervical spine

466
Q

What will the supraspinous ligament be attached to

A

The spinous tubercles along the vertebral column from C7 to sacrum

467
Q

What is the termination level inferiorly for the supraspinous ligament according to current literature?

A

Primarily at L4 (73%); between L4 and L5 (5%)

468
Q

Where is the supraspinous ligament said to be best developed

A

In the lumbar spine

469
Q

What is the classic function of the human supraspinous ligament

A

It brakes or limits flexion of the spine

470
Q

What is now thought to be a major function for the supraspinous ligament

A

It is a propioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

471
Q

What will the intertransverse ligament attached to?

A

The transverse tubercles and transverse processes of adjacent vertebrae along the vertebral column from C1 to L5

472
Q

What is the status of the cervical intertransverse ligament

A

It is said to be paired with an anterior and a posterior intertransverse ligament present

473
Q

What is the status of the lumbar intertransverse ligament

A

It is well developed with the two parts identified, a ventral slip and a dorsal slip

474
Q

What is the classic function of the anterior Atlanto-occipital ligament

A

It brakes or limits “extension” of the skull over the cervical spine

475
Q

What is the classic function of the posterior Atlanto-occipital ligament

A

It brakes or limits axial rotation, flexion, and perhaps lateral bending of the skull on atlas

476
Q

What amount of flexion - extension is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint

A

About twenty-five degrees

477
Q

What amount of axial rotation is accommodated by the Atlanto-occipital joint

A

About three to eight degrees one side axial rotation

478
Q

What amount of lateral bending is accommodated by the Atlanto-occipital joint

A

About five degrees

479
Q

Which motion is best accommodated by the Atlanto-occipital joint

A

Flexion - extension

480
Q

Which Atlanto-occipital joint is identified as a synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

A

The median Atlanto-axial joint

481
Q

What are the joint surfaces of the median Atlanto-axial joint at the anterior bursa?

A

The fovea dentis of C1 and the facet for fovea dentis of C2

482
Q

What are the joint surfaces of the median atlanto-axial joint at the posterior bursa

A

The groove for the transverse Atlantal ligament of C2 and the transverse atlantal ligament

483
Q

What ligament is formed by the transverse atlantal ligament and it’s perpendicular extension

A

The cruciate ligament or cruciform ligament

484
Q

What is the function of the transverse atlantal ligament

A

It is the primary stabilizer of the atlanto-axial joint restricting the distance of C2 from the anterior arch of C1

485
Q

What is the ADI

A

The atlanto-Dental interspace, a radiographic distance between the surfaces of the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint

486
Q

What is the ADI of children compared with that of adults?

A

About 4.6 mm in children; a range of 2-3 mm or about 2.5 mm in adults

487
Q

What are characteristics of the capsular ligament of the lateral atlanto-axial joint

A

It is lax or loose and demonstrate a meniscoidal fold within the joint cavity

488
Q

What are the degrees of movement facilitated at the atlanto-axial joint

A

About 20 degrees flexion - extension, 40 degrees one side axial rotation, and 5 degrees of lateral bending

489
Q

The occiput-C1-C2 joint complex accounts for what percent of all cervical axial rotation?

490
Q

For the cervical spine below C2, what is the range of flexion - extension

A

About 90 degrees or about 18 degrees per couple

491
Q

For the cervical spine below C2, what is the range of one side lateral bending?

A

About 50 degrees or about 10 degrees per couple

492
Q

For the cervical spine below C2, what is the range of one side axial rotation?

A

About 33 degrees or about six degrees per couple

493
Q

At what rib will the superior costotransverse ligament be absent

A

The first rib

494
Q

Which ribs will have an attachment for the inferior costotransverse ligament

A

Rib 1 - rib 11

495
Q

Which vertebra will lack an attachment for the lateral costotransverse ligament

496
Q

Which vertebral couples of the thoracic spine have the greatest motion

A

T11/T12 and T12/L1

497
Q

Which range of motion is the greatest for lower thoracic vertebral couples

A

Flexion - extension

498
Q

Which range of motion is the least for the lower thoracic vertebral couples

A

One side axial rotation

499
Q

Which ligaments replace the intertransverse ligament at the lumbosacral joint

A

The iliolumbar ligament and lumbosacral ligament

500
Q

Which of the current ligaments from the iliolumbar ligament complex represents the iliolumbar ligament of classical descriptions

A

The superior iliolumbar ligament

501
Q

Which ligament from the iliolumbar ligament complex represents the lumbosacral ligament of classical descriptions

A

The inferior iliolumbar ligament

502
Q

Which vertebral couple of the lumbar spine has the greatest range of motion

503
Q

Which range of motion is greatest for all lumbar vertebral couples

A

Flexion - extension

504
Q

Which range of motion is least for L1-L5 vertebral couples

A

One side axial rotation

505
Q

Which range of motion is least for the L5/S1 vertebral couple

A

One side lateral bending

506
Q

List, in order, from cranial to caudal the ligaments forming the anterior boundary of the spinal column

A

The anterior atlanto-occipital ligament, the anterior atlanto-axial ligament, anterior longitudinal ligament and the anterior sacrococcygeal ligament

507
Q

List, in order, from cranial to caudal the ligaments forming the anterior boundary of the spinal canal

A

The membrana tectoria, Posterior longitudinal ligament and deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

508
Q

List, in order, from cranial to caudal the ligaments forming the posterior boundary of the spinal canal

A

The posterior atlanto-occipital ligament, posterior atlanto-axial ligament, ligamentum flavum and the superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

509
Q

What is the auricular surface of the sacrum composed of?

A

True articular cartilage, a modification of hyaline cartilage

510
Q

What is the auricular surface of the ilium composed of?

A

Articular cartilage, interspersed with fibrocartilage

511
Q

What is the superficial appearance of the auricular surfaces of the sacro-iliac joint by age 15?

A

The sacrum develops a sacral groove while the ilium develops an iliac ridge

512
Q

Which gender has greater unevenness of the auricular surface of the sacro-iliac joint?

513
Q

What pathological or age-related modifications of the sacro-iliac joint may occur?

A

Degenerative arthrosis and ankylosis

514
Q

What does ankylosis mean?

A

A condition of fibrous adhesion occurs within the joint

515
Q

What is the age and surface bias associated with degenerative arthrosis of the sacro-iliac joint?

A

Age 40, the iliac auricular surface

516
Q

What is the age and gender bias associated with ankylosis of the sacro-iliac joint/

A

Age 50 and male bias particularly in African American males

517
Q

What age and gender bias is associated with ossification of the anterior sacro-iliac ligament?

A

Age 40 and male bias

518
Q

Which is the strongest of the sacro-iliac ligaments?

A

The interosseous sacro-iliac ligament

519
Q

What are the attachment sites of the interosseous sacroiliac ligament?

A

At the sacral tuberosity and the iliac sulcus

520
Q

What passes between the layers of the interosseous sacro-iliac ligament?

A

Dorsal rami from the sacral spinal nerves

521
Q

What accessory sacro-iliac joint ligaments connect to the ischium?

A

The sacrotuberous ligament and the sacrospinous ligament

522
Q

What is formed by the continuation of the sacrotuberous ligament along the ischial ramus?

A

The falciform process

523
Q

What separates the greater sciatic and lesser sciatic foramina

A

The sacrospinous ligament

524
Q

What is the function of the sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments?

A

They oppose the upward tilt of the sacral apex and resist the rotation of sacrum between the innominate bones

525
Q

What vertebral levels correspond to the position of the manubrium sterni?

526
Q

Which ribs will articulate with the manubrium sterni?

A

The first and second ribs

527
Q

What vertebral levels correspond to the position of the corpus sterni

528
Q

How many sternabrae form the corpus sterni

A

4 sternabrae

529
Q

What ribs will joint with the corpus sterni via costal cartilage

530
Q

What feature of the corpus sterni is present in 4-7% of the population

A

A sternal foramen

531
Q

Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

Ribs 3 - 7

532
Q

Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in the typical adult skeleton

A

Ribs 1 and 2

533
Q

Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs in the typical adult skeleton

A

Ribs 8 and 9

534
Q

Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs in the typical adult skeleton

535
Q

Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skeleton

A

Ribs 11 and 12

536
Q

What joint classification is now given to the joint between the sternum, clavicle and first rib?

A

Synovial saddle (diarthrosis stellar) joint

537
Q

What ribs will participate in the sternocostal or sternochondral joint

A

Rib 1 to rib 7

538
Q

What is the classic classification of the first stenocostal or sternochondral joint

A

Cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

539
Q

What is the classification of the second - seventh sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

Synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia)

540
Q

What is the name given to the segments of the sternum?

A

Sternabrae (for sternal bodies)

541
Q

How many primary centers of ossification appear in the manubrium

A

1-3 centers have been identified

542
Q

How many primary centers of ossification appear in the corpus sterni?

A

Typically 6

543
Q

In what part of the sternum will a secondary center of ossification appear?

A

The xiphoid process

544
Q

When does the xiphoid process first demonstrate a center of ossification

A

Sometime during or after 3 years old

545
Q

In what part of the rib will primary centers of ossification appear

A

The body (corpus, shaft)

546
Q

In what parts of the true rib will secondary centers of ossification appear?

A

The head, articular surface of the tubercle and the non-articular surface of the tubercle

547
Q

Which ribs will demonstrate primary centers of ossification for the body (corpus or shaft)

A

All ribs; ribs 1-12

548
Q

Which ribs will demonstrate secondary centers of ossification

549
Q

What are the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints based on Latin groupings?

A

Suture, gomphosis, schindlyesis and syndesmosis

550
Q

What are the characteristics of suture Vera (true sutures)

A

Sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by the intramembranous ossification

551
Q

What are the characteristics of suture notha (false sutures)

A

Sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification

552
Q

What is the classification of a joint with a “nail-like” condition?

553
Q

What is the classification of a joint with a “fissure-like” condition?

A

Schindylesis

554
Q

What is the tip of the external occipital protuberance called?

555
Q

What is the appearance of suture intersections just above the zygomatic arch called?

A

The pterion

556
Q

What is the appearance of suture intersections just above the mastoid process called?

A

The asterion

557
Q

What points on the skull are used to measure the skull size?

A

The nation, vertex, inion and gnathion

558
Q

What points on the skull are used to measure cranial vault capacity?

A

The nation, vertex and inion

559
Q

What are the contents of the optic canal?

A

The optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

560
Q

What are the contents of the superior orbital fissure?

A

The ophthalmic veins, the oculomotor nerve, the trochlear nerve, the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, and the abducent nerve

561
Q

The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa via which opening?

A

The foramen rotundum

562
Q

What are the contents of the foramen ovale?

A

The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (Vc) and the lesser petrosal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve

563
Q

What opening allows a branch of cranial nerve Vc to enter the middle cranial fossa from the infratemporal region

A

The foramen spinosum

564
Q

Which vessel is located within the foramen spinosum

A

The middle meningeal artery

565
Q

What part of the cerebrum occupies the posterior cranial fossa?

A

None; the tentorium cerebellum separates the cerebrum into a space above the posterior cranial fossa

566
Q

What bony feature is prominent in the median plane of the posterior cranial fossa?

A

The clivus or basilar part of the occipital bone

567
Q

Which cranial nerves exit posterior cranial fossa Ostia?

A

Cranial nerve VII (facial), VIII (vestibulocochlear/auditory), IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), XI (spinal accessory) and XII (hypoglossal)

568
Q

What can the five layers of the scalp spell?

A

Skin, connective tissue, Aponeurosis, loose connective tissue, periosteum… SCALP

569
Q

What are the principal sources of blood to the scalp?

A

Internal carotid and external carotid artery branches

570
Q

What veins drain the scalp?

A

Superficial temporal, posterior auricular, occipital, & ophthalmic veins

571
Q

Which divisions of the trigeminal nerve receive sensory information from the scalp?

A

All 3 divisions: ophthalmic nerve, maxillary nerve, & mandibular nerve

572
Q

What is unusual/unique about the muscles of the face?

A

They do not act as lever muscles; they do not attach to bone at both origin & insertion

573
Q

Which muscles lack any attachment to bone?

A

Obicularis oris, procerus & risorius

574
Q

What type of motor fibers to skeletal muscle are given off by the facial nerve?

A

Branchial efferent (BE)

575
Q

What opening(s) are located along the superior wall of the orbit?

A

Optic canal

576
Q

What is the name given to the medial wall of the orbit

A

Lamina papyracea

577
Q

What opening(s) are located along the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

Superior orbital fissure

578
Q

What opening(s) are located along the inferior wall of the orbit?

A

Inferior orbital fissure

579
Q

What is contained in the inferior orbital fissure?

A

Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve

580
Q

What are the layers of the eyelid?

581
Q

What are the names given to the modified sebaceous gland in the tarsus of the eyelid?

A

Tarsal or Meibomian gland

582
Q

What is the function of the Meibomian gland?

A

Produces a thick, hydrophobic substance that presents tears from overflowing onto the cheeks along the margin of the eyelid

583
Q

What is the name of the gland located at the base of the eyelash?

A

Ciliary gland

584
Q

What are the names given to the modified sebaceous glands of the palpebra?

A

Tarsal gland or Meibomian gland and ciliary gland

585
Q

Which cranial nerves are involved in the Visceral Efferent (VE) parasympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A

Facial and trigeminal (maxillary and ophthalmic divisions/branches)

586
Q

What are the names of the ganglion of synapse in the efferent pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A

Pterygopalatine ganglion, sphenopalatine ganglion, Meckel’s ganglion

587
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation of blood vessels in the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A

Vasodilation of blood vessels, increased availability of water to secretory units, thinner or more watery product in lumen;

588
Q

Sympathetic fibers synapse in which ganglion in the pathway to the lacrimal gland

A

The superior cervical ganglion

589
Q

Sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A

Vasoconstriction of blood vessels, limited availability of water to secretory units, more viscous or thicker product formed in glandular lumen

590
Q

What cells of the lacrimal gland will cause the product to be released from the secretory unit?

A

Myoepithelial cells

591
Q

What are the names of the layers of the eyeball?

A

Fibrous tunic, uveal tract & retina

592
Q

What are the parts of the fibrous tunic of the eyeball?

A

Cornea and sclera

593
Q

What are the parts of the uveal tract of the eyeball?

A

Iris, ciliary body, choroid & pupil

594
Q

What muscles are present in the iris?

A

Sphincter papillae and dilator papillae

595
Q

What is the innervation of the ciliaris muscle?

A

Oculomotor nerve, parasympathetic pathway

596
Q

What is the innervation of the dilator pupillae?

A

Internal carotid artery plexus, sympathetic pathway

597
Q

What are the chambers of the eyeball in front of the lens?

A

Anterior chamber and posterior chamber

598
Q

What separates the anterior chamber and posterior chamber in the eyeball?

599
Q

What is contained in the anterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

Aqueous humor

600
Q

What is the primary cause of glaucoma

A

Excess aqueous humor in the chambers in front of the lens

601
Q

What is the name given to the chamber behind the lens?

A

Vitreous chamber

602
Q

What fills the vitreous chamber?

A

Vitreous body

603
Q

What are the functions of the vitreous body?

A

Maintain retinal curvature; allow minimal light distortion form lens to retina

604
Q

What are the common characteristics in origin and insertion of all rectus extraocular muscles?

A

They all originate from a common annular tendon in the orbit
They all insert into the sclera in front of the coronal equator of the eyeball

605
Q

What is the common characteristic regarding the insertion of both oblique extraocular muscles?

A

Both insert onto sclera on the lateral margin of the eyeball behind the the coronal equator

606
Q

What are the two unique features of the fourth cranial nerve

A

It is the only cranial nerve with an apparent origin from the brains’ dorsal surface; it is the only cranial efferent nerve to decussate within the midbrain from its nucleus

607
Q

Intrinsic muscles of the eyeball are innervated by which Visceral Efferent (VE) pathways?

A

Ciliaris and sphincter pupillae are innervated by parasympathetic; dilator pupillae is innervated by the sympathetics

608
Q

Which branch of the trigeminal nerve receives sensory information from the auricle?

A

Auriculotemporal nerve (mandibular division, trigeminal)

609
Q

What part of the external acoustic meatus is protected by cartilage?

A

Lateral one third

610
Q

The medial part of the external acoustic meatus is protected by___?

A

The temporal bone

611
Q

Skin lining external acoustic meatus contains what modified sebaceous glands?

A

Ceruminous glands

612
Q

Vascularization of the external acoustic meatus is derived from which branch(es) of the external carotid artery?

A

Posterior auricular artery, internal maxillary artery, superficial temporal artery… PIS

613
Q

The external acoustic meatus transmits sensory innervation via which specific cranial nerve branches?

A
Auriculotemporal nerve (mandibular division, trigeminal)
Auricular nerve (vagus)
614
Q

What vein is formed within the parotid gland?

A

The retromandibular vein

615
Q

Within the parotid gland what branches of the facial nerve are given off?

A

Posterior auricular, digastric, stylohyoid and forms the facial nerve plexus

616
Q

What branch of the facial nerve penetrates the parotid gland, but is not given off within it?

A

The chorda tympani nerve

617
Q

What branches of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve are given off within the parotid gland?

A

The auriculotemporal and lingual nerves

618
Q

What forms the lateral boundary of the infratemporal region?

A

Ramus of the mandible

619
Q

What are the contents of the infratemporal region?

A

Medial and lateral pterygoid muscles, internal maxillary artery and branches, pterygoid venous plexus, internal maxillary vein, branches of the trigeminal & facial nerves & the otic ganglion

620
Q

What are the attachment sites of the stylomandibular ligament?

A

Styloid process of the temporal bone to the angle of the mandible

621
Q

What are the attachment sites of the sphenomandibular ligament?

A

The spine of the sphenoid bone to the lingual of the mandible

622
Q

What muscles act to depress the mandible or open the mouth?

A

Lateral pterygoid along with the suprahyoid and infrahyoid muscles

623
Q

What muscles act to retract the mandible or pull the chin back?

A

Temporalis

624
Q

What openings are associated with the pterygopalatine region?

A

Inferior orbital fissure, pterygomaxillary fissure, sphenopalatine foramen and foramen rotundum

625
Q

Which ganglion is located within the pterygopalatine region?

A

The ptyergopalatine or Meckel’s ganglion

626
Q

What neural pathway is the pterygopalatine associated with?

A

Parasympathetic innervation of the lacrimal gland

627
Q

Which cranial nerves are associated with the parasympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A

The facial and trigeminal cranial nerves

628
Q

What divisions of the trigeminal nerve will be associated with the parasympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland

A

The ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve

629
Q

Which of the larger nasal cartilages lacks any attachment to the bone?

A

The major alar cartilage

630
Q

Which branch(es) of the external carotid artery will vascularize the external nose?

A

The facial and internal maxillary arteries

631
Q

Which branch(es) of the internal carotid artery will vascularize the external nose

A

The ophthalmic artery

632
Q

What nerves provide cutaneous sensation for the skin of external nose?

A

The ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve

633
Q

What is the vermillion border?

A

The name given to the junction between the skin and the red region of the lip

634
Q

What is the name given to the red region of the lip

A

The vermillion zone

635
Q

What is unique about the human lip

A

The natural red color

636
Q

What it’s he name given to the median depression of the upper lip

A

The Phil trump

637
Q

What is the name given to the depression extending from the nasal ala to the corner of the upper lip?

A

The nasolabial groove or the nasolabial sulcus

638
Q

What is the name given to the attaching material in the median plane from the lip to the gingiva proper

A

The superior labial frenulum or the inferior labial frenulum

639
Q

What forms the layers of the cheek from the external to internal?

A

The skin, corpus adiposum, buccinator muscle, buccal salivary glands and the mucous membrane of the cheek

640
Q

What is the location for the release of saliva from the parotid duct?

A

The buccal vestibule near the second maxillary molar